Related provisions for IFPRU 6.3.12

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IFPRU 10.6.5GRP
If this chapter applies to a firm on a consolidated basis on a sub-consolidated basis, the firm must carry out consolidation to the extent and in the manner prescribed in Part One, Title II, Chapter 2, Section 2 (Methods for prudential consolidation) and Section 3 (Scope of prudential consolidation) of the EU CRR and IFPRU 8.1 (Prudential consolidation).
BIPRU 11.1.2GRP
Pursuant to the third paragraph of article 95(2) of the EU CRR, the2 purpose of BIPRU 11 is to implement:2(1) (a) Article 68(3);(b) Article 72;(c) Articles 145 to 149; and(d) Annex XII;of the Banking Consolidation Directive; and(2) (a) Article 2, in part;(b) Point 3 of Article 23, in part; and(c) Article 39;of the Capital Adequacy Directive.
IFPRU 5.2.2GRP
A firm may use an AMA in combination with the BIA or TSA, provided it obtains permission from the FCA. In granting such permission, the FCA is required by article 314(3) of the EU CRR (Combined use of different approaches) to impose the following conditions when the AMA is used in combination with BIA or TSA:(1) on the date of first implementation of the AMA, a 'significant' part of the institution's operational risk are captured by that approach; and(2) the institution to commit
IPRU-INV 5.3.2RRP
For a firm that has a Part 4A permission for acting as trustee or depositary of a UCITS, own funds has the meaning in article 4(1)(118) of the EU CRR.
SYSC 4.3A.7RRP
For the purposes of SYSC 4.3A.5 R and SYSC 4.3A.6 R:(1) directorships in organisations which do not pursue predominantly commercial objectives shall not count; and(2) the following shall count as a single directorship:(a) executive or non-executive directorships held within the same group; or(b) executive or non-executive directorships held within:(i) firms that are members of the same institutional protection scheme provided that the conditions set out in article 113(7) of the
SYSC 4.3A.11RRP
A CRR firm that maintains a website must explain on the website how it complies with the requirements of SYSC 4.3A.1 R to SYSC 4.3A.3 R and SYSC 4.3A.4 R to SYSC 4.3A.11 R.[Note: article 96 of CRD]
BIPRU 4.1.2GRP
3Pursuant to the third paragraph of article 95(2) of the EUCRR, BIPRU 4 implements the following provisions of the Banking Consolidation Directive:(1) Articles 84 - 89; and(2) Annex VII.
BIPRU 4.1.3GRP
3Pursuant to the third paragraph of article 95(2) of the EUCRR, BIPRU 4 also implements Annex VIII of the Banking Consolidation Directive so far as it applies to the IRB approach. In particular, it implements (in part):(1) from Part 1 of that Annex, points 12-16, 19-22, 26(g)(ii) and 27;(2) from Part 2 of that Annex, points 8-11; and(3) from Part 3 of that Annex, points 1, 11, 20, 23-24, 58(h), 61, 64-79 and 90-93.
COLL 6.6B.7GRP
A depositary appointed in accordance with COLL 6.6A.8R(3) needs to satisfy the capital requirements in either:(1) IPRU(INV) 5; or(2) IFPRU and the EU CRR.
COLL 6.6B.9GRP
(1) If the depositary is a full-scope IFPRU investment firm, it is subject to the capital requirements of IFPRU and the EU CRR.(2) However, these requirements are not in addition to COLL 6.6B.8R and therefore that firm may use the own funds required under IFPRU and the EU CRR to meet the £4million requirement.
SYSC 4.7.5RRP
(1) A firm must allocate each of the FCA-prescribed senior management responsibilities in Part 1 of the table in SYSC 4.7.7R to one or more SMF managers of the firm.(2) Except as described in (3), a firm must allocate each of the FCA-prescribed senior management responsibilities in Part 2 of the table in SYSC 4.7.7R to one or more SMF managers of the firm.(3) Paragraph (2) does not apply to:(a) a firm that is a small CRR firm as defined in the part of the PRA's rulebook called
SYSC 4.7.7RRP

Table: FCA-prescribed senior management responsibilities

FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility

Explanation

Equivalent PRA-prescribed senior management responsibility

Part One (applies to all firms)

(1) Responsibility for the firm's performance of its obligations under the senior management regime

The senior management regime means the requirements of the regulatory system applying to relevant authorised persons insofar as they relate to SMF managers performing designated senior management functions, including SUP 10C (FCA senior management regime for approved persons in relevant authorised persons).

This responsibility includes:

(1) compliance with conditions and time limits on approval;

(2) compliance with the requirements about the statements of responsibilities (but not the allocation of responsibilities recorded in them);4

(3) compliance by the firm with its obligations under section 60A of the Act (Vetting of candidates by relevant authorised persons); and4

4(4) compliance by the firm with the requirements in SYSC 22 (Regulatory references) so far as they relate to the senior management regime, including the giving of references to another firm about an SMF manager or former SMF manager.

PRA-prescribed senior management responsibility 4.1(1)

(2) Responsibility for the firm's performance of its obligations under the employee certification regime

The employee certification regime means the requirements of sections 63E and 63F of the Act (Certification of employees) and all other requirements of the regulatory system about the matters dealt with in those sections, including:4

4(1) SYSC 5.2 (Certification Regime);

4(2) the requirements in SYSC 22 (Regulatory references) so far as they relate to the employee certification regime, including the giving of references to another firm about a certification employee or former certification employee; and

4(3) the corresponding PRA requirements.

PRA-prescribed senior management responsibility 4.1(2)

(3) Responsibility for compliance with the requirements of the regulatory system about the management responsibilities map

This responsibility does not include allocating responsibilities recorded in it

PRA-prescribed senior management responsibility 4.1(3)

(4) Overall responsibility for the firm's policies and procedures for countering the risk that the firm might be used to further financial crime

(1)2 This includes the function in SYSC 6.3.8R (firm must allocate to a director or senior manager overall responsibility within the firm for the establishment and maintenance of effective anti-money laundering systems and controls), if that rule applies to the firm.

(2)2 The firm may allocate this FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility to the MLRO but does not have to.

(3)2 If the firm does not allocate this FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility to the MLRO, this FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility includes responsibility for supervision of the MLRO.

None

2(4A) Acting as the firm’swhistleblowers’ champion

The whistleblowers’ champion’s allocated responsibilities are set out in SYSC 18.4.4R

Part Two (applies to all firms except for small CRR firms and credit unions)

(5) Responsibility for:

(a) leading the development of; and

(b) monitoring the effective implementation of;

policies and procedures for the induction, training and professional development of all members of the firm'sgoverning body.

PRA-prescribed senior management responsibility 4.1(13)

(6) Responsibility for monitoring the effective implementation of policies and procedures for the induction, training and professional development of all persons performing designated senior management functions on behalf of the firm other than members of the governing body.

PRA-prescribed senior management responsibility 4.1(5)

(7) Responsibility for:

(a) safeguarding the independence of; and

(b) oversight of the performance of;

the internal audit function, in accordance with SYSC 6.2 (Internal Audit) or article 24 of the MiFID Org Regulation.5

This responsibility includes responsibility for:

(a) safeguarding the independence of; and

(b) oversight of the performance of;

a person approved to perform the PRA's Head of Internal Audit designated senior management function for the firm.

PRA-prescribed senior management responsibility 4.1(15)

(8) Responsibility for:

(a) safeguarding the independence of; and

(b) oversight of the performance of;

the compliance function in accordance with SYSC 6.1 (Compliance) or article 22 of the MiFID Org Regulation5.

This responsibility includes responsibility for:

(a) safeguarding the independence of; and

(b) oversight of the performance of;

the person performing the compliance oversight function for the firm.

PRA-prescribed senior management responsibility 4.1(16)

(9) Responsibility for:

(a) safeguarding the independence of; and

(b) oversight of the performance of;

the risk function, in accordance with SYSC 7.1.21R and SYSC 7.1.22R (Risk control).

This responsibility includes responsibility for:

(a) safeguarding the independence of; and

(b) oversight of the performance of;

a person approved to perform the PRA's Chief Risk designated senior management function for the firm.

PRA-prescribed senior management responsibility 4.1(17)

(10) Responsibility for overseeing the development of and implementation of the firm's remuneration policies and practices in accordance with SYSC 19D (Remuneration Code)

PRA-prescribed senior management responsibility 4.1(18)

Part Three (applies in specified circumstances)

(11) Overall responsibility for the firm's compliance with CASS

(A) This responsibility only applies to a firm to which CASS applies.

(B) A firm may include in this FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility whichever of the following functions apply to the firm:

(a) CASS 1A.3.1R (certain CASS compliance functions for a CASS small firm);

(b) CASS 1A.3.1AR (certain CASS compliance functions for a CASS medium firm or a CASS large firm);

(c) CASS 11.3.1R (certain CASS compliance functions for certain CASS small debt management firms); or

(d) CASS 11.3.4R (certain CASS compliance functions for a CASS large debt management firm);

but it does not have to.

(C) If the firm does not include the functions in (B) in this FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility, this FCA-prescribed senior management responsibility includes responsibility for supervision of the person performing the functions in (B) that apply to the firm.

None

Allocation of overall responsibility for a firm’s activities, business areas and management functions

IFPRU 10.4.1RRP
A firm does not meet the combined buffer if the common equity tier 1 capital maintained by the firm which is not used to meet the own funds requirement under article 92(1)(c) of the EU CRR (Total capital ratio) does not meet the combined buffer.[Note: articles 129(1) (part) and 130(5) (part) of CRD]
SYSC 19D.3.34RRP
A firm must ensure that variable remuneration is not paid through vehicles or methods that facilitate non-compliance with obligations arising from the Remuneration Code, the EU CRR or the CRD.[Note: article 94(1)(q) of the CRD]
SYSC 19D.3.50RRP
A firm must ensure that any approval by its shareholders or owners or members, for the purposes of SYSC 19D.3.49R, is carried out in accordance with the following procedure: (1) the firm must give reasonable notice to all its shareholders or owners or members of its intention to seek approval of the proposed higher ratio;(2) the firm must make a detailed recommendation to all its shareholders or owners or members that includes:(a) the reasons for, and the scope of, the approval
SYSC 19A.3.32RRP
A firm must ensure that variable remuneration is not paid through vehicles or methods that facilitate 3non-compliance with the Remuneration Code, the EU CRR or CRD6.3[Note:3article 94(1)(q) of CRD]3
SYSC 19A.3.44BRRP
A firm must ensure that any approval by the its shareholders or owners or members for the purposes of SYSC 19A.3.44AR is carried out in accordance with the following procedure:535(1) the firm must give reasonable notice to all its shareholders or owners or members of its intention to seek approval of the proposed higher ratio;55(2) the firm must make a detailed recommendation to all its shareholders or owners or members that includes:(a) the reasons for, and the scope of, the
GENPRU 2.1.49GRP
The Capital Adequacy Directive sets out various categories of investment firms subject to differing levels of initial capital. For the purpose of the third paragraph of article 95(2) of the EU CRR, a BIPRU firm falls into the category in article 5(3) of the Capital Adequacy Directive. In summary, a BIPRU firm: 1212(1) does not provide the ancillary service of safekeeping and administration of financial instruments for the account of clients, including custodianship and related
(1) This chapter amplifies threshold condition 2D (Appropriate resources) by providing that a firm must meet, on a continuing basis, a minimum capital resources requirement. This chapter also amplifies Principles 3 and 4 which require a firm to take reasonable care to organise and control its affairs responsibly and effectively with adequate risk management systems, and to maintain adequate financial resources by setting out a capital resources requirement for a firm according
BIPRU 1.2.2GRP
Pursuant to the third paragraph of article 95(2) of the EU CRR, the2 section implements certain provisions of the Capital Adequacy Directive and the Banking Consolidation Directive relating to the trading book. The precise provisions being implemented are listed as a note after each rule.2
BIPRU 8.4.9RRP
(1) A CAD Article 22 group means a UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group that meets the conditions in this rule.(2) There must be no bank, building society or2credit institution2 in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group and any investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group must not be subject to consolidated supervision under the EU CRR2.11(3) Each CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group which is an EEA firm
COLL 5.7.5RRP
(1) This rule does not apply in respect of a transferable security or an approved money-market instrument to which COLL 5.6.8R (Spread: government and public securities) applies5.(2) Not more than 20% in value of the scheme property is to consist of deposits with a single body.(3) Not more than 10% in value of the scheme property is to consist of transferable securities or approved money-market instruments issued by any single body subject to COLL 5.6.23 R (Schemes replicating
IFPRU 11.5.23GRP
Regulations 431 to 434 of the EU CRR apply to the disclosures in IFPRU 11.5.22 R.[Note: article 26(1) of RRD]
PR App 1.1.1RP

1Note: The following definitions relevant to the prospectus rules are extracted from the Glossary.

Act

the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.

admission to trading

admission to trading on a regulated market.

advertisement

(as defined in the PD Regulation) announcements:

(1)

relating to a specific offer to the public of securities or to an admission to trading on a regulated market; and

(2)

aiming to specifically promote the potential subscription or acquisition of securities.4

applicant

an applicant for approval of a prospectus or supplementary prospectus relating to transferable securities.

asset backed security

(as defined in the PD Regulation) securities which:

(1)

represent an interest in assets, including any rights intended to assure servicing, or the receipt or timeliness of receipts by holders of assets of amounts payable thereunder; or

(2)

are secured by assets and the terms of which provide for payments which relate to payments or reasonable projections of payments calculated by reference to identified or identifiable assets.

base prospectus

a base prospectus referred to in PR 2.2.7 R.

body corporate

(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions) any body corporate, including a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom;

building block

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of additional information requirements, not included in one of the schedules, to be added to one or more schedules, as the case may be, depending on the type of instrument and/or transaction for which a prospectus or base prospectus is drawn up.4

collective investment undertaking other than the closed-end type

(in PR) (as defined in Article 2.1(o) of the prospectus directive) unit trusts and investment companies:

(1)

the object of which is the collective investment of capital provided by the public, and which operate on the principle of risk-spreading;

(2)

the units of which are, at the holder's request, repurchased or redeemed, directly or indirectly, out of the assets of these undertakings.4

4company

any body corporate.

Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive

Directive 2001/34/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council on the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing and on information to be published on those securities.

credit institution

as defined in article 4(1)(1) of the 7EUCRR.7

77

director

(in accordance with section 417(1)(a) of the Act) a person occupying in relation to it the position of a director (by whatever name called) and, in relation to an issuer which is not a body corporate, a person with corresponding powers and duties.

EEA State

(in accordance with paragraph 8 of Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights)) a State which is a contracting party to the agreement on the European Economic Area signed at Oporto on 2 May 1992, as it has effect for the time being; as at 1 May 2004, the following are the EEA States: Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, the Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and the United Kingdom.

equity security

(as defined in Article 2.1(b) of the prospectus directive) shares and other transferable securities equivalent to shares in companies, as well as any other type of transferable securities giving the right to acquire any of the aforementioned securities as a consequence of their being converted or the rights conferred by them being exercised, provided that securities of the latter type are issued by the issuer of the underlying shares or by an entity belonging to the group of the said issuer.

equity share

shares comprised in a company'sequity share capital.

equity share capital

(for a company), its issued share capital excluding any part of that capital which, neither as respects dividends nor as respects capital, carries any right to participate beyond a specified amount in a distribution.

ESMA Prospectus Opinions10

8

the following opinions published by ESMA:10

(1)

Format of the base prospectus and consistent application of article 26(4) of the Prospectus Regulation (ESMA/2013/1944);10

(2)

Framework for the assessment of third country prospectuses under article 20 of the Prospectus Directive (ESMA/2013/317);10

(3)

Assessment of Israeli laws and regulations on prospectuses (ESMA/2015/1015); and10

(4)

Assessment of Turkish laws and regulations on prospectuses (ESMA/2016/268). 10

8ESMA Prospectus Questions and Answers

the Questions and Answers for prospectuses published by ESMA (ESMA/2016/1674)13.

10

ESMA Prospectus Recommendations8

8

the ESMA update of the CESR8recommendations: The consistent implementation of Commission Regulation (EC) No 809/2004 implementing the Prospectus Directive (ESMA/2013/319).8

8

executive procedures

the procedures relating to the giving of warning notices, decision notices and supervisory notices that are described in DEPP 4 (Decision by FCA staff under executive procedures)2.

22

FCA

the Financial Conduct Authority.

guarantee

(as defined in the PD Regulation) any arrangement intended to ensure that any obligation material to the issue will be duly serviced, whether in the form of guarantee, surety, keep well agreement, mono-line insurance policy or other equivalent commitment.

guarantor

a person that provides a guarantee.

Home State or Home Member State

(as defined in section 102C of the Act) in relation to an issuer of transferable securities, the EEA State which is the "home Member State" for the purposes of the prospectus directive (which is to be determined in accordance with Article 2.1(m) of that directive).

Host State or Host Member State

(as defined in Article 2.1(n) of the prospectus directive) the EEA State where an offer to the public is made or admission to trading is sought, when different from the home State.

issuer

(as defined in section 102A of the Act) a legal person who issues or proposes to issue the transferable securities in question.4

4key information

(in PR) (as defined in section 87A(9) and (10) of the Act) the information which is essential to enable investors to understand the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates and decide whether to consider the offer further. The key information must include:

(a)

the essential characteristics of, and risks associated with, the issuer and any guarantor, including their assets, liabilities and financial positions;

(b)

the essential characteristics of, and risks associated with, investment in the transferable securities, including any rights attaching to the securities;

(c)

the general terms of the offer, including an estimate of the expenses charged to an investor by the issuer and the offeror, if not the issuer;

(d)

details of the admission to trading; and

(e)

the reasons for the offer and proposed use of the proceeds.

5limited liability partnership

(a)

a body corporate incorporated under the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000;

(b)

a body corporate incorporated under legislation having the equivalent effect to the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000.

MiFID3

Directive 2014/65/EU of the European Parliament and of the Council of 15 May 2014 on markets in financial instruments and amending the insurance mediation directive and AIFMD.12

3

non-equity transferable securities

(as defined in section 102A of the Act) all transferable securities that are not equity securities.

Note: In the prospectus directive and the PD Regulation, the Commission uses the term "non-equity securities" rather than "non-equity transferable securities".

offer

an offer of transferable securities to the public.

offer of transferable securities to the public

(as defined in section 102B of the Act), in summary:

(a)

a communication to any person which presents sufficient information on:

  • (i) the transferable securities to be offered, and
  • (ii) the terms on which they are offered,

to enable an investor to decide to buy or subscribe for the securities in question;

(b)

which is made in any form or by any means;

(c)

including the placing of securities through a financial intermediary;

(d)

but not including a communication in connection with trading on:

  • (i) a regulated market;
  • (ii) a multilateral trading facility; or
  • (iii) any market prescribed by an order under section 130A of the Act.

Note: This is only a summary, to see the full text of the definition, readers should consult section 102B of the Act.

offering programme

(as defined in Article 2.1(k) of the prospectus directive) a plan which would permit the issuance of non-equity securities, including warrants in any form, having a similar type and/or class, in a continuous or repeated manner during a specified issuing period.

offeror

a person who makes an offer of transferable securities to the public.

5officer

(in relation to a body corporate) (as defined in section 400(5) of the Act (Offences by bodies corporate etc)) a director, member of the committee of management, chief executive, manager, secretary, or other similar officer of the body, or a person purporting to act in that capacity or a controller of the body.

overseas company

a company incorporated outside the United Kingdom.

Part 6 rules

(in accordance with section 73A(1) of the Act), rules made for the purposes of Part 6 of the Act.

5partnership

(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) any partnership, including a partnership constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom, but not including a limited liability partnership.

PD

prospectus directive.

PD Regulation

Regulation number 809/2004 of the European Commission.

person

(in accordance with the Interpretation Act 1978) any person, including a body of persons corporate or unincorporated that is, a natural person, a legal person and, for example, a partnership).

PR

the Prospectus Rules sourcebook.

11PRIIPs Regulation

Regulation (EU) No 1286/2014 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 26 November 2014 on key information documents for packaged retail and insurance-based investment products (PRIIPs).

http://data.europa.eu/eli/reg/2014/1286/oj

profit estimate

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a profit forecast for a financial period which has expired and for which results have not yet been published.

profit forecast

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a form of words which expressly states or by implication indicates a figure or a minimum or maximum figure for the likely level of profits or losses for the current financial period and/or financial periods subsequent to that period, or contains data from which a calculation of such a figure for future profits or losses may be made, even if no particular figure is mentioned and the word "profit" is not used.

property collective investment undertaking

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking whose investment objective is the participation in the holding of property in the long term.

prospectus

a prospectus required under the prospectus directive.

prospectus directive

the Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 November 2003 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading (No 2003/71/EC).

13Prospectus Regulation

Regulation (EU) No 2017/1129 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 14 June 2017 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading on a regulated market, and repealing Directive 2003/71/EC.

Prospectus RTS Regulations9

8

9(1)

9Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) No 382/2014 supplementing Directive 2003/71/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards for publication of supplements to the prospectus9; and

9(2)

9Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/301 supplementing Directive 2003/71/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards for approval and publication of the prospectus and dissemination of advertisements and amending Commission Regulation (EC) No 809/2004.

Prospectus Rules

(as defined in section 73A(4) of the Act) rules expressed to relate to transferable securities.

Public international body

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a legal entity of public nature established by an international treaty between sovereign States and of which one or more Member States are members.

qualified investor

(as defined in section 86(7) of the Act) in relation to an offer of transferable securities:4

(a)

a person or entity described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to MiFID, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with MiFID; or4

4

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to MiFID and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of MiFID; or4

4

(c)

a person who is14 an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 3014 of MiFID and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of MiFID; or4

4

(d)

a person whom:14

4

14(i)

any relevant firm was14 authorised to continue to treat as a professional client immediately before 3 January 2018 by virtue of article 71.6 of Directive 2004/39/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 21 April 2004 on markets in financial instruments; and14

14(ii)

the firm may continue to treat as a professional client from 3 January 2018 by virtue of Section II.2 of Annex II to MiFID.

registration document

a registration document referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.

regulated information

(as defined in the PD Regulation) all information which the issuer, or any person who has applied for the admission of securities to trading on a regulated market without the issuer’s consent, is required to disclose under Directive 2001/34/EC or under Article 6 of Directive 2003/6/EC.3

regulated market

a multilateral system operated and/or managed by a market operator, which brings together or facilitates the bringing together of multiple third-party buying and selling interests in financial instruments in the system and in accordance with its non-discretionary rules in a way that results in a contract, in respect of the financial instruments admitted to trading under its rules and/or systems, and which is authorised and functions regularly and in accordance with12 Title III of MiFID.3

[Note: article 4(1)(21) of MiFID]12

RIS

Regulatory Information Service.

risk factors

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of risks which are specific to the situation of the issuer and/or the securities and which are material for taking investment decisions.

rule

(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) a rule made by the FCA under the Act.

schedule

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of minimum information requirements adapted to the particular nature of the different types of issuers and/or the different securities involved.

securities issued in a continuous and repeated manner

(as defined in Article 2.1(l) of the prospectus directive) issues on tap or at least two separate issues of securities of a similar type and/or class over a period of 12 months.

securities note

a securities note referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.

small and medium-sized enterprise

(as defined in Article 2.1(f) of the prospectus directive) companies, which, according to their last annual or consolidated accounts, meet at least two of the following three criteria: an average number of employees during the financial year of less than 250, a total balance sheet not exceeding €43,000,000 and an annual net turnover not exceeding €50,000,000.

special purpose vehicle

(as defined in the PD Regulation) an issuer whose objects and purposes are primarily the issue of securities.

statutory notice associated decision

a decision which is made by the FCA and which is associated with a decision to give a statutory notice, including a decision:

statutory notice decision

a decision by the FCA on whether or not to give a statutory notice.

(a)

to determine or extend the period for making representations;

(b)

to determine whether a copy of the statutory notice needs to be given to any third party and the period for him to make representations;

(c)

to refuse access to FCA material;

(d)

as to the information which it is appropriate to publish about the matter to which a final notice or an effective supervisory notice relates.

summary

(in relation to a prospectus) the summary included in the prospectus.

supplementary prospectus

a supplementary prospectus containing details of a new factor, mistake or inaccuracy.

transferable security

(as defined in section 102A of the Act) anything which is a transferable security for the purposes of MiFID3, other than money-market instruments for the purposes of that directive which have a maturity of less than 12 months.

3

Note: In the prospectus directive and PD regulation, the Commission uses the term "security" rather than "transferable security".

umbrella collective investment scheme

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking invested in one or more collective investment undertakings, the asset of which is composed of separate class(es) or designation(s) of securities.

United Kingdom

England and Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland (but not the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man).

units of a collective investment scheme

(as defined in Article 2.1(p) of the prospectus directive) securities issued by a collective investment undertaking as representing the rights of the participants in such an undertaking over its assets.

working day

(as defined in section 103 of the Act) any day other than a Saturday, a Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 in any part of the United Kingdom.

A firm must: (1) when it first becomes a collective portfolio management firm or a collective portfolio management investment firm, hold initial capital of not less than the applicable base own funds requirement (in line with IPRU-INV 11.3.1R);(2) at all times, maintain own funds which equal or exceed:(a) the higher of:(i) the funds under management requirement (in line with IPRU-INV 11.3.2R); and(ii) the amount specified in article 97 of the EU CRR (Own funds based on fixed