Related provisions for BIPRU 9.6.8
81 - 100 of 385 items.
A company with, or applying for, a premium listing of its securities11 must appoint a sponsor on each occasion that it:45(1) is required to submit any of the following documents to the FCA in connection with6 an application for admission of securities115 to premium listing6:66(a) a prospectus, supplementary prospectus7 or equivalent document1; or6(b) a certificate of approval from another competent authority; or6(c) a summary document as required by PR 1.2.3R (8); or6(d) listing
If a company with a premium listing6 is proposing to enter into a transaction which due to its size or nature could amount to a class 1 transaction or a reverse takeover it must obtain the guidance of a sponsor to assess the application of the listing rules, the6disclosure requirements10 and the 6transparency rules.3263
The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that is a master UCITS must provide the management company of its feeder UCITS with all documents and information necessary for the latter to meet its regulatory obligations under the UCITS Directive.[Note: article 60(1) first paragraph first sentence of the UCITS Directive]
An authorised fund manager of a master UCITS must ensure the timely availability of all information that is required in accordance with its obligations under the regulatory system, the general law and the instrument constituting the fund,2 to:2(1) the feeder UCITS (or where applicable its management company);(2) the competent authority of the feeder UCITS;(3) the depositary of the feeder UCITS; and(4) the auditor of the feeder UCITS.[Note: article 66(3) of the UCITS Directive
The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that operates, or intends to operate, as a master UCITS must:(1) not enter into a master-feeder agreement or, where applicable, internal conduct of business rules in accordance with COLL 11.3.2R (2) unless it is satisfied on reasonable grounds that the arrangements with the feeder UCITS will not unfairly prejudice the interests of any other unitholder or class of unitholders in the master UCITS;(2) consider, in relation to:(a) each
Upon request, an issuer or other person must be able to communicate to the FCA, in relation to any disclosure of regulated information:(1) the name of the person who communicated the regulated information to the RIS;(2) the security validation details;(3) the time and date on which the regulated information was communicated to the RIS;(4) the medium in which the regulated information was communicated; and(5) details of any embargo placed by the issuer on the regulated information,
(1) Information that is disclosed in a non-EEA State which may be of importance to the public in the EEA must be disclosed in accordance with the provisions set out in DTR 6.2 and DTR 6.3. (2) Paragraph (1) applies additionally to information that is not regulated information.[Note: article 23(3) of the TD]
Subject to CASS 5.5.41 R,
a firm that holds or intends
to hold client money with a
bank which is in the same group as
the firm must:(1) undertake
a continuous review in relation to that bank which is at least as rigorous
as the review of any bank which is not in the same group,
in order to ensure that the decision to use a group bank
is appropriate for the client;(2) disclose
in writing to its client at
the outset of the client relationship
(whether by way of a client agreement,4terms
of
A firm must
not undertake any transaction for a consumer5 that involves client money being
passed to another broker or settlement agent located
in a jurisdiction outside the United Kingdom,
unless the firm has previously
disclosed to the consumer5 (whether in its terms of business, client agreement 4or otherwise in writing):554(1) that
his client money may be passed
to a person outside the United Kingdom but the client may
notify the firm that he does
not wish his money to be
(1) A firm must disclose to the customer the fee, if any, payable by a customer to the firm for its services. [Note: section 160A(4) of CCA] (2) Any fee to be paid by the customer to the firm must be agreed between the customer and the firm, and that agreement must be recorded in writing or other durable medium before a regulated credit agreement is entered into.[Note: section 160A(4) of CCA] (3) A firm must disclose to the lender the fee, if any, for its activity payable by the
(1) 1A firm must not:(a) request, claim, demand, initiate or take payment of a charge from a customer, or from the customer's payment account, in connection with services it has provided or is to provide; or(b) if the purpose, or one of the purposes, is to collect such a charge from a customer, invite or induce a customer to provide information in relation to a payment card or instrument that would enable a payment from the customer's payment account to be initiated by or through
Principles 6 (Customers' interests), 7 (Communications with clients), 8 (Conflicts of interest), 9 (Customers: relationships of trust) and 10 (Clients' assets) impose requirements on firms expressly in relation to their clients or customers. These requirements depend, in part, on the characteristics of the client or customer concerned. This is because what is "due regard" (in Principles 6 and 7), "fairly" (in Principles 6 and 8), "clear, fair and not misleading" (in Principle
If the person with or for whom the firm is carrying on an activity is acting through an agent, the ability of the firm to treat the agent as its client under COBS 2.4.3 R3 (Agent as client) will not be available. For example, if a general insurer is effecting a general insurance contract through a general insurance broker who is acting as agent for a disclosed policyholder, the policyholder will be a client of the firm and the firm must comply with the Principles accordingly.
Reasonable assistance in SUP 5.5.9 R should include:(1) access at all reasonable business hours for the skilled person to the firm's accounting and other records in whatever form;(2) providing such information and explanations as the skilled person reasonably considers necessary or desirable for the performance of his duties; and (3) permitting a skilled person to obtain such information directly from the firm's auditor as he reasonably considers necessary or desirable for the
(1) A firm must provide the FCA by the end of February each year (or, if the firm has become subject to the Financial Ombudsman Service part way through the financial year, by the date requested by the FCA) with a statement of:(a) the total amount of relevant business (measured in accordance with the appropriate tariff base(s)) which it conducted; or8(b) in the case of firms in industry blocks 2 and 4, the gross written premium for fees purposes as defined in FEES 4 Annex 1AR
(1) Prior to the conclusion of an initial contract and, if necessary, on its amendment or renewal, an insurer must disclose to the customer at least:(a) the statutory status disclosure statement (see GEN 4);(b) whose policies it offers; and(c) whether it is providing a personal recommendation or information.(2) [deleted]2
Application forms must always be completed fully and honestly. Further notes on how to complete the form are contained in each form. If forms are not completed fully and honestly, applications will be subject to investigation and the FCAcandidate's suitability to be approved to undertake an FCA controlled function will be called into question. A person who provides information to the FCA that is false or misleading may commit a criminal offence, and could face prosecution under
Before making a decision to grant the application or give a warning notice, the FCA may ask the firm for more information about the FCA candidate. If it does this, the three-month period in which the FCA must determine a completed application:(1) will stop on the day the FCA requests the information; and(2) will start running again on the day on which the FCA finally receives all the requested information.
The FCA1 would not normally seek to gather information using the methods described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4 in a situation where the FCA1 could not have obtained it under the powers in Part XI of the Act (Information Gathering and Investigations). In particular, the limitations in the following sections of the Act are relevant to this chapter:11(1) section 175(5) (Information and documents: supplementary powers) under which no person may be required under Part XI of the Act (Information
When the FCA1 obtains confidential information using the methods of information gathering described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4, it is obliged under Part XXIII of the Act (Public Record, Disclosure of Information and Co-operation) to treat that information as confidential. The FCA1 will not disclose confidential information without lawful authority, for example if an exception applies under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Disclosure of Confidential Information) Regulations
The notice required by CONC 7.19.4 R must contain:(1) a form of wording to the effect that it relates to default sums and is given in compliance with FCArules;(2) the date of the notice;(3) a description of the agreement sufficient to identify it;(4) the firm's name, telephone number, postal address and, where appropriate, any other address;(5) the amount and nature of each default sum payable under the agreement which has not been the subject of a previous notice of default sums;(6)
An announcement should be notified to a RIS no later than the date the terms of the disposal are agreed and should contain:(1) all relevant information required to be notified under LR 10.4.1 R;(2) the name of the acquirer and the expected date of completion of the disposal;(3) full disclosure about the continuing groups prospects for at least the current financial year;(4) a statement that the directors believe that the disposal is in the best interests of the company and shareholders
(1) The FCA will wish to examine the documents referred to in LR 10.8.3 G (including the RIS announcement) before it grants the modification and before the announcement is released.(2) The documents should ordinarily be lodged with the FCA:(a) in draft form at least five clear business days before the terms of the transaction are agreed; and(b) in final form on the day on which approval is sought.
The firm (or, where applicable, a successor) must as soon as reasonably practicable, and no later than 29 November 2017, send a written communication to the complainant which:(1) informs the complainant that, despite having already made a complaint in relation to the sale of a payment protection contract, they can make a further complaint against the CCA lender in relation to a failure to disclose commission;(2) makes clear the identity of the CCA lender, where this is known to
The obligation to send a written communication does not apply where, in relation to the relevant payment protection contract the firm, or where appropriate the Financial Ombudsman Service, has previously considered, or indicated to the complainant in writing that it will consider, a complaint on the basis of a failure to disclose profit share and/or commission.
If an MCD regulated mortgage contract contains a fixed borrowing rate in relation to the initial period of at least five years, at the end of which a negotiation on the borrowing rate must take place to agree on a new fixed rate for a further material period, the calculation of the additional, illustrative APRC disclosed in the ESIS must:(1) cover only the initial fixed-rate period; and(2) be based on the assumption that, at the end of the fixed borrowing rate period, the capital
If an MCD regulated mortgage contract:(1) allows for variations in the borrowing rate; and(2) it does not fall within MCOB 10A.1.5 R,the ESIS must contain an additional APRC which illustrates the possible risks linked to a significant increase in the borrowing rate. Where the borrowing rate is not capped, this information must be accompanied by a warning highlighting that the total cost of the credit to the consumer, shown by the APRC, may change.[Note: article 17(6) of the M
(1) The firm must disclose to the consumer:(a) in good time before or, if that is not possible, immediately after the consumer is bound by a contract that attracts a right to cancel or withdraw; and(b) in a durable medium;the existence of the right to cancel or withdraw, its duration and the conditions for exercising it including information on the amount which the consumer may be required to pay, the consequences of not exercising it and practical instructions for exercising
In accordance with section 1 of PIDA:(1) a "protected disclosure" is a qualifying disclosure which meets the relevant requirements set out in part 4A of the Employment Rights Act 19963;3(2) a "qualifying disclosure" is a disclosure, made in the public interest3, of information which, in the reasonable belief of the worker making the disclosure, tends to show that one or more of the following (a "failure") has been, is being, or is likely to be, committed:3(a) a criminal offence;
1The guidance on initial disclosure requirements in MCOB 4.4A3 may be relevant; in this context, that guidance should be read using home purchase plan terminology instead of the equivalent regulated mortgage contract terminology, where appropriate3.Additional requirements for distance home purchase mediation contracts with retail customersNote: The rules regarding additional disclosure requirements for, and cancellation of, distance home purchase mediation contracts are set out
3For the purposes of MCOB 4.10.5A R:(1) a home purchase plan will not be suitable for a customer unless the home purchase plan is appropriate to the needs and circumstances of the customer;(2) a firm must base its determination of whether a home purchase plan is appropriate to a customer's needs and circumstances on the facts disclosed by the customer and other relevant facts about the customer of which the firm is or should reasonably be aware;(3) no advice must be given to a