Related provisions for IFPRU 7.1.7
901 - 920 of 1123 items.
34DISP App 1.5.10 G provides firms with the opinion of underpinning benefits. Firms should satisfy the FCA that their proposals provide complainants with a level of redress that is at least commensurate with the standard approaches and, to ensure consistency, windfall augmentations should be excluded when considering whether an underpin will apply. The FCA will take this into account when considering proposals put forward by firms.
Table:
This table belongs to BIPRU 9.12.10 R
44Credit Quality Step |
Securitisation positions |
Resecuritisation positions |
||||
Credit assessments other than short term |
Short-term credit assessments |
A |
B |
C |
D |
E |
1 |
1 |
7% |
12% |
20% |
20% |
30% |
2 |
8% |
15% |
25% |
25% |
40% |
|
3 |
10% |
18% |
35% |
35% |
50% |
|
4 |
2 |
12% |
20% |
40% |
65% |
|
5 |
20% |
35% |
60% |
100% |
||
6 |
35% |
50% |
100% |
150% |
||
7 |
3 |
60% |
75% |
150% |
225% |
|
8 |
100% |
200% |
350% |
|||
9 |
250% |
300% |
500% |
|||
10 |
425% |
500% |
650% |
|||
11 |
650% |
750% |
850% |
|||
all other, unrated |
1250% |
|||||
[Note: For mapping of the credit quality step to the credit assessments of eligible ECAIs, refer to: http://www.fca.org.uk/your-fca/documents/fsa-ecais-securitisation for the FCA and http://www.bankofengland.co.uk/publications/Documents/other/pra/policy/2013/ecaissecuritisation.pdf for the PRA.]
Professional firms (broadly firms of solicitors, accountants and actuaries) may carry on insurance distribution activities3 in the course of their professional activities. Exempt professional firms carrying on insurance distribution activities3 may continue to be able to use the Part XX exemption to avoid any need for authorisation. PROF 2 (Status of exempt professional firm) contains guidance on the Part XX exemption. They will, however, need to be shown on the Financial Services
In the FCA's opinion, section 21 will apply to a communication (made in the course of business) if it contains an invitation or inducement to engage in investment activity which is addressed to a particular person or to persons generally. Where this is the case, it will not matter that the communication may be physically delivered to someone other than the person who is intended to engage in investment activity. PERG 8.6.10 G gives more guidance on this.
(1) A firm must provide the FCA by the end of February each year (or, if the firm has become subject to the Financial Ombudsman Service part way through the financial year, by the date requested by the FCA) with a statement of:(a) the total amount of relevant business (measured in accordance with the appropriate tariff base(s)) which it conducted; or8(b) in the case of firms in industry blocks 2 and 4, the gross written premium for fees purposes as defined in FEES 4 Annex 1AR
(1) The authorised fund manager may, with the prior agreement of the depositary, and must without delay, if the depositary so requires,1 within any parameters which are fair and reasonable in respect of all the unitholders in the scheme and which are set out in the prospectus, temporarily1 suspend dealings in units of the scheme, a sub-fund or a class.(2) Any suspension within (1) must only be where the authorised fund manager has determined on reasonable grounds that there is
The FCA may authorise the omission of information required by LR 9.7A.1 R or LR 9.7A.2 R if it considers that disclosure of such information would be contrary to the public interest or seriously detrimental to the listed company, provided that such omission would not be likely to mislead the public with regard to facts and circumstances, knowledge of which is essential for the assessment of the shares.1
1The insurance client money chapter2 does not apply to an authorised professional firm with respect to its non-mainstream regulated activities, which are insurance distribution activities8, if:2(1) the firm's designated professional body has made rules which implement article 10.68 of the IDD8;33(2) those rules have been approved by the FCA under section 332(5) of the Act; and(3) the firm is subject to the rules in the form in which they were approved.
At step 1, the3 aspects of complaint handling dealt with in this appendix are how the firm should:(1) assess a complaint in order to establish whether the firm's conduct of the sale failed to comply with the rules, or was otherwise in breach of the duty of care or any other requirement of the general law (taking into account relevant materials published by the FCA, other relevant regulators, the Financial Ombudsman Service and former schemes). In this appendix this is referred
1The FCA will consider all the relevant circumstances of each case and may take a number of factors into account when it decides whether to use these powers. The following list is not exhaustive; not all these factors may be relevant in a particular case and there may be other factors that are relevant. (1) The seriousness of the breach or likely breach by an authorised fund
manager or depositary of a requirement imposed by or under the Act. The following
Similarly, the appropriate regulator6 needs to monitor a firm's continuing satisfaction of the6threshold conditions6 set out in paragraphs 3B, 4F and 5F of Schedule 6 to the Act (as applicable) (in relation to threshold conditions for which the FCA is responsible,6 see COND 2.32), which requires that a firm's close links are not likely to prevent the appropriate regulator's6 effective supervision of that firm. Accordingly the appropriate regulator6 needs to be notified of any
An operator of a scheme recognised under section 272 of the Act must ensure the prospectus:(1) contains a statement that "Complaints about the operation of the scheme may be made to the FCA."; and(2) states whether or not investors in the scheme would be covered by the compensation scheme, and if so, it must state how they are covered and who they would need to contact for further information.
(1) There are certain additional disclosure requirements laid down by the Distance Marketing Directive that will have to be provided by a mortgage intermediary,6 a home purchase intermediary and a SRB intermediary64 to a consumer5 prior to the conclusion of a distance mortgage mediation contract,66 a distance home purchase mediation contract4 or a distance regulated sale and rent back mediation contract.6 The purpose of this section, MCOB 4.5, is to set out those additional requirements.