Related provisions for COCON 4.1.6

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COLL 6.5.10RRP
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund may not retire voluntarily except upon the appointment of a new depositary.(2) The depositary of an authorised fund must not retire voluntarily unless, before its retirement, it has ensured that the new depositary has been informed of any circumstance of which the retiring depositary has informed the FCA.(3) When the depositary of an authorised fund wishes to retire or ceases to be an authorised person, the authorised fundmanager may, subject
DEPP 1.1.1GRP
1This manual (DEPP) is relevant to firms, approved persons and other persons, whether or not they are regulated by the FCA.5 It sets out:5(1) the FCA's5 decision-making procedure for giving statutory notices. These are warning notices, decision notices and supervisory notices (DEPP 1.2 to DEPP 5);5(1A) the FCA's decision-making procedure in cases where the PRA is required to seek the FCA's consent before approving an application (a) for Part 4A permission; (b) for the variation
COLL 6.6B.11RRP
A depositary appointed under COLL 6.6A.8R(3) must: (1) ensure that it has the infrastructure necessary to keep in custody UCITS custodial assets that can be registered in a financial instruments account opened in the depositary’s books; (2) establish adequate policies and procedures sufficient to ensure the compliance of the depositary, including its managers and employees, with its obligations under the regulatory system; (3) have: (a) sound administrative and accounting procedures
FEES 6.1.4AGRP
Section 224F of the Act enables the appropriate regulator to make rules to enable the FSCS to impose levies on authorised persons (or any class of authorised persons) in order to meet its management expenses incurred if, under Part 15A of the Act, it is required by HM Treasury to act in relation to relevant schemes. But those rules must provide that the FSCS can impose a levy only if the FSCS has tried its best to obtain reimbursement of those expenses from the manager of the
SYSC 1.4.2RRP
A contravention of a rule in SYSC 11 to 2SYSC 21,7SYSC 22.8.1R, SYSC 22.9.1R or SYSC 288 does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action). 34437
COLL 7.6.1GRP
(1) A proposal that an authorised fund should be involved in a scheme of arrangement is subject to written notice to and approval by the FCA under section 251 of the Act (Alteration of schemes and changes of manager or trustee), section 261Q of the Act (Alteration of contractual schemes and changes of operator or depositary)2 or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company). Effect cannot be given to such a change
COND 2.5.6GRP
Examples of the kind of particular considerations to which the FCA may have regard when assessing whether a firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, this threshold condition include, but are not limited to, whether:1515(1) the firm has been open and co-operative in all its dealings with the FCA15and any other regulatory body (see Principle 11 (Relations with regulators)) and is ready, willing and organised to comply with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system
CASS 5.4.4RRP
A firm may not handle client money in accordance with the rules in this section unless each of the following conditions is satisfied:(1) the firm must have and maintain systems and controls which are adequate to ensure that the firm is able to monitor and manage its client money transactions and any credit risk arising from the operation of the trust arrangement and, if in accordance with CASS 5.4.2 R a firm complies with both the rules in CASS 5.3 and CASS 5.4, such systems and
CASS 5.1.4ARRP
(1) 3A firm will, subject to (3), be deemed to comply with CASS 5.3 to CASS 5.6 if it receives or holds client money and it either:2(a) in relation to a service charge, complies with the requirement to segregate such money in accordance with section 42 of the Landlord and Tenant Act 1987 ("the 1987 Act"); or2(b) in relation to money which is clients' money for the purpose of the Royal Institution of Chartered Surveyors' Rules of Conduct ("RICS rules") in force as at 14 January
DEPP 6.6.3GRP
In addition, in appropriate cases, the FCA2 may bring disciplinary action against the individuals3 within the firm's management who are ultimately responsible for ensuring that the firm's reports are completed and returned to the FCA2.22
SUP 5.4.8GRP
When considering whether to nominate, approve or appoint a skilled person to make a report or collect or update information, the FCA1 will have regard to the circumstances of the case, including whether the proposed skilled person appears to have:22(1) the skills necessary to make a report on the matter concerned or collect or update the relevant information;2(2) the ability to complete the report or collect or update the information within the time expected by the FCA1; 22(3)
IPRU-INV 5 App 1.1GRP

1The following words or terms throughout IPRU-INV 5 appearing in bold (other than headings and titles) are to have the meanings given to them below if not inconsistent with the subject or context. If a defined term is italicised the definition appearing in the main Handbook Glossary applies.

Term

Meaning

accounting reference date

means:

(a)

the date to which a firm's accounts are prepared in order to comply with the relevant Companies Act legislation. In the case of a firm not subject to Companies Act legislation, the equivalent date selected by the firm; and

(b)

in the case of an OPS firm which is not subject to the relevant Companies Act legislation, the date to which the accounts of the OPS in respect of which the firm acts are prepared.

annual expenditure

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.5.1 (Determination).

category a body

means:

(a)

the government or central bank of a zone a country; or

(b)

EU or Euratom (the European Atomic Energy Community); or

(c)

the government or central bank of any other country, provided the receivable in question is denominated in that country's national currency.

category b body

means:

(a)

the European Investment Bank (EIB) or a multi-lateral development bank; or

(b)

the regional government or local authority of a zone a country; or

(c)

an investment firm or credit institution authorised in a zone a country; or

(d)

a recognised clearing house or exchange; or

(e)

an investment firm or credit institution authorised in any other country, which applies a financial supervision regime at least equivalent to the Capital Adequacy Directive.

counterparty

means any person with or for whom a firm carries on regulated business or an ancillary activity.

counterparty risk requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.11.1R (Counterparty risk requirement).

expenditure based requirement

means the requirement calculated in accordance with IPRU-INV 5.9.1R (Expenditure based requirement).

financial resources

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.2.3R (Financial resources).

financial resources requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.1R (Determination of requirement).

financial resources rules

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.2.

financial return

means quarterly financial return or monthly financial return as the case may be.

foreign exchange position

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.14.1R (Foreign exchange requirement).

investment

means a designated investment in the main Glossary.

investment business

means designated investment business in the main Glossary.

investment firm

has the meaning given to investment firm in the main Glossary except that it excludes persons to which MiFID does not apply as a result of articles 2 or 3 of MiFID.

Note: An investment firm is not necessarily a firm for the purposes of the rules.

investment manager

means a person who, acting only on behalf of a customer, either:

(a)

manages an account or portfolio in the exercise of discretion; or

(b)

has accepted responsibility on a continuing basis for advising on the composition of the account or portfolio.

liquid capital

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.3.1R (Calculation of own funds and liquid capital).

liquid capital requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.4R (Liquid capital requirement).

non-retail client

means a professional client or an eligible counterparty.

OPS or occupational pension scheme

means any scheme or arrangement which is comprised in one or more instruments or agreements and which has, or is capable of having, effect in relation to one or more descriptions or categories of employment so as to provide benefits, in the form of pensions or otherwise, payable on termination of service, or on death or retirement, to or respect of earners with qualifying service in an employment of any such description or category.

OPS firm

means:

(a)

a firm which:

(i)

carries on OPS activity but not with a view to profit; and

(ii)

is one or more of the following:

(A)

a trustee of the occupational pension scheme in question;

(B)

a company owned by the trustees of the occupational pension scheme in question;

(C)

a company which is:

(I)

an employer in relation to the occupational pension scheme in question in respect of its employees or former employees or their dependants; or

(II)

a company within the group which includes an employer within (I); or

(III)

an administering authority subject to the Local Government Superannuation Regulations 1986; or

(b)

a firm which:

(i)

has satisfied the requirements set out in (a) at any time during the past 12 months; but

(ii)

is no longer able to comply with those requirements because of a change in the control or ownership of the employer referred to in (a)(ii) during that period.

otc derivative

means interest rate and foreign exchange contracts covered by Annex III to the previous version of the Banking Consolidation Directive (i.e. Directive (2000/12/EC) and off balance sheet contracts based on equities which are not traded on a recognised or designated investment exchange or other exchange where they are subject to daily margin requirements, excluding any foreign exchange contract with an original maturity of 14 calendar days or less.

other assets requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.17.1R (Other assets requirement).

own funds

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.3.1R and IPRU-INV 5.3.2R, as applicable.

own funds requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.3R and IPRU-INV 5.4.4R (Own funds requirement), as applicable.

permitted business

means regulated activity which a firm has permission to carry on.

position risk requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.11.1R (Position risk requirement).

prescribed subordinated loan agreement

means the subordinated loan agreement prescribed by the appropriate regulator for the purposes of IPRU-INV 5.6.4R.

qualifying capital instrument

means that part of a firm's capital which is a security of indeterminate duration, or other instrument, that fulfils the following conditions:

(a)

it may not be reimbursed on the bearer's initiative or without the prior agreement of the appropriate regulator;

(b)

the debt agreement must provide for the firm to have the option of deferring the payment of interest on the debt;

(c)

the lender's claims on the firm must be wholly subordinated to those of all non-subordinated creditors;

(d)

the documents governing the issue of the securities must provide for debt and unpaid interest to be such as to absorb losses, whilst leaving the firm in a position to continue trading; and

(e)

only fully paid-up amounts shall be taken into account.

qualifying capital item

means that part of a firm's capital which has the following characteristics:

(a)

it is freely available to the firm to cover normal banking or other risks where revenue or capital losses have not yet been identified;

(b)

its existence is disclosed in internal accounting records; and

(c)

its amount is determined by the management of the firm and verified by independent auditors, and is made known to, and is monitored by, the FCA.

Note: Verification by internal auditors will suffice until such time as EU provisions making external auditing mandatory have been implemented.

qualifying property

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.7.1R (Qualifying property and qualifying amount defined).

qualifying subordinated loan

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.6 (Qualifying subordinated loans).

qualifying undertaking

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.7.3R (Qualifying undertakings).

readily realisable investment

means a unit in a regulated collective investment scheme, a life policy or any marketable investment other than one which is traded on or under the rules of a recognised or designated investment exchange so irregularly or infrequently:

(a)

that it cannot be certain that a price for that investment will be quoted at all times; or

(b)

that it may be difficult to effect transactions at any price which may be quoted.

regulated business

means designated investment business in the main Glossary.

relevant foreign exchange items

means:

(a)

all assets less liabilities, including accrued interest, denominated in the currency (all investments at market or realisable value);

(b)

any currency future, at the nominal value of the contract;

(c)

any forward contract for the purchase or sale of the currency, at the contract value, including any future exchange of principal associated with currency swaps;

(d)

any foreign currency options at the net delta (or delta-based) equivalent of the total book of such options;

(e)

any non-currency option, at market value;

(f)

any irrevocable guarantee;

(g)

any other off-balance sheet commitment to purchase or sell an asset denominated in that currency.

reporting currency

means the currency in which the firm's books of account are maintained.

specified trustee business

1.

means any investment business carried on in the UK by a trustee firm, but excluding each of the following activities:

(a)

Dealing or arranging deals in investments

(i)

where the deal is transacted or arranged by a trustee firm with or through a PTP; or

(ii)

where the dealing or arranging is done in the course of, or is incidental to, an activity of management falling within paragraph (b) below; or

(iii)

where the trust is a unit trust scheme and the deal is or the arrangements are made with a view to either an issue or sale of units in such a scheme to, or a redemption or repurchase or conversion of such units or a dealing in investments for such a scheme carried out by with or through, the operator or on the instructions of the operator; or

(iv)

where the trustee firm, being a bare trustee (or, in Scotland, a nominee) holding investments for another person, is acting on that person's instructions; or

(v)

where any arrangements do not or would not bring about the transaction in question.

(b)

Managing investments

(i)

where the trustee firm has no general authority to effect transactions in investments at discretion; or

(ii)

if and to the extent that all day-to-day decisions in relation to the management of the investments or any discrete part of the investments are or are to be taken by a PTP; or

(iii)

if and to the extent that investment decisions in relation to the investments or any discrete part of the investments are or are to be taken substantially in accordance with the advice given by a PTP; or

(iv)

where the trustee firm is a personal representative or executor and is acting in that capacity; or

(v)

where the trust is a unit trust scheme and all day-to-day investment decisions in the carrying on of that activity are or are to be taken by the operator of the scheme.

(c)

Investment advice

(i)

where the relevant advice:

(A)

does not recommend the entry into any investment transaction or the exercise of any right conferred by any investment to acquire, dispose of, underwrite or convert such an investment; and

(ii)

if and to the extent that the relevant advice is in substance the advice of a PTP; or

(iii)

where the relevant advice is given by the trustee firm acting in the capacity of personal representative or executor.

(d)

Establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme including acting as trustee of an authorised unit trust scheme but only to the extent that such activities do not otherwise constitute specified trustee business.

(e)

Any trustee activity undertaken as trustee of an issue of debentures or government or public securities:

(i)

where the issue is made by a company listed on a recognised investment exchange or on a designated investment exchange (or by a wholly-owned subsidiary of such a company); or

(ii)

where the issue is listed or traded either on a recognised investment exchange or on a designated investment exchange or on the Société de la Bourse de Luxembourg; or

(iii)

where the issue is made by a government, local authority or international organisation; or

(iv)

where the aggregate amounts issued (pursuant to the trust deed or any deed supplemental thereto and ignoring any amounts redeemed, repurchased or converted) exceed the sum of £10,000,000.

2.

For the purpose of this definition of "specified trustee business":

(a)

a transaction is entered into through a person if that person:

(i)

enters into it as agent; or

(ii)

arranges for it to be entered into as principal or agent by another person and the arrangements are such that they bring about the transaction in question;

(b)

investment transaction means a transaction to purchase, sell, subscribe for or underwrite a particular investment and "investment decision" means a decision relating to an investment transaction;

(c)

debentures means any securities falling within article 77 of the RAO;

(d)

government or public securities means any securities falling within article 78) of the RAO;

(e)

government, local authority or international organisation means:

(i)

the government of the United Kingdom, of Northern Ireland, or of any country or territory outside the United Kingdom;

(ii)

a local authority in the United Kingdom or Anywhere; or

(iii)

an international organisation the members of which include the United Kingdom or another EEA State.

(f)

in determining the size of an issue of debentures or government or public securities made in a currency other than sterling, the amount of the issue shall be converted into sterling at the exchange rate prevailing in London on the date of issue.

total capital requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.5R (Total capital requirement).

trading book

in relation to a firm's business or exposures, means:

(a)

its proprietary positions in financial instruments:

(i)

which are held for resale and/or are taken on by the firm with the intention of benefiting in the short term from actual and/or expected differences between their buying and selling prices or from other price or interest-rate variations;

(ii)

arising from matched principal broking;

(iii)

taken in order to hedge other elements of the trading book;

(b)

exposures due to unsettled securities transactions, free deliveries, OTC derivative instruments, repurchase agreements and securities lending transactions based on securities included in (a)(i) to (iii) above, reverse repurchase agreements and securities borrowing transactions based on securities included in (a)(i) to (iii) above; and

(c)

fees, commission, interest and dividends, and margin on exchange-traded derivatives which are directly related to the items included in (a) and (b) above.

trustee activity

means, in relation to a firm, any activity undertaken in the course of or incidental to the exercise of any of its powers, or the performance of any of its duties, when

unit trust manager

means the manager of a unit trust scheme.

zone b country

means a country which is not a Zone A country in the Glossary.
COLL 4.3.2GRP
(1) The diagram in COLL 4.3.3 G explains how an authorised fund manager should treat changes it is proposing to a scheme and provides an overview of the rules and guidance in this section.(2) Regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company), section 261Q of the Act (Alteration of contractual schemes and changes of operator or depositary)5 and section 251 of the Act (Alteration of schemes and changes of manager or trustee)
FEES 10.1.1RRP
This chapter applies to a firm that:(1) (a) has a Part 4A Permission; or(b) is an incoming EEA firm with a branch in the United Kingdom; or(c) is an incoming Treaty firm with a branch in the United Kingdom; and(2) is in one of the following activity groups listed in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1A: (a) A.1 Deposit acceptors;(b) A.4 Insurers — life;(c) A.7 Portfolio managers excluding Class (1)A firms;(d) A.9 Managers and depositaries of investment funds, and operators of collective
CASS 9.3.2GRP
(1) Principle 10 (Clients’ assets) requires a firm to arrange adequate protection for client's assets when it is responsible for them. As part of these protections, the custody rules require a firm to take appropriate steps to protect safe custody assets for which it is responsible.(2) Subject to paragraph (3), a 3prime brokerage firm should not enter into “right to use arrangements” for a client'ssafe custody assets unless:13(a) in the case of a CASS small firm or a firm to
SUP 6.3.5GRP
Before applying to vary its permission, a firm should determine whether there are any statutory restrictions that do not allow combinations of certain types of regulated activity, particularly for insurance business or UCITS managers. For example, the PRA27 will not grant a variation of Part 4A permission27 to allow a friendly society to carry on reinsurance business as this is not permitted under the Friendly Societies Acts 1974 and 1992.10 A firm should discuss its plans with