Related provisions for EG 12.3.3

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DISP 3.3.4RRP
The Ombudsman may dismiss a complaint413referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service before 9 July 2015 413without considering its merits if 413the Ombudsman413considers that:5(1) the complainant has not suffered (or is unlikely to suffer) financial loss, material distress or material inconvenience; or(2) the complaint is frivolous or vexatious; or(3) the complaint clearly does not have any reasonable prospect of success; or(4) the respondent has already made an offer of compensation
SUP 11.8.6GRP
The appropriate regulator9 may ask the firm for additional information following a notification under SUP 11.8.1 R in order to satisfy itself that the controller continues to be suitable (see SUP 2: Information gathering by the FCA or PRA6 on its own initiative).999
COLL 8.2.6RRP

This table belongs to COLL 8.2.5 R

1

Description of the authorised fund

Information detailing:

(1)

the name of the authorised fund;

(2)

that the authorised fund is a qualified investor scheme; and

(3)

in the case of an ICVC, whether the head office of the company is situated in England and Wales or Wales or Scotland or Northern Ireland.

3Property Authorised Investment Funds

1A

For a property authorised investment fund, a statement that:

(1)

it is a property authorised investment fund;

(2)

no body corporate may seek to obtain or intentionally maintain a holding of more that 10% of the net asset value of the fund; and

(3)

in the event that the authorised fund manager reasonably considers that a body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund, the authorised fund manager is entitled to delay any redemption or cancellation of units in accordance with 6A if the authorised fund manager reasonably considers such action to be:

(a)

necessary in order to enable an orderly reduction of the holding to below 10%; and

(b)

in the interests of the unitholders as a whole.

2

Constitution

The following statements:

(1)

the scheme property of the scheme is entrusted to a depositary for safekeeping (subject to any exception permitted by the rules);

(2)

if relevant, the duration of the scheme is limited and, if so, for how long;

(3)

charges and expenses of the scheme may be taken out of scheme property;

(4)

for an ICVC:

(a)

what the maximum and minimum sizes of the scheme's capital are; and

(b)

the unitholders are not liable for the debts of the company;5

6

5(4A)

for an ICVC which is an umbrella, a statement that the assets of a sub-fund belong exclusively to that sub-fund and shall not be used to discharge directly or indirectly the liabilities of, or claims against, any other person or body, including the umbrella, or any other sub-fund, and shall not be available for any such purpose;6

6(4B)

for a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella, the property subject to a sub-fund is beneficially owned by the participants in that sub-fund as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants in that sub-fund) and must not be used to discharge any liabilities of, or meet any claims against, any person other than the participants in that sub-fund;

6(4C)

for a limited partnership scheme, that the scheme prohibits pooling as is mentioned in section 235(3)(a) of the Act in relation to separate parts of the scheme property, with the effect that the scheme cannot be an umbrella;

(5)

for an AUT:

(a)

the trust deed:

(i)

is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, or the law of Scotland or the law of Northern Ireland;

(ii)

is binding on each unitholder as if he had been a party to it and that he is bound by its provisions; and

(iii)

authorises and requires the trustee and the manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms;

(b)

subject to the provisions of the trust deed and all the rules made under section 247 of the Act (Trust scheme rules):

(i)

the scheme (other than sums held to the credit of the distribution account) is held by the trustee on trust for the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of individual shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and

(ii)

the sums standing to the credit of any distribution account are held by the trustee on trust to distribute or apply in accordance with COLL 8.5.15 R (Income);

(c)

a Unitholder is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units he holds; and

(d)

payments to the trustee by way of remuneration are authorised to be paid (in whole or in part) out of the scheme property; and6

6

(6)6

for an ACS:

(a)

the contractual scheme deed:

(i)

is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, or the law of Scotland or the law of Northern Ireland;

(ii)

is binding on each unitholder as if he had been a party to it and that he is bound by its provisions;

(iii)

authorises and requires the depositary and the authorised contractual scheme manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms; and

(iv)

states that units may not be issued to a person other than a person7:

(A)

who 7is a:

(i)

professional ACS investor;

(ii)

large ACS investor; or

(iii)

person who already holds units in the scheme; and

(B)

to whom units in a qualified investor scheme may be promoted under COBS 4.12.4 R;7

7

(v)

states that the authorised contractual scheme manager of an ACS must redeemunits as soon as practicable after becoming aware that those units are vested in anyone (whether as a result of subscription or transfer of units) other than a person meeting the criteria in (iv)(A) and (B);

(vi)

states that for a co-ownership scheme:

(A)

the scheme property is beneficially owned by the participants as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants);

(B)

the arrangements constituting the scheme are intended to constitute a co-ownership scheme as defined in section 235A(2) of the Act; and

(C)

the operator and depositary are required to wind up the scheme if directed to do so by the FCA in exercise of its power under section 261X (Directions) or section 261Z (Winding up or merger of master UCITS) of the Act;

(vii)

states:

(A)

whether the transfer of units in the ACS scheme or, for a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella (sub-funds of which pursue differing policies in relation to transfer of units), in each particular sub-fund, is either:

(i)

prohibited; or

(ii)

allowed;

(B)

where transfer of units is allowed by the scheme or, where appropriate the sub-fund, in accordance with (A)(ii), units may only be transferred in accordance with the conditions specified by FCArules, including that units may not be transferred to a person other than a person :

7

(i)

who 7is a:

(1)

professional ACS investor; or

(2)

large ACS investor; or

(3)

person who already holds units in the scheme; and

(ii)

to whom units in a qualified investor scheme may be promoted under COBS 4.12.4 R; and7

7

(viii)

states that for a limited partnership scheme, the scheme is not dissolved on any person ceasing to be a limited partner or nominated partner provided that there remains at least one limited partner;

(b)

subject to the provisions of the contractual scheme deed and all the rules made under section 261I of the Act (Contractual scheme rules) and for the time being in force:

(i)

the scheme property (other than sums standing to the credit of the distribution account) is held by, or to the order of, the depositary for and on behalf of the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of individual shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and

(ii)

the sums standing to the credit of any distribution account are held by the depositary to distribute or apply them in accordance with COLL 8.5.15 R(Income); and

(c)

a unitholder in a co-ownership scheme is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units he holds;

(d)

a unitholder in a limited partnership scheme is not liable for the debts or obligations of the limited partnership scheme beyond the amount of the scheme property which is available to the authorised contractual scheme manager to meet such debts or obligations, provided that the unitholder does not take part in the management of the partnership business;

(e)

the exercise of rights conferred on limited partners by FCA rules does not constitute taking part in the management of the partnership business;

(f)

the limited partners, other than the nominated partner, are to be the participants in the scheme; and

(g)

the operator of a co-ownership scheme is authorised to:

(i)

acquire, manage and dispose of the scheme property; and

(ii)

enter into contracts which are binding on unitholders for the purposes of, or in connection with, the acquisition, management or disposal of scheme property.

3

Investment objectives

A statement of the object of the scheme, in particular the types of investments and assets in which it and each sub-fund (where applicable) may invest and that the object of the scheme is to invest in property of that kind with the aim of spreading investment risk.

4

Units in the scheme

A statement of:

(1)

the classes of units which the scheme may issue, indicating, for a scheme which is an umbrella, which class or classes may be issued in respect of each sub-fund; and

(2)

the rights attaching to units of each class (including any provisions for the expression in two denominations of such rights).

5

Limitation on issue of and redemption of units

Details as to:

(1)

the provisions relating to any restrictions on the right to redeem units in any class; and

(2)

the circumstances in which the issue of the units of any particular class may be limited.

6

Income and distribution

Details of the person responsible for the calculation, transfer, allocation and distribution of income for any class of unit in issue during the accounting period.

3Redemption or cancellation of units on breach of law or rules

6A

A statement that where any holding of units by a unitholder is (or is reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager to be) an infringement of any law, governmental regulation or rule, those units must be redeemed or cancelled.

7

Base currency

A statement of the base currency of the scheme.

8

Meetings

Details of the procedures for the convening of meetings and the procedures relating to resolutions, voting and the voting rights for unitholders.

9

Powers and duties of the authorised fund manager and depositary

Where relevant, details of any function to be undertaken by the authorised fund manager and depositary which the rules in COLL require to be stated in the instrument constituting the fund.8

8

10

Termination and suspension

Details of:

(1)

the grounds under which the authorised fund manager may initiate a suspension of the scheme and any associated procedures; and

(2)

the methodology for determining the rights of unitholders to participate in the scheme property on winding up.

110A

Investment in overseas2 property through an intermediate holding vehicle1

If investment in an overseas2 immovable is to be made through an intermediate holding vehicle or a series of intermediate holding vehicles, a statement that the purpose of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles will be to enable the holding of overseas2 immovables by the scheme.1

11

Other relevant matters

Details of those matters which enable the scheme, authorised fund manager or depositary to obtain any privilege or power conferred by the rules in COLL which is not otherwise provided for in the instrument constituting the fund.8

8
PERG 8.1.4GRP
This guidance is issued under section 139A of the Act. It represents the FCA's views and does not bind the courts. For example, it would not bind the courts in an action for damages brought by a private person for breach of a rule (see section 138D of the Act (Actions for damages)), or in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of sections 19 (The general prohibition) or 21 (Restrictions on financial promotion) of the Act (see sections 26 to
COLL 3.3.2GRP
(1) The instrument constituting the fund5 may provide for different classes of unit to be issued in an authorised fund and, for a scheme which is an umbrella, provide that classes of units may be issued for each sub-fund.5(2) In order to be satisfied that COLL 3.2.2 R (Relationship between the Instrument constituting the fund5and the rules) is complied with, the FCA will take into account the principles in (a) to (c) when considering proposals for unit classes:5(a) a unit class
DISP 1.4.2GRP
Factors that may be relevant in the assessment of a complaint under DISP 1.4.1R (2) include the following:59(1) all the evidence available and the particular circumstances of the complaint;(2) similarities with other complaints received by the respondent;(3) relevant guidance published by the FCA , other relevant regulators, the Financial Ombudsman Service or former schemes; and(4) appropriate analysis of decisions by the Financial Ombudsman Service concerning similar complaints
EG App 3.3.2RP
1Under the Criminal Justice Act 1987 the Director of the SFO may investigate any suspected offence which appears on reasonable grounds to involve serious or complex fraud and may also conduct, or take over the conduct of, the prosecution of any such offence. The SFO may investigate in conjunction with any other person with whom the Director thinks it is proper to do so; that includes a police force (or the FCA or any other regulator). The criteria used by the SFO for deciding
REC 2.7A.1UKRP

1Paragraph 7BA – Position management

(1)

A [UK RIE] operating a trading venue which trades commodity derivatives must apply position management controls on that venue, which must at least enable the [UK RIE] to -

(a)

monitor the open interest positions of persons;

(b)

access information, including all relevant documentation, from persons about-

(i)

the size and purpose of a position or exposure entered into;

(ii)

any beneficial or underlying owners;

(iii)

any concert arrangements; and

(iv)

any related assets or liabilities in the underlying market;

(c)

require a person to terminate or reduce a position on a temporary or permanent basis as the specific case may require and to unilaterally take appropriate action to ensure the termination or reduction if the person does not comply; and

(d)

where appropriate, require a person to provide liquidity back into the market at an agreed price and volume on a temporary basis with the express intent of mitigating the effects of a large or dominant position.

(2)

The position management controls must take account of the nature and composition of market participants and of the use they make of the contracts submitted to trading and must-

(a)

be transparent;

(b)

be non-discriminatory; and

(c)

specify how they apply to persons.

(3)

A [UK RIE] must inform the FCA of the details of the position management controls in relation to each trading venue it operates.

Paragraph 7BB – Position reporting

(1)

This paragraph applies to a [UK RIE] operating a trading venue which trades commodity derivatives, emission allowances, or emission allowance derivatives.

(2)

The [UK RIE] must -

(a)

where it meets the minimum threshold, as specified in a delegated act adopted by the European Commission pursuant to Article 58.6 of the markets in financial instruments directive, make public a weekly report with the aggregate positions held by the different categories of persons for the different commodity derivatives, emission allowances, or emission allowance derivatives traded on the trading venue specifying -

(i)

the number of long and short positions by such categories;

(ii)

changes of those positions since the previous report;

(iii)

the percentage of the total open interest represented by each category; and

(iv)

the number of persons holding a position in each category; and

(b)

provide the FCA with a complete breakdown of the positions held by all persons, including the members and participants and their clients, on the trading venue on a daily basis, or more frequently if that is required by the FCA.

(3)

For the weekly report mentioned in sub-paragraph (2)(a) the [UK RIE] must -

(a)

categorise persons in accordance with the classifications required under sub-paragraph (4); and

(b)

differentiate between positions identified as-

(i)

positions which in an objectively measurable way reduce risks directly relating to commercial activities; or

(ii)

other positions.

(4)

The [UK RIE] must classify persons holding positions in commodity derivatives, emission allowances, or emission allowance derivatives according to the nature of their main business, taking account of any applicable authorisation or registration, as -

(a)

an investment firm or credit institution;

(b)

an investment fund, either as an undertaking for collective investments in transferrable securities as defined in the UCITS Directive, or an alternative investment fund or alternative investment fund manager as defined in the alternative investment fund managers directive;

(c)

another financial institution, including an insurance undertaking and reinsurance undertaking as defined in the Solvency 2 Directive and an institution for occupational retirement provision as defined in Directive 2003/41/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 3 June 2003 on the activities and supervision of institutions for occupational retirement;

(d)

a commercial undertaking; or

(e)

in the case of emission allowances, or emission allowance derivatives, an operator with compliance obligations under Directive 2003/87/EC of the European Parliament and the Council of 13 October 2003 establishing a scheme for greenhouse gas emission allowance trading within the Community.

(5)

The [UK RIE] must communicate the weekly report mentioned in sub-paragraph (2)(a) to the FCA and ESMA.

BIPRU 12.1.4RRP
(1) An exempt full scope IFPRU investment firm2 is a full-scope IFPRU investment firm2 that at all times has total net assets which are less than or equal to £50 million.22(2) In this rule, total net assets are the sum of a firm's total trading book assets and its total non-trading book assets, less the sum of its called up share capital, reserves and minority interests.(3) For the purpose of (2), the value attributed to each of the specified balance sheet items must be that which
PERG 2.2.5GRP
The process of applying for Part 4A permission is available on the FCA website Apply for authorisation: www.fca.org.uk/firms/authorisation/apply-authorisation2. But a list of the activities for which permission may be given is annexed to this chapter (see PERG 2 Annex 2 G). You may find this helpful in providing an overview of the activities that are regulated. The list is included here because, with some exceptions, the investments and activities for which permission may be given
CONC 10.2.14RRP
A firm must notify the FCA of any change in its prudential resources requirement within 14 days of that change.
CONC 6.7.20RRP
Before a firm agrees to refinance high-cost short-term credit, it must: (1) give or send an information sheet to the customer; and(2) where reasonably practicable to do so, bring the sheet to the attention of the customer before the refinance;in the form of the arrears information sheet issued by the FCA referred to in section 86A of the CCA with the following modifications:(3) for the title and first sentence of the information sheet substitute:“High-cost short-term loansFailing
MCOB 4.4A.18RRP
Where a firm provides services to a consumer by way of a distance contract, the firm must provide the consumer with the following information in a durable medium in good time before the distance contract has been agreed:(1) the information which is required by MCOB 4.4A.1 R to MCOB 4.4A.8A R;22(2) whether or not the firm will be providing the consumer with advice;(3) the name and the main business of the firm, the geographical address at which it is established and any other geographical
CONC 7.17.7RRP
The notice required by CONC 7.17.4 R must contain the following information:(1) a form of wording to the effect that the notice is given in compliance with the rules because the borrower is behind with the sums payable under the agreement;(2) a form of wording encouraging the borrower to discuss the state of his account with the firm;(3) the date of the notice;(4) (a) the name, telephone number or numbers, the postal address, and, where appropriate, any other address of the firm;
SUP 13.5.2AGRP
4SUP 13.5.2 R does not apply to13UK firms exercising an EEA right under the auction regulation7 as they have automatic passport rights on the basis of their Home State authorisation under 13the auction regulation. However, the information required by SUP 13.5.2-A R assists the FCA’s13 supervision of a UK firm's provision of a service in another EEA state under the auction regulation.71111
PERG 5.12.13GRP
The effect of the IDD5 is that any EEA-based insurance intermediaries doing business within the Directive’s scope4 must first be registered in their home EEA State before carrying on insurance distribution5 in that EEA State or other EEA States. For these purposes, an EEA-based insurance intermediary is either:(1) a legal person with its registered office or head office in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; or(2) a natural person resident in an EEA State other than the
EG 2.6.1RP
2The FCA views co-operation with its overseas counterparts as an essential part of its regulatory functions. Section 354A of the Act imposes a duty on the FCA to take such steps as it considers appropriate to co-operate with others who exercise functions similar to its own. This duty extends to authorities in the UK and overseas. In fulfilling this duty the FCA may share information which it is not prevented from disclosing, including information obtained in the course of the
MCOB 13.1.5GRP
The FCA expects a firm to treat a sale shortfall in the same way that it treats a payment shortfall.212