Related provisions for CASS 5.5.27

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SUP 12.6.15ARRP
14If a firm appoints a MiFID optional exemption appointed representative or a structured deposit appointed representative, that firm must: (1) monitor the activities of the appointed representative to ensure that the firm complies with those obligations which implement provisions of MiFID and to which it is subject when acting through its appointed representative;(2) ensure that its appointed representative discloses the capacity in which it is acting and the firm it is representing
PERG 8.28.4GRP
In the FCA's opinion, however, such information may take on the nature of advice if the circumstances in which it is provided give it the force of a recommendation. For example:(1) a person may offer to provide information on directors’ dealings on the basis that, in his opinion, were directors to buy or sell investors would do well to follow suit;(2) a person may offer to tell a client when certain shares reach a certain value (which would be advice if the person providing the
EG 16.2.5RP
1When it decides whether to exercise its power to disapply an exemption from the general prohibition in relation to a member, the FCA will take into account all relevant circumstances which may include, but are not limited to, the following factors: (1) Disciplinary or other action taken by the relevant designated professional body, where that action relates to the fitness and propriety of the member concerned: where the FCA considers that its concerns in relation to the fitness
SUP 10A.10.7RRP
The customer function is the function of:(1) advising on investments other than a non-investment insurance contract (but not where this is advising on investments in the course of carrying on the activity of giving basic advice on a stakeholder product) and performing other functions related to this such as dealing and arranging; (2) giving advice to clients solely in connection with corporate finance business and performing other functions related to this; (3) giving advice or
CASS 7.18.1GRP
The main purposes of an acknowledgement letter are:(1) to put the bank, exchange, clearing house, intermediate broker, OTC counterparty or other person (as the case may be) on notice of a firm'sclients' interests in client money that has been deposited with, or has been allowed to be held by, such person;(2) to ensure that the client bank account or client transaction account has been opened in the correct form (eg, whether the client bank account is being correctly opened as
DTR 5.4.2RRP
(1) The parent undertaking of an investment firm authorised under MiFID shall not be required to aggregate its holdings with the holdings which such investment firm manages on a client-by-client basis within the meaning of Article 4(1), point 85, of MiFID, provided that:(a) the investment firm is authorised to provide such portfolio management;(b) it may only exercise the voting rights attached to such shares under instructions given in writing or by electronic means or it ensures
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FCA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 1502 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount);

3

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 100,0003 euros (or equivalent amounts);

33

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered in the EEA states3 cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); or3

3

3(f)

the offer falls within subsection (1A).

3(1A)

An offer (“the current offer”) falls within this subsection where transferable securities are resold or placed through a financial intermediary where:

3(a)

the transferable securities have previously been the subject of one or more offers to the public;

3(b)

in respect of one or more of those previous offers, any of paragraphs (a) to (e) of subsection (1) applied;

3(c)

a prospectus is available for the securities which has been approved by the FCA and meets either of the conditions in subsection (1B);4 and

4

3(d)

the issuer or other person who was responsible for drawing up the prospectus has given written consent to the use of the prospectus for the purpose of the current offer.4

4(1B)

The conditions referred to in subsection (1A)(c) are:

(a)

that the prospectus was approved by the FCA no earlier than 12 months before the date the current offer is made, and is supplemented by every supplementary prospectus which was required to be submitted under section 87G; or

(b)

in the case of non-equity transferable securities falling within article 5(4)(b) of the prospectus directive, that the securities concerned have not ceased to be issued in a continuous or repeated manner.

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within point (1) of Section 1 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive3 to act as his agent; and

3

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor",6 in relation to an offer of transferable securities,3 means –

(a)

a person described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to that directive and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with that relevant firm (or each of those relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(c)

a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of that directive and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of that directive;3

3

3(d)

a person whom –6

6(i)

any relevant firm was6 authorised to continue to treat as a professional client immediately before 3 January 2018 by virtue of article 71.6 (transitional provisions) of Directive 2004/39/EC on markets in financial instruments; and6

6(ii)

the firm may continue to treat as a professional client from 3 January 2018 by virtue of Section II.2 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive.

3(8)

In subsection (7) “relevant firm” means an investment firm or credit institution acting in connection with the offer.

3(9)

Investment firms and credit institutions which are authorised persons7 must communicate their classification of their clients as being or not being qualified investors on request to an issuer, subject to complying with data protection legislation7.

3(10)

In subsections (8) and (9) -

“credit institution” means -

(a) a credit institution authorised under the banking consolidation directive; or

(b) an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its registered office (or if it does not have one, its head office) in an EEA State.
SYSC 7.1.18RRP
(1) 13A CRR firm that is significant must establish a risk committee composed of members of the management body who do not perform any executive function in the firm. Members of the risk committee must have appropriate knowledge, skills and expertise to fully understand and monitor the risk strategy and the risk appetite of the firm.(2) The risk committee must advise the management body on the institution’s overall current and future risk appetite and assist the management body
COBS 9.3.1GRP
(1) A transaction may be unsuitable for a client because of the risks of the designated investments involved, the type of transaction, the characteristics of the order or the frequency of the trading.(2) In the case of managing investments, a transaction might also be unsuitable if it would result in an unsuitable portfolio.[deleted]5
SYSC 13.8.7GRP
A firm should document its strategy for maintaining continuity of its operations, and its plans for communicating and regularly testing the adequacy and effectiveness of this strategy. A firm should establish:(1) formal business continuity plans that outline arrangements to reduce the impact of a short, medium or long-term disruption, including:(a) resource requirements such as people, systems and other assets, and arrangements for obtaining these resources;(b) the recovery
REC 2.7A.1UKRP

1Paragraph 7BA – Position management

(1)

A [UK RIE] operating a trading venue which trades commodity derivatives must apply position management controls on that venue, which must at least enable the [UK RIE] to -

(a)

monitor the open interest positions of persons;

(b)

access information, including all relevant documentation, from persons about-

(i)

the size and purpose of a position or exposure entered into;

(ii)

any beneficial or underlying owners;

(iii)

any concert arrangements; and

(iv)

any related assets or liabilities in the underlying market;

(c)

require a person to terminate or reduce a position on a temporary or permanent basis as the specific case may require and to unilaterally take appropriate action to ensure the termination or reduction if the person does not comply; and

(d)

where appropriate, require a person to provide liquidity back into the market at an agreed price and volume on a temporary basis with the express intent of mitigating the effects of a large or dominant position.

(2)

The position management controls must take account of the nature and composition of market participants and of the use they make of the contracts submitted to trading and must-

(a)

be transparent;

(b)

be non-discriminatory; and

(c)

specify how they apply to persons.

(3)

A [UK RIE] must inform the FCA of the details of the position management controls in relation to each trading venue it operates.

Paragraph 7BB – Position reporting

(1)

This paragraph applies to a [UK RIE] operating a trading venue which trades commodity derivatives, emission allowances, or emission allowance derivatives.

(2)

The [UK RIE] must -

(a)

where it meets the minimum threshold, as specified in a delegated act adopted by the European Commission pursuant to Article 58.6 of the markets in financial instruments directive, make public a weekly report with the aggregate positions held by the different categories of persons for the different commodity derivatives, emission allowances, or emission allowance derivatives traded on the trading venue specifying -

(i)

the number of long and short positions by such categories;

(ii)

changes of those positions since the previous report;

(iii)

the percentage of the total open interest represented by each category; and

(iv)

the number of persons holding a position in each category; and

(b)

provide the FCA with a complete breakdown of the positions held by all persons, including the members and participants and their clients, on the trading venue on a daily basis, or more frequently if that is required by the FCA.

(3)

For the weekly report mentioned in sub-paragraph (2)(a) the [UK RIE] must -

(a)

categorise persons in accordance with the classifications required under sub-paragraph (4); and

(b)

differentiate between positions identified as-

(i)

positions which in an objectively measurable way reduce risks directly relating to commercial activities; or

(ii)

other positions.

(4)

The [UK RIE] must classify persons holding positions in commodity derivatives, emission allowances, or emission allowance derivatives according to the nature of their main business, taking account of any applicable authorisation or registration, as -

(a)

an investment firm or credit institution;

(b)

an investment fund, either as an undertaking for collective investments in transferrable securities as defined in the UCITS Directive, or an alternative investment fund or alternative investment fund manager as defined in the alternative investment fund managers directive;

(c)

another financial institution, including an insurance undertaking and reinsurance undertaking as defined in the Solvency 2 Directive and an institution for occupational retirement provision as defined in Directive 2003/41/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council of 3 June 2003 on the activities and supervision of institutions for occupational retirement;

(d)

a commercial undertaking; or

(e)

in the case of emission allowances, or emission allowance derivatives, an operator with compliance obligations under Directive 2003/87/EC of the European Parliament and the Council of 13 October 2003 establishing a scheme for greenhouse gas emission allowance trading within the Community.

(5)

The [UK RIE] must communicate the weekly report mentioned in sub-paragraph (2)(a) to the FCA and ESMA.
COLL 6.6B.17RRP
The depositary must ensure that the cash flows of each UCITS scheme are properly monitored and that:(1) all payments made by, or on behalf of, investors upon the subscription of units of the scheme have been received; (2) all cash of the scheme has been booked in cash accounts which are: (a) opened in the name of:(i) the scheme; or(ii) the authorised fund manager, acting on behalf of the scheme; or(iii) the depositary acting on behalf of the scheme; and(b) at:(i) a central bank;
SYSC 1.4.2RRP
A contravention of a rule in SYSC 11 to 2SYSC 21,7SYSC 22.8.1R, SYSC 22.9.1R or SYSC 288 does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action). 34437
PERG 8.29.7GRP

1Typical recommendations and whether they will be regulated as advising on investments (except P2P agreements)3 under article 53(1)3 of the Regulated Activities Order. This table belongs to PERG 8.29.1 G to PERG 8.29.6 G.2

Recommendation

Regulated under article 53(1)3 or not?

I recommend that you take out the ABC investment.

Yes. This is advice which steers the client in the direction of a particular investment which the client could buy.

I recommend that you do not take out the ABC investment.

Yes. This is advice which steers the client away from a particular investment which the client could have bought.

I recommend that you take out either the ABC investment or the DEF investment.

Yes. This is advice which steers the client in the direction of more than one particular investment which the client could buy.

I recommend that you sell your ABC investment.

Yes. This is advice which steers the client in the direction of a particular investment which the client could sell.

I recommend that you do not sell your ABC investment.

Yes. This is advice which steers the client away from a particular investment which the client could have sold.

I recommend that you transfer ownership of your ABC investment to your spouse.

Advising the client to gift an investment to another person will not be advice because it does not involve advice on buying, selling, subscribing for or underwriting an investment.

I recommend that you increase the regular payments you are making to your GHI fund*.

Yes. This is advice which steers the client in the direction of acquiring further units in a particular fund.

I recommend that you decrease the regular payments you are making to your GHI fund*.

Yes. This is advice which steers the client in the direction of acquiring further units in a particular fund but advises against the client buying as many as he intended.

I recommend that you keep making the same regular payments to your GHI fund*.

Yes. This is advice which steers the client in the direction of acquiring further units in a particular fund.

I recommend that you stop making the regular payments you are making to the GHI fund*.

Yes. This is advice which steers the client away from buying units in a particular fund which the client could have bought.

I recommend that you pay a lump sum into your GHI fund*.

Yes. This is advice which steers the client in the direction of acquiring further units in a particular fund.

I recommend that you do not pay a lump sum into your GHI fund*.

Yes. This is advice which steers the client away from buying units in a particular fund which the client could have bought.

I recommend that you move part of your investment in the JKL investment from fund X into fund Y*.

Yes. This is advice which steers the client in the direction of selling units in a particular fund and buying units in another specific fund. Where the two funds are sub-funds of the same main fund it is still advice. The terms ‘bought’ and ‘sold’ are given a wide meaning and include any acquisition or disposal for valuable consideration.

I recommend that you move all of your investment in JKL investment from fund X into fund Y*.

Yes, for the same reason.

4I recommend that you keep your investment in fund X*.

Yes. This is advice because it is advice to hold on to an investment and advice not to sell it.

I recommend that you move your MNO investment from platform X and re-register it on platform Y.

This is unlikely to be advice because normally it will not involve buying and selling the investment held on the platform.

A client decides of his own accord to increase, decrease or temporarily suspend his regular payments or the payments are increased automatically into an investment without advice being given.

No. No advice is being given.

The firm is providing discretionary management services under a mandate and makes changes to a client'sinvestment without providing advice.

No. No advice is being given.

Dividends are re-invested into an investment without advice being given.

No. No advice is being given.

* The same answer would apply where the fund is a life policy as rights under a contract of insurance are regulated investments under the Act. The position under a personal pension scheme is similar, as explained in more detail in PERG 12.3.
COBS 14.2.1RRP
1A firm that sells:(1) a non-PRIIP packaged product17 to a retail client, must provide a key features document and a key features illustration2 to that client (unless the packaged product is a unit in a regulated collective investment scheme17);777(2) a life policy to a client, must provide:20131313(a) the Solvency II Directive information to that client;20(b) a client with objective and relevant information about the policy:20(i) in a comprehensible form to allow the client to
TC App 2.1.1RRP

1UK domestic firm

Incoming EEA firm

Overseas firm (other than an incoming EEA firm)

MiFID business and equivalent third country business

TC applies in respect of employees who carry on activities from an establishment maintained by the firm (or its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom

and

if4an activity is carried on from an establishment maintained by the firm (or its appointed representative or, where applicable, its tied agent) in, and within the territory of, another EEA State, TC applies although matters which would otherwise be covered by SYSC 5.1.5ABR are matters reserved for the Host State regulator4

TC does not apply

TC applies in respect of employees who carry on activities from an establishment maintained by the firm (or its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom

Insurance distribution activities5

TC applies in respect of employees who carry on activities from an establishment maintained by the firm (or its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom

and

TC also applies in respect of employees who engage in or oversee activities from a branch established in another EEA state

TC does not apply

TC does not apply

Mortgage activities and reversion activities numbers 20, 20A, 21, 21A, 21B, 22 and 23 in TC App 1.1.1R; and

MCD credit agreement activities numbers 23A to 23E in TC App 1.1.1R3

TC applies if the customer is resident in the United Kingdom at the time the activity3 is carried on

and

TC also applies if the customer is resident in another EEA State (at the time that the activity is carried on) but only if the activity is carried on from an establishment maintained by the firm or its appointed representative in the United Kingdom

Same as for UK domestic firm except that:

(1) if the firm carries on the activity from an establishment maintained by the firm or its appointed representative in the United Kingdom and the customer is resident in another EEA State when the activity is carried on, TC does not apply; and

(2) if the firm carries on the activity from an establishment maintained by the firm in another EEA State (and the customer is resident in the United Kingdom when the activity is carried on), the following provisions of TC apply: TC 2.1.5AR; TC 2.1.5BR(2), (3), (5) and (6); TC 2.1.5CR; TC 2.1.5DG; TC 2.1.5ER; and TC 2.1.5FG.

[Note: article 9(3) of the MCD]3

Same as for UK domestic firm

Any other activity in Appendix 1

TC applies in respect of employees who carry on these activities from an establishment maintained by the firm (or its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom

and

TC also applies in respect of employees who carry on activities with or for a client in the United Kingdom

TC applies in respect of its employees who carry on activities from an establishment maintained by the firm (or its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom

3

2

TC applies in respect of its employees who carry on activities from an establishment maintained by the firm (or its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom
REC 2.16A.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 9A-9H3

1(1)

[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility3 must also operate a regulated market3.

(2)

[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility3 must comply with those requirements of-

(a)

Chapter I of Title II of [MiFID];3 and

(b)

any directly applicable EU legislation made under Chapter I;3

which are applicable to a market operator3 ... operating such a facility.

(3)

The requirements of this paragraph do not apply for the purposes of section 292(3)(a) of the Act (requirements for overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses).

(4)3

A [UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility must provide the FCA with a detailed description of -

(a)

the functioning of the multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility;

(b)

any links to another trading venue owned by the same [UK RIE] or to a systematic internaliser owned by the same exchange; and

(c)

a list of the facility’s members, participants and users.

[Note:MiFID ITS 19 prescribes the content and format of the description of the functioning of a MTF or OTF to be provided to the FCA]3

(5)3

Any multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility operated by the [UK RIE] must have at least three materially active members or users who each have the opportunity to interact with all the others in respect of price formation.

Paragraph 9B – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: execution of orders3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] must have non-discretionary rules for the execution of orders on a multilateral trading facility operated by it.

(2)3

A [UK RIE] must not on a multilateral trading facility operated by it -

(a)

execute any client orders against its proprietary capital; or

(b)

engage in matched principal trading.

Paragraph 9C – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: access to a facility3

The rules of the [UK RIE] about access to, or membership of, a multilateral trading facility regulated market operated by it must permit the [UK RIE] to give access to or admit to membership to (as the case may be) only -3

(a)

an investment firm authorised under Article 5 of the markets in financial instruments directive;

(b)

a credit institution authorised in accordance with the capital requirements directive; or

(c)

a person who –

(i)

is of sufficient good repute;

(ii)

has a sufficient level of trading ability, and competence and experience;

(iii)

where applicable, has adequate organisational arrangements; and

(iv)

has sufficient resources for the role it is to perform, taking account of the financial arrangements the [UK RIE] has established in order to guarantee the adequate settlement transactions.

Paragraph 9D – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: disclosure3

(1)3

The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that where it, without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on a multilateral trading facility operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, the [UK RIE] may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

(2)3

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to provide sufficient publicly available information (or satisfy itself that sufficient information is publicly available) to enable users of a multilateral trading facility operated by it to form investment judgements, taking into account both the nature of the users and the types of instruments traded.

(3)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9E – SME growth markets3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility which has registered that facility as an SME growth market in accordance with Article 33 of the markets in financial instruments directive (an “exchange-operated SME growth market”) must comply with rules made by the FCA for the purposes of this paragraph.

[Note:REC 2.16A.1D]4

(2)3

An exchange-operated SME growth market must not admit to trading a financial instrument which is already admitted to trading on another SME growth market unless the issuer of the instrument has been informed of the proposed admission to trading and has not objected.

(3)3

Where an exchange-operated SME growth market exchange admits a financial instrument to trading in the circumstances of paragraph (2), that exchange-operated SME growth market may not require the issuer of the financial instrument to demonstrate compliance with -

(a)

any obligation relating to corporate governance, or

(b)

the disclosure obligations.

(4)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9F – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: execution of orders3

(1)3

[A UK RIE] operating an organised trading facility must -

(a)

execute orders on that facility on a discretionary basis in accordance with sub-paragraph (4);

(b)

not execute any client orders on that facility against its proprietary capital or the proprietary capital of any entity that is part of the same group or legal person as the [UK RIE] unless in accordance with sub-paragraph (2);

(c)

not operate a systematic internaliser within the same legal entity;

(d)

ensure that the organised trading facility does not connect with a systematic internaliser in a way which enables orders in an organised trading facility and orders or quotes in a systematic internaliser to interact; and

(e)

ensure that the organised trading facility does not connect with another organised trading facility in a way which enables orders in different organised trading facilities to interact.

(2)3

A [UK RIE] may only engage in -

(a)

matched principal trading on an organised trading facility operated by it in respect of-

(i)

bonds,

(ii)

structured finance products,

(iii)

emission allowances,

(iv)

derivatives which have not been declared subject to the clearing obligation in accordance with Article 5 of the EMIR regulation,

where the client has consented to that; or

(b)

dealing on own account on an organised trading facility operated by it, otherwise than in accordance with sub-paragraph (a), in respect of sovereign debt instruments for which there is not a liquid market.

(3)3

If the [UK RIE] engages in matched principal trading in accordance with sub-paragraph (2)(a) it must establish arrangements to ensure compliance with the definition of matched principal trading in article 4.1.38 of the markets in financial instruments directive.

(4)3

The discretion which the [UK RIE] must exercise in executing a client order may only be the discretion mentioned in sub-paragraph (5) or in sub-paragraph (6) or both.

(5)3

The first discretion is whether to place or retract an order on the organised trading facility.

(6)3

The second discretion is whether to match a specific client order with other orders available on the organised trading facility at a given time, provided the exercise of such discretion is in compliance with specific instructions received from the client and in accordance with the [UK RIE’s] obligations under Article 27 of the markets in financial instruments directive.

(7)3

Where the organised trading facility crosses client orders the [UK RIE] may decide if, when and how much of two or more orders it wants to match within the system.

(8)3

Subject to the requirements of this paragraph, with regard to a system that arranges transactions in non-equities, the [UK RIE] may facilitate negotiation between clients so as to bring together two or more comparable potentially trading interests in a transaction.

(9)3

The [UK RIE] must comply with rules made by the FCA as to how Articles 24, 25, 27 and 28 of the markets in financial instruments directive apply to its operation of an organised trading facility.

(10)3

Nothing in this paragraph prevents a [UK RIE] from engaging an investment firm to carry out market making on an independent basis on an organised trading facility operated by the [UK RIE]provided the investment firm does not have close links with the [UK RIE].

(11)3

In this paragraph -

“close links” has the meaning given in Article 4.1.1 of the markets in financial instruments directive;

“investment firm” has the meaning given in Article 4.1.1 of the markets in financial instruments directive;

“non-equities” means bonds, structured finance products, emissions allowances and derivatives traded on a trading venue to which Article 8(1) of the markets in financial instrument regulation applies.

Paragraph 9G – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: disclosure3

(1)3

The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that where it, without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on an organised trading facility operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, the [UK RIE] may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

(2)3

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to provide sufficient publicly available information (or satisfy itself that sufficient information is publicly available) to enable users of the organised trading facility operated by it to form investment judgements, taking into account both the nature of the users and the types of instruments traded.

(3)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9H – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: FCA request for information3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] must, when requested to do so, provide the FCA with a detailed explanation in respect of an organised trading facility operated by it, or such a facility it proposes to operate, of -

(a)

why the organised trading facility does not correspond to and cannot operate as a multilateral trading facility, a regulated market or a systematic internaliser;

(b)

how discretion will exercised in executing client orders, and in particular when an order to the organized trading facility may be retracted and when and how two or more client orders will be matched within the facility; and

(c)

its use of matched principal trading.

(2)3

Any information required under sub-paragraph (1) must be provided to the FCA in the manner which it considers appropriate.
APER 4.1.3GRP
3Deliberately misleading (or attempting to mislead) by act or omission: (1) a client; or(2) his firm (or its auditors or an actuary appointed by his firm under SUP 4 (Actuaries) 1); or1(3) the FCA or the PRA;falls within APER 4.1.2G.