Related provisions for APER 4.7.8

1 - 20 of 54 items.

Search Term(s)

Filter by Topics

Filter by Modules

Filter by Documents

Filter by Keywords

Effective Period

Similar To

To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

CREDS 2.2.1GRP
SYSC 4.1.1 R requires every firm, including a credit union, to have robust governance arrangements, which include a clear organisational structure with well-defined, transparent and consistent lines of responsibility, effective processes to identify, manage, monitor and report the risks it is or might be exposed to, and internal control mechanisms, including sound administrative and accounting procedures and effective control and safeguard arrangements for information processing
CREDS 2.2.11GRP
(1) The term 'internal audit function' in CREDS 2.2.10 E refers to the generally understood concept of internal audit within a firm, in other words the function of assessing adherence to and the effectiveness of internal systems and controls, procedures and policies. 5(2) Guidance on internal audit is given in CREDS 2.2.40 G to CREDS 2.2.50 G.
CREDS 2.2.43GRP
The purposes of an internal audit are:(1) to ensure that the policies and procedures of the credit union are followed;(2) to provide the governing body5 with a continuous appraisal of the overall effectiveness of the control systems, including proposed changes;(3) to recommend improvements where desirable or necessary;(4) to determine whether the internal controls established by the governing body5 are being maintained properly and operated as laid down in the policy, and comply
CREDS 2.2.44GRP
The internal audit function (see CREDS 2.2.11G) should develop an audit plan, covering all aspects of the credit union's business. The audit plan should identify the scope and frequency of work to be carried out in each area. Areas identified as higher risk should be covered more frequently. However, over a set timeframe (likely to be one year) all areas should be covered. Care should be taken to avoid obvious patterns in assessing the different areas of the credit union's business,
APER 4.7.7GRP
5Failing to take reasonable steps to ensure that procedures and systems of control are reviewed and, if appropriate, improved, following the identification of significant breaches (whether suspended or actual) of the relevant requirements and standards of the regulatory system relating to the regulated activities of the firm in question (as referred to in Statement of Principle 7) falls within APER 4.7.2G (see APER 4.7.13G and APER 4.7.14G).
APER 4.7.10GRP
5In the case of an approved person performing an accountable higher management function responsible for compliance in respect of the following provisions8, failing to take reasonable steps to ensure that appropriate compliance systems and procedures are in place falls within APER 4.7.2G:8(1) SYSC 3.2.8R; or8(2) SYSC 6.1.4R; or8(3) article 22(3) of the MiFID Org Regulation (as applied in accordance with SYSC 1 Annex 1 2.8AR, SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2-AR, SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2-BR, SYSC 1
APER 4.7.12GRP
An approved person performing an accountable higher management function5 need not themselves5 put in place the systems of control in their5 business (APER 4.7.4G5). Whether he does this depends on his role and responsibilities. He should, however, take reasonable steps to ensure that the business for which he is responsible has operating procedures and systems which include well-defined steps for complying with the detail of relevant requirements and standards of the regulatory
APER 4.7.13GRP
Where the approved person performing an accountable higher management function5 becomes aware of actual or suspected problems that involve possible breaches of relevant requirements and standards of the regulatory system falling within their5 area of responsibility, then they5 should take reasonable steps to ensure that they are dealt with in a timely and appropriate manner (APER 4.7.7G5). This may involve an adequate investigation to find out what systems or procedures may have
APER 4.7.14GRP
Where independent reviews of systems and procedures have been undertaken and result in recommendations for improvement, the approved person performing an accountable higher management function5 should ensure that, unless there are good reasons not to, any reasonable recommendations are implemented in a timely manner (APER 4.7.10G5). What is reasonable will depend on the nature of the inadequacy and the cost of the improvement. It will be reasonable for the approved person performing
SYSC 12.1.12RRP
Where this section applies with respect to a financial conglomerate, the internal control mechanisms referred to in SYSC 12.1.8R (2) or, for a Solvency II firm, the internal control system referred to in the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, rule 3,12 must include:(1) mechanisms that are adequate to identify and measure all material risks incurred by members of the financial conglomerate and appropriately relate capital in the financial conglomerate
SYSC 12.1.13RRP
If this rule applies under SYSC 12.1.14 R to a firm, the firm must:(1) comply with SYSC 12.1.8R (2) in relation to any UK consolidation group or non-EEAsub-group of which it is a member, as well as in relation to its group; and(2) ensure that the risk management processes and internal control mechanisms at the level of any consolidation group or non-EEAsub-group of which it is a member comply with the obligations set out in the following provisions on a consolidated (or sub-consolidated)
REC 2.5.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraphs 3 – 3H4

Paragraph 3 – Systems and controls4

(1)

The [UK RIE] must ensure that the systems and controls, including procedures and arrangements,4 used in the performance of its functions and the functions of the trading venues it operates are adequate, effective4 and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business.

(2)

Sub-paragraph (1) applies in particular to systems and controls concerning -

(a)

the transmission of information;

(b)

the assessment, mitigation and management of risks to the performance of the [UK RIE'srelevant functions];

(c)

the effecting and monitoring of transactions on the [UK RIE];

(ca)

the technical operation of the [UK RIE], including contingency arrangements for disruption to its facilities;

(d)

the operation of the arrangements mentioned in paragraph 4(2)(d); and

(e)

(where relevant) the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of the [UK RIE's] facilities.

4(f)

the resilience of its trading systems;

4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the resilience of trading systems operated by trading venues that enable algorithmic trading]

4(g)

the ability to have sufficient capacity to deal with peak order and message volumes;

4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the adequacy of capacity of trading systems operated by trading venues that enable algorithmic trading]

4(h)

the ability to ensure orderly trading under conditions of severe market stress;

4(i)

the effectiveness of business continuity arrangements to ensure the continuity of the [UK RIE’s] services if there is any failure of its trading systems including the testing of the [UK RIE’s] systems and controls;

4(j)

the ability to reject orders that exceed predetermined volume or price thresholds or which are clearly erroneous;

4(k)

the ability to ensure algorithmic trading systems cannot create or contribute to disorderly trading conditions on trading venues operated by the [UK RIE];

4(l)

the ability to ensure disorderly trading conditions which arise from the use of algorithmic trading systems, including systems to limit the ratio of unexecuted orders to transactions that may be entered into the [UK RIE’s] trading system by a member or participant are capable of being managed;

[Note:MiFID RTS 9 contains requirements on the ratio of unexecuted orders to transactions to be taken into account by a trading venue that operates electronic continuous auction order book, quote-driven or hybrid trading systems]

4(m)

the ability to ensure the flow of orders is able to be slowed down if there is a risk of system capacity being reached;

4(n)

the ability to limit and enforce the minimum tick size which may be executed on its trading venues; and

4(o)

the requirement for members and participants to carry out appropriate testing of algorithms.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the appropriate testing of algorithms to ensure that trading systems, when they enable algorithmic trading, cannot create or contribute to disorderly trading conditions]

4(3)

For the purposes of sub-paragraph 2(c), the [UK RIE] must -

4(a)

establish and maintain effective arrangements and procedures including the necessary resource for the regular monitoring of the compliance by members or participants with its rules; and

4(b)

monitor orders sent including cancellations and the transactions undertaken by its members or participants under its systems in order to identify infringements of those rules, disorderly trading conditions or conduct that may indicate behavior that is prohibited under the market abuse regulation or system disruptions in relation to a financial instrument.

4(4)

For the purpose of sub-paragraph (2)(o) the [UK RIE] must provide environments to facilitate such testing.

4(5)

The [UK RIE] must be adequately equipped to manage the risks to which it is exposed, to implement appropriate arrangements and systems to identify all significant risks to its operation, and to put in place effective measures to mitigate those risks.

4Paragraph 3A – Market making arrangements

4(1)

The [UK RIE] must -

4(a)

have written agreements with all investment firms pursuing a market making strategy on trading venues operated by it (“market making agreements”);

4(b)

have schemes, appropriate to the nature and scale of a trading venue, to ensure that a sufficient number of investment firms enter into such agreements which require them to post firm quotes at competitive prices with the result of providing liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis;

4(c)

monitor and enforce compliance with the market making agreements;

4(d)

inform the FCA of the content of its market making agreements; and

4(e)

provide the FCA with any information it requests which is necessary for the FCA to satisfy itself that the market making agreements comply with paragraphs (c) and (d) of this sub-paragraph and sub-paragraph 2.

4(2)

A market making agreement must specify-

4(a)

the obligations of the investment firm in relation to the provision of liquidity;

4(b)

where applicable, any obligations arising from the participation in a scheme mentioned in sub-paragraph (1)(b);

4(c)

any incentives in terms of rebates or otherwise offered by the [UK RIE] to the investment firm in order for it to provide liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis; and

4(d)

where applicable, any other rights accruing to the investment firm as a result of participation in the scheme referred to in sub-paragraph (1)(b).

4(3)

For the purposes of this paragraph, an investment firm pursues a market making strategy if -

4(a)

the firm is a member or participant of one or more trading venues;

4(b)

the firm’s strategy, when dealing on own account, involves posting firm, simultaneous two-way quotes of comparable size at competitive prices relating to one or more financial instruments on a single trading venue, across different trading venues; and

4(c)

the result is providing liquidity on a regular and frequent basis to the overall market.

4Paragraph 3B – Halting trading

4(1)

The [UK RIE] must be able to -

4(a)

temporarily halt or constrain trading on any trading venue operated by it if there is a significant price movement in a financial instrument on such a trading venue or a related trading venue during a short period; and

4(b)

in exceptional cases be able to cancel, vary, or correct any transaction.

4(2)

For the purposes of sub-paragraph (1), the [UK RIE] must ensure that the parameters for halting trading are appropriately calibrated in a way which takes into account -

4(a)

the liquidity of different asset classes and subclasses;

4(b)

the nature of the trading venue market model; and

4(c)

the types of users,

4to ensure the parameters are sufficient to avoid significant disruptions to the orderliness of trading.

4(3)

The [UK RIE] must report the parameters mentioned in sub-paragraph (2) and any material changes to those parameters to the FCA in a format to be specified by the FCA.

4(4)

If a trading venue operated by the [UK RIE] is material in terms of liquidity of the trading of a financial instrument and it halts trading in an EEA State in that instrument it must have systems and procedures in place to ensure that it notifies the FCA.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 12 contains requirements for when a regulated market is material in terms of liquidity in a financial instrument for purposes of trading halt notifications]

4Paragraph 3C – Direct electronic access

4Where the [UK RIE] permits direct electronic access to a trading venue it operates, it must -

4(1)

(a)

ensure that a member of, or participant in that trading venue is only permitted to provide direct electronic access to the venue if the member or participant -

4(i)

is an investment firm, as defined by Article 4.1.1 of the markets in financial instruments directive (definitions), authorised in accordance with the directive;

4(ii)

is a credit institution authrised in accordance with the capital requirements directive;

4(iii)

comes within Article 2.1(a), (e), (i), or (j) of the markets in financial instruments directive (exemptions) and has a Part 4A permission relating to investment services and activities;

4(iv)

is a third country firm providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under Article 46.1 (general provisions) or 47.3 (equivalence decision) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;

4(v)

is a third country firm and the provision of the direct electronic access by that firm is subject to the exclusion in Article 72 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001; or

4(vi)

is a third country firm which does not come within paragraph (iv) or (v) and is otherwise permitted to provide the direct electronic access under the Act;

4(b)

ensure that appropriate criteria are set and applied for the suitability of persons to whom direct electronic access services may be provided;

4(c)

ensure that a member of, or participant in, the trading venue retains responsibility for adherence to the requirements of the markets in financial instruments directive in respect of orders and trades executed using the direct electronic access service;

4(d)

set appropriate standards regarding risk controls and thresholds on trading through direct electronic access;

4(e)

be able to distinguish and if necessary stop orders or trading on that trading venue by a person using direct electronic access separately from -

4(i)

other orders; or

4(ii)

trading by the member or participant providing the direct electronic access; and

4(f)

have arrangements in place to suspend or terminate the provision to a client of direct electronic access to that trading venue by a member of, or participant in, the trading venue in the case of non-compliance with this paragraph.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on direct electronic access permitted through a trading venue’s systems]

4Paragraph 3D – Co-location services

4(1)

The [UK RIE’s] rules on colocation services must be transparent, fair and nondiscriminatory.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements to ensure co-location services are transparent, fair and non-discriminatory]

4Paragraph 3E – Fee structures

4(1)

The [UK RIE’s] fee structure, for all fees it charges including execution fees and ancillary fees and rebates it grants, must -

4(a)

be transparent, fair and non-discriminatory;

4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements to ensure fee structures are transparent, fair and non-discriminatory]

4(b)

not create incentives to place, modify or cancel orders, or execute transactions, in a way which contributes to disorderly trading conditions or market abuse; and

4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements concerning prohibited fee structures]

4(c)

impose market making obligations in individual shares or suitable baskets of shares for any rebates that are granted.

4(2)

Nothing in sub-paragraph (1) prevents the [UK RIE] from -

4(a)

adjusting its fees for cancelled orders according to the length of time for which the order was maintained;

4(b)

calibrating its fees to each financial instrument to which they apply;

4(c)

imposing a higher fee -

4(i)

for placing an order which is cancelled than an order which is executed;

4(ii)

on participants placing a high ratio of cancelled orders to executed orders; or

4(iii)

on a person operating a high-frequency algorithmic trading technique,

4in order to reflect the additional burden on system capacity.

4Paragraph 3F – Algorithmic trading

4(1)

The [UK RIE] must require members of and participants in trading venues operated by it to flag orders generated by algorithmic trading in order for it to be able to identify the -

4(a)

the different algorithms used for the creation of orders; and

4(b)

the persons initiating those orders.

4Paragraph 3G – Tick size regimes

4(1)

The [UK RIE] must adopt tick size regimes in respect of trading venues operated by it in -

4(a)

shares, depositary receipts, exchange-traded funds, certificates and other similar financial instruments traded on each trading venue; and

4[Note:MiFID RTS 11 contains requirements on the tick size regime for shares, depositary receipts, exchange traded funds and certificates5]

4(b)

any financial instrument for which regulatory technical standards are adopted by the European Commission pursuant to Article 49.3 or 4 of the markets in financial instruments directive which is traded on that trading venue.

[Note:MiFID RTS 11]

4 (2)

The tick size regime must -

4(a)

be calibrated to reflect the liquidity profile of the financial instrument in different markets and the average bid-ask spread taking into account desirability of enabling reasonably stable prices without unduly constraining further narrowing of spreads; and

4(b)

adapt the tick size for each financial instrument appropriately.

4(3)

The tick size regime must comply with any regulatory technical standards adopted by the European Commission pursuant to Article 49.3 or 4 of the markets in financial instruments directive.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 11]

4Paragraph 3H – Syncronisation of business clocks

4(1)

The [UK RIE] must synchronise the business clocks it uses to record the date and time of any reportable event in accordance with regulatory technical standards adopted by the European Commission pursuant to Article 50 of the markets in financial instruments directive.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 25]
REC 2.5.19GRP
Where MiFID RTS 7 does not apply to a UK RIE, the FCA may in addition have regard to the performance, capacity and reliability of its systems.4 The FCA3 may also have regard to the arrangements for maintaining, recording and enforcing technical and operational standards and specifications for information technology systems, including:3(1) the procedures for the evaluation and selection of information technology systems;(2) the arrangements for testing information technology systems
SYSC 7.1.2RRP
A UCITS investment firm19 must establish, implement and maintain adequate risk management policies and procedures, including effective procedures for risk assessment, which identify the risks relating to the firm's activities, processes and systems, and where appropriate, set the level of risk tolerated by the firm.19
SYSC 7.1.3RRP
A UCITS investment firm19 must adopt effective arrangements, processes and mechanisms to manage the risk relating to the firm's activities, processes and systems, in light of that level of risk tolerance.19
SYSC 3.2.6GGRP
5A firm should ensure that the systems and controls include:(1) appropriate training for its employees in relation to money laundering;(2) appropriate provision of information to its governing body and senior management, including a report at least annually by that firm'smoney laundering reporting officer (MLRO) on the operation and effectiveness of those systems and controls;(3) appropriate documentation of its risk management policies and risk profile in relation to money laundering,
SYSC 3.2.16GRP
9(1) Depending on the nature, scale and complexity of its business, it may be appropriate for a firm to delegate much of the task of monitoring the appropriateness and effectiveness of its systems and controls to an internal audit function. An internal audit function should have clear responsibilities and reporting lines to an audit committee or appropriate senior manager, be adequately resourced and staffed by competent individuals, be independent of the day-to-day activities
SYSC 6.3.1RRP
A firm must ensure the policies and procedures established under SYSC 6.1.1 R include systems and controls that:1(1) enable it to identify, assess, monitor and manage money laundering risk; and(2) are comprehensive and proportionate to the nature, scale and complexity of its activities.
SYSC 6.3.7GRP
A firm should ensure that the systems and controls include:1(1) appropriate training for its employees in relation to money laundering;(2) appropriate provision of information to its governing body and senior management, including a report at least annually by that firm'smoney laundering reporting officer (MLRO) on the operation and effectiveness of those systems and controls;(3) appropriate documentation of its risk management policies and risk profile in relation to money laundering,
SYSC 13.7.1GRP
A firm should establish and maintain appropriate systems and controls for managing operational risks that can arise from inadequacies or failures in its processes and systems (and, as appropriate, the systems and processes of third party suppliers, agents and others). In doing so a firm should have regard to:(1) the importance and complexity of processes and systems used in the end-to-end operating cycle for products and activities (for example, the level of integration of systems);(2)
SYSC 14.1.28GRP
The precise role and organisation of internal controls can vary from firm to firm. However, a firm'sinternal controls should normally be concerned with assisting its governing body and relevant senior managers to participate in ensuring that it meets the following objectives:(1) safeguarding both the assets of the firm and its customers, as well as identifying and managing liabilities;(2) maintaining the efficiency and effectiveness of its operations;(3) ensuring the reliability
SYSC 14.1.29AGRP
10When determining the adequacy of its internal controls, a firm should consider both the potential risks that might hinder the achievement of the objectives listed in SYSC 14.1.28 G, and the extent to which it needs to control these risks. More specifically, this should normally include consideration of:(1) the appropriateness of its reporting and communication lines (see SYSC 3.2.2 G);(2) how the delegation or contracting of functions or activities to employees, appointed representatives
BIPRU 7.10.13GRP
As part of the process for dealing with an application for a VaR model permission the following may be reviewed: organisational structure and personnel; details of the firm's market position in the relevant products; revenue and risk information; valuation and reserving policies; operational controls; information technology systems; model release and control procedures; risk management and control framework; risk appetite and limit structure; future developments relevant to model
SYSC 10.1.10RRP
(1) A 9management company5and an insurance intermediary12 must establish, implement and maintain an effective conflicts of interest policy89 that is set out in writing and is appropriate to the size and organisation of the firm and the nature, scale and complexity of its business.(2) Where the 9management company5or insurance intermediary12 is a member of a group, the policy must also take into account any circumstances, of which the firm is or should be aware, which may give
LR 8.6.13AGRP
4A sponsor will generally be regarded as having appropriate systems and controls for identifying and managing conflicts6 if it has in place effective policies and procedures:(1) to ensure that decisions taken on managing conflicts of interest are taken by appropriately senior staff and on a timely basis;(2) to monitor whether arrangements put in place to manage conflicts are effective; and6(3) to ensure that individuals within the sponsor are appropriately trained to enable them
LR 7.2.1RRP

The Listing Principles are as follows:

Listing3 Principle 1

A listed company must take reasonable steps to establish and maintain adequate procedures, systems and controls to enable it to comply with its obligations.3

3

Listing3 Principle 2

A listed company must deal with the FCA in an open and co-operative manner.3

3

Principle 3

[deleted]3

3

Principle 4

[deleted]3

3

Principle 5

[deleted]3

3

Principle 6

[deleted]3

3
LR 7.2.2GRP
Listing Principle 13 is intended to ensure that listed companies have adequate procedures, systems and controls to enable them to comply with their obligations under the listing rules, disclosure requirements4, transparency rules and corporate governance rules.3 In particular, the FCA considers that listed companies should place particular emphasis on ensuring that they have adequate procedures, systems and controls in relation to, where applicable:333(1) identifying whether any
MAR 5.10.2RRP
For an MTF to be eligible for registration as an SME growth market, the firm must have effective rules, systems and procedures which ensure that:(1) at least 50% of the issuers whose financial instruments are admitted to trading on the MTF are small and medium-sized enterprises at the time when the MTF is registered as an SME growth market, and in any calendar year thereafter;(2) appropriate criteria are set for initial and ongoing admission to trading of financial instruments
MAR 5.10.4GRP
(1) The FCA expects an application for registration as an SME growth market to be accompanied by:(a) a copy of the rules, systems and procedures supporting the applicant’s compliance with the requirements specified in MAR 5.10.2R; and(b) such other information as the FCA may reasonably require to determine the application in accordance with MAR 5.10.2R and MAR 5.10.3R.(2) A firm intending to apply for registration as an SME growth market may wish to contact the Infrastructure
SYSC 6.2.2GRP
(1) The term 'internal audit function' in SYSC 6.2.1R (and SYSC 4.1.11G), and for a common platform firm in article 24 of the MiFID Org Regulation,7 refers to the generally understood concept of internal audit within a firm, that is, the function of assessing adherence to and the effectiveness of internal systems and controls, procedures and policies.6(2) 6For a firm that is not a relevant authorised person, the internal audit function is not a controlled function itself, but
MCOB 13.3.3GRP
The requirement in MCOB 13.3.1 R(2) for a written policy and procedures is intended to ensure that a firm has addressed the need for internal systems to deal fairly with any customer in financial difficulties. MCOB 13.3.1 R(2) does not oblige a firm to provide customers with a copy of the written policy and procedures. Nor, however, does it prevent a firm from providing customers with either these documents or a more customer-orientated version.
COLL 6.3.6GRP

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1

1

3(2A)

Schemes investing in approved money-market instruments5should value such instruments on an amortised cost basis on condition that:5

55

[Note:CESR's UCITS eligible assets guidelines with respect to article 4(2) of the UCITS eligible assets Directive]

(2B)

[deleted]12

7

12

7

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should, in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,2 be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, any such payments should be added to the issue basis of the valuation, or subtracted from the cancellation basis of the valuation, as appropriate. Alternatively, the prospectus of a dual-priced authorised fund may prescribe any other method of calculating unitprices that ensures an equivalent treatment of the effect of these payments.2

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

  • no recent trade in the security concerned; or
  • the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.
In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

4(7A)

Where the authorised fund manager, the depositary or the standing independent valuer have reasonable grounds to believe that the most recent valuation of an immovable does not reflect the current value of that immovable, the authorised fund manager should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable value for the immovable.

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

  • asset prices are accurate and up to date;
  • investment 1transactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
  • the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue1), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
  • the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
  • compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
  • dividends are accounted for as soon as securities1 are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
  • fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point1;
  • tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
  • reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated;5
  • the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy5; and5
  • the valuation of OTC derivatives is accurate and up to date and in compliance with the methods agreed with the depositary.5

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to one or more third parties5.

5

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of OTC derivatives,5unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FCA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FCA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FCA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FCA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3R(3)(c)10(Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FCA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.