Related provisions for INSPRU 8.2.29

101 - 120 of 289 items.

Search Term(s)

Filter by Topics

Filter by Modules

Filter by Documents

Filter by Keywords

Effective Period

Similar To

To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

REC 2.5.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, paragraphs 3 – 3H4

Paragraph 3 – Systems and controls4

(1)

The [UK RIE] must ensure that the systems and controls, including procedures and arrangements,4 used in the performance of its functions and the functions of the trading venues it operates are adequate, effective4 and appropriate for the scale and nature of its business.

(2)

Sub-paragraph (1) applies in particular to systems and controls concerning -

(a)

the transmission of information;

(b)

the assessment, mitigation and management of risks to the performance of the [UK RIE'srelevant functions];

(c)

the effecting and monitoring of transactions on the [UK RIE];

(ca)

the technical operation of the [UK RIE], including contingency arrangements for disruption to its facilities;

(d)

the operation of the arrangements mentioned in paragraph 4(2)(d); and

(e)

(where relevant) the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to users of the [UK RIE's] facilities.

4(f)

the resilience of its trading systems;

4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the resilience of trading systems operated by trading venues that enable algorithmic trading]

4(g)

the ability to have sufficient capacity to deal with peak order and message volumes;

4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the adequacy of capacity of trading systems operated by trading venues that enable algorithmic trading]

4(h)

the ability to ensure orderly trading under conditions of severe market stress;

4(i)

the effectiveness of business continuity arrangements to ensure the continuity of the [UK RIE’s] services if there is any failure of its trading systems including the testing of the [UK RIE’s] systems and controls;

4(j)

the ability to reject orders that exceed predetermined volume or price thresholds or which are clearly erroneous;

4(k)

the ability to ensure algorithmic trading systems cannot create or contribute to disorderly trading conditions on trading venues operated by the [UK RIE];

4(l)

the ability to ensure disorderly trading conditions which arise from the use of algorithmic trading systems, including systems to limit the ratio of unexecuted orders to transactions that may be entered into the [UK RIE’s] trading system by a member or participant are capable of being managed;

[Note:MiFID RTS 9 contains requirements on the ratio of unexecuted orders to transactions to be taken into account by a trading venue that operates electronic continuous auction order book, quote-driven or hybrid trading systems]

4(m)

the ability to ensure the flow of orders is able to be slowed down if there is a risk of system capacity being reached;

4(n)

the ability to limit and enforce the minimum tick size which may be executed on its trading venues; and

4(o)

the requirement for members and participants to carry out appropriate testing of algorithms.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on the appropriate testing of algorithms to ensure that trading systems, when they enable algorithmic trading, cannot create or contribute to disorderly trading conditions]

4(3)

For the purposes of sub-paragraph 2(c), the [UK RIE] must -

4(a)

establish and maintain effective arrangements and procedures including the necessary resource for the regular monitoring of the compliance by members or participants with its rules; and

4(b)

monitor orders sent including cancellations and the transactions undertaken by its members or participants under its systems in order to identify infringements of those rules, disorderly trading conditions or conduct that may indicate behavior that is prohibited under the market abuse regulation or system disruptions in relation to a financial instrument.

4(4)

For the purpose of sub-paragraph (2)(o) the [UK RIE] must provide environments to facilitate such testing.

4(5)

The [UK RIE] must be adequately equipped to manage the risks to which it is exposed, to implement appropriate arrangements and systems to identify all significant risks to its operation, and to put in place effective measures to mitigate those risks.

4Paragraph 3A – Market making arrangements

4(1)

The [UK RIE] must -

4(a)

have written agreements with all investment firms pursuing a market making strategy on trading venues operated by it (“market making agreements”);

4(b)

have schemes, appropriate to the nature and scale of a trading venue, to ensure that a sufficient number of investment firms enter into such agreements which require them to post firm quotes at competitive prices with the result of providing liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis;

4(c)

monitor and enforce compliance with the market making agreements;

4(d)

inform the FCA of the content of its market making agreements; and

4(e)

provide the FCA with any information it requests which is necessary for the FCA to satisfy itself that the market making agreements comply with paragraphs (c) and (d) of this sub-paragraph and sub-paragraph 2.

4(2)

A market making agreement must specify-

4(a)

the obligations of the investment firm in relation to the provision of liquidity;

4(b)

where applicable, any obligations arising from the participation in a scheme mentioned in sub-paragraph (1)(b);

4(c)

any incentives in terms of rebates or otherwise offered by the [UK RIE] to the investment firm in order for it to provide liquidity to the market on a regular and predictable basis; and

4(d)

where applicable, any other rights accruing to the investment firm as a result of participation in the scheme referred to in sub-paragraph (1)(b).

4(3)

For the purposes of this paragraph, an investment firm pursues a market making strategy if -

4(a)

the firm is a member or participant of one or more trading venues;

4(b)

the firm’s strategy, when dealing on own account, involves posting firm, simultaneous two-way quotes of comparable size at competitive prices relating to one or more financial instruments on a single trading venue, across different trading venues; and

4(c)

the result is providing liquidity on a regular and frequent basis to the overall market.

4Paragraph 3B – Halting trading

4(1)

The [UK RIE] must be able to -

4(a)

temporarily halt or constrain trading on any trading venue operated by it if there is a significant price movement in a financial instrument on such a trading venue or a related trading venue during a short period; and

4(b)

in exceptional cases be able to cancel, vary, or correct any transaction.

4(2)

For the purposes of sub-paragraph (1), the [UK RIE] must ensure that the parameters for halting trading are appropriately calibrated in a way which takes into account -

4(a)

the liquidity of different asset classes and subclasses;

4(b)

the nature of the trading venue market model; and

4(c)

the types of users,

4to ensure the parameters are sufficient to avoid significant disruptions to the orderliness of trading.

4(3)

The [UK RIE] must report the parameters mentioned in sub-paragraph (2) and any material changes to those parameters to the FCA in a format to be specified by the FCA.

4(4)

If a trading venue operated by the [UK RIE] is material in terms of liquidity of the trading of a financial instrument and it halts trading in an EEA State in that instrument it must have systems and procedures in place to ensure that it notifies the FCA.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 12 contains requirements for when a regulated market is material in terms of liquidity in a financial instrument for purposes of trading halt notifications]

4Paragraph 3C – Direct electronic access

4Where the [UK RIE] permits direct electronic access to a trading venue it operates, it must -

4(1)

(a)

ensure that a member of, or participant in that trading venue is only permitted to provide direct electronic access to the venue if the member or participant -

4(i)

is an investment firm, as defined by Article 4.1.1 of the markets in financial instruments directive (definitions), authorised in accordance with the directive;

4(ii)

is a credit institution authrised in accordance with the capital requirements directive;

4(iii)

comes within Article 2.1(a), (e), (i), or (j) of the markets in financial instruments directive (exemptions) and has a Part 4A permission relating to investment services and activities;

4(iv)

is a third country firm providing the direct electronic access in the course of exercising rights under Article 46.1 (general provisions) or 47.3 (equivalence decision) of the markets in financial instruments regulation;

4(v)

is a third country firm and the provision of the direct electronic access by that firm is subject to the exclusion in Article 72 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001; or

4(vi)

is a third country firm which does not come within paragraph (iv) or (v) and is otherwise permitted to provide the direct electronic access under the Act;

4(b)

ensure that appropriate criteria are set and applied for the suitability of persons to whom direct electronic access services may be provided;

4(c)

ensure that a member of, or participant in, the trading venue retains responsibility for adherence to the requirements of the markets in financial instruments directive in respect of orders and trades executed using the direct electronic access service;

4(d)

set appropriate standards regarding risk controls and thresholds on trading through direct electronic access;

4(e)

be able to distinguish and if necessary stop orders or trading on that trading venue by a person using direct electronic access separately from -

4(i)

other orders; or

4(ii)

trading by the member or participant providing the direct electronic access; and

4(f)

have arrangements in place to suspend or terminate the provision to a client of direct electronic access to that trading venue by a member of, or participant in, the trading venue in the case of non-compliance with this paragraph.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 7 contains requirements on direct electronic access permitted through a trading venue’s systems]

4Paragraph 3D – Co-location services

4(1)

The [UK RIE’s] rules on colocation services must be transparent, fair and nondiscriminatory.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements to ensure co-location services are transparent, fair and non-discriminatory]

4Paragraph 3E – Fee structures

4(1)

The [UK RIE’s] fee structure, for all fees it charges including execution fees and ancillary fees and rebates it grants, must -

4(a)

be transparent, fair and non-discriminatory;

4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements to ensure fee structures are transparent, fair and non-discriminatory]

4(b)

not create incentives to place, modify or cancel orders, or execute transactions, in a way which contributes to disorderly trading conditions or market abuse; and

4[Note:MiFID RTS 10 contains requirements concerning prohibited fee structures]

4(c)

impose market making obligations in individual shares or suitable baskets of shares for any rebates that are granted.

4(2)

Nothing in sub-paragraph (1) prevents the [UK RIE] from -

4(a)

adjusting its fees for cancelled orders according to the length of time for which the order was maintained;

4(b)

calibrating its fees to each financial instrument to which they apply;

4(c)

imposing a higher fee -

4(i)

for placing an order which is cancelled than an order which is executed;

4(ii)

on participants placing a high ratio of cancelled orders to executed orders; or

4(iii)

on a person operating a high-frequency algorithmic trading technique,

4in order to reflect the additional burden on system capacity.

4Paragraph 3F – Algorithmic trading

4(1)

The [UK RIE] must require members of and participants in trading venues operated by it to flag orders generated by algorithmic trading in order for it to be able to identify the -

4(a)

the different algorithms used for the creation of orders; and

4(b)

the persons initiating those orders.

4Paragraph 3G – Tick size regimes

4(1)

The [UK RIE] must adopt tick size regimes in respect of trading venues operated by it in -

4(a)

shares, depositary receipts, exchange-traded funds, certificates and other similar financial instruments traded on each trading venue; and

4[Note:MiFID RTS 11 contains requirements on the tick size regime for shares, depositary receipts, exchange traded funds and certificates5]

4(b)

any financial instrument for which regulatory technical standards are adopted by the European Commission pursuant to Article 49.3 or 4 of the markets in financial instruments directive which is traded on that trading venue.

[Note:MiFID RTS 11]

4 (2)

The tick size regime must -

4(a)

be calibrated to reflect the liquidity profile of the financial instrument in different markets and the average bid-ask spread taking into account desirability of enabling reasonably stable prices without unduly constraining further narrowing of spreads; and

4(b)

adapt the tick size for each financial instrument appropriately.

4(3)

The tick size regime must comply with any regulatory technical standards adopted by the European Commission pursuant to Article 49.3 or 4 of the markets in financial instruments directive.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 11]

4Paragraph 3H – Syncronisation of business clocks

4(1)

The [UK RIE] must synchronise the business clocks it uses to record the date and time of any reportable event in accordance with regulatory technical standards adopted by the European Commission pursuant to Article 50 of the markets in financial instruments directive.

4[Note:MiFID RTS 25]
DISP 1.11.5RRP
(1) A notification claiming exemption under DISP 1.1.12 R from the complaints reporting rules and the rules relating to the funding of the Financial Ombudsman Service must be given to the FCA by the Society on behalf of any member eligible for an exemption. (2) The Society must notify the FCA if the conditions relating to such an exemption no longer apply to a member who is exempt.
DISP 1.11.19GRP
The Society should give the FCA adequate notice of all proposed changes to the byelaws relating to the schemes referred to in DISP 1.11.13 R.
SUP 13.3.2AGRP
[deleted]194882020208
REC 3.5.1RRP
Where any member of the management body2 of a UK recognised body:(1) is the subject of any disciplinary action because of concerns about his or her2 alleged misconduct; or2(2) resigns as a result of an investigation into his or her2 alleged misconduct; or(3) is dismissed for misconduct;that body must immediately give the FCA1 notice of that event, and give the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.5.2 R.1
REC 3.5.3RRP
Where a UK recognised body becomes aware that any of the following events has occurred in relation to a member of the management body2, it must immediately give the FCA1 notice of that event:1(1) a petition for bankruptcy is presented (or similar or analogous proceedings under the law of a jurisdiction outside the United Kingdom are commenced) against that member of the management body2; or(2) a bankruptcy order (or a similar or analogous order under the law of a jurisdiction
SYSC 13.4.1GRP
Under Principle 11 and SUP 15.3.1 R, a firm must notify the FCA1 immediately of any operational risk matter of which the FCA1 would reasonably expect notice. SUP 15.3.8 G provides guidance on the occurrences that this requirement covers, which include a significant failure in systems and controls and a significant operational loss.
SYSC 13.4.2GRP
Regarding operational risk, matters of which the FCA1 would expect notice under Principle 11 include:(1) any significant operational exposures that a firm has identified;(2) the firm's invocation of a business continuity plan; and(3) any other significant change to a firm's organisation, infrastructure or business operating environment.
IFPRU 1.5.1RRP
A n IFPRU investment firm must notify the FCA: (1) if it is, or becomes, a FINREP firm; and(2) when it ceases to be a FINREP firm.
IFPRU 1.5.2RRP
A firm must notify the FCA if it adjusts its firm'saccounting reference date under the Commission Regulation made under article 99 of the EU CRR.
CASS 7.13.21ARRP
(1) 6A firm need not comply with CASS 7.13.20R if, following an assessment, it is able to demonstrate that the requirement under that rule is not proportionate, in view of: (a) the small balance of client money that it holds; (b) the nature, scale and complexity of its business; and (c) the safety offered by the relevant third parties referred to under CASS 7.13.20R.(2) A firm must review any assessment it makes under (1) periodically. (3) A firm must notify its assessment under
CASS 7.13.21CRRP
6Where a firm decides following an assessment under CASS 7.13.21AR(1) that it intends to use the approach under that rule, the firm must give the FCA notice of this upon reaching that decision and before it starts to use that approach.Where, following a review under CASS 7.13.21AR(2) a firm decides that it will either cease to use the approach under CASS 7.13.21AR(1) or continue to use it, it must give the FCA notice of this upon reaching that decision.
CASS 7.13.57RRP
At least three months before adopting the alternative approach for a particular business line, a firm must: (1) inform the FCA in writing that it intends to adopt the alternative approach for that particular business line; and(2) if requested by the FCA, make any documents it created under CASS 7.13.55 R2 available to the FCA for inspection.
SUP 12.4.9GRP
(1) 1An appointed representative must not commence an insurance distribution activity15 until they are15 included on the Financial Services Register as carrying on such activities (see SUP 12.5.2 G (3)). (2) If an appointed representative's scope of appointment is to include an insurance mediation activityinsurance distribution activity15, the principal must notify the FSAFCA of the appointment before the appointed representative commences that activity (see SUP 12.7.1 R (1)).
SUP 12.4.10CGRP
(1) 10If an appointed representative's scope of appointment is to include MCD credit intermediation activity, the principal must notify the FCA of the appointment before the appointed representative commences that activity (see SUP 12.7.1 R (1)).(2) An appointed representative must not commence an MCD credit intermediation activity until they are included on the Financial Services Register. (3) If an appointed representative's scope of appointment is to include MCD credit intermediation
SUP 12.4.12GRP
(1) 8A tied agent that is an appointed representative may not start to act as a tied agent until it is included on the applicable register (section 39(1A) of the Act). If the tied agent is established in the UK, the register maintained by the FCA is the applicable register for these purposes. If the tied agent is established in another EEA State, 13the applicable register is that maintained by the competent authority in the EEA State in which the tied agent is established13.(2)
SUP 8.5.1RRP
A firm which has applied for or has been granted a waiver must notify the appropriate regulator1 immediately if it becomes aware of any matter which could affect the continuing relevance or appropriateness of the application or the waiver.1
SUP 8.5.2GRP
Firms are also referred to SUP 15.6 (Inaccurate, false or misleading information). This requires, in SUP 15.6.4 R, a firm to notify the appropriate regulator1 if false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate information has been provided. This would apply in relation to information provided in an application for a waiver.1
SUP 15.10.4GRP
(1) Notification of suspicious transactions or orders3 to the FCA requires sufficient indications (which may not be apparent until after the transaction has taken place) that the transaction or order3 might constitute market abuse. In particular a person subject to article 16 of the Market Abuse Regulation3 will need to be able to explain the basis for the3 suspicion when notifying the FCA. Certain transactions or orders3 by themselves may seem completely devoid of anything suspicious,
SUP 15.10.7GRP
3A person subject to article 16 of the Market Abuse Regulation making a notification to the FCA under this section may do so using the system indicated on the FCA’s website.
COLL 14.2.1RRP
1The authorised fund manager of a charity authorised investment fund must notify the FCA without undue delay when it receives its registration as a charity from the Charity Commission.
COLL 14.2.2RRP
The authorised fund manager and the depositary of an authorised fund that was previously registered as a charity with the Charity Commission must notify the FCA without undue delay when it ceases to be registered as a charity with the Charity Commission.
MAR 6.4.1RRP
An investment firm1must promptly notify the FCA in writing of its status as a systematic internaliser1:(1) when it gains that status; or(2) if it ceases to have that status.[Note:articles 15(1) and 18(4) of MiFIR1]
MAR 6.4.2GRP
The notification under MAR 6.4.1 R can be addressed to the firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA .
SUP 8A.4.1RRP
A firm which has applied for or has been granted a direction or determination must notify the FCA immediately if it becomes aware of any matter which could affect the continuing relevance or appropriateness of the application or the direction or determination.
SUP 8A.4.2GRP
Firms are also referred to SUP 15.6 (Inaccurate, false or misleading information). This requires a firm to notify the FCA if false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate information has been provided (see SUP 15.6.4 R). This would apply in relation to information provided in an application for a direction or a determination.
REC 3.7.1RRP
Where the auditors of a UK recognised body cease to act as such, that UK recognised body must immediately give the FCA1notice of that event, and the following information:1(1) whether the appointment of those auditors expired or was terminated;(2) the date on which they ceased to act; and(3) if it terminated, or decided not to renew, their appointment, its reasons for taking that action or decision.
REC 3.7.2RRP
Where a UK recognised body appoints new auditors, that body must immediately give the FCA1notice of that event, and the following information:1(1) the name and business address of those new auditors; and(2) the date of their appointment as auditors.
LR 8.3.5ARRP
1If, in connection with the provision of a3sponsor service, a sponsor becomes aware that it, or a company with or applying for a premium listing of its securities8 is failing or has failed to comply with its obligations under3 the listing rules3, the3disclosure requirements7 or the transparency rules, the sponsor must promptly notify the FCA2.323
REC 3.14A.7DGRP
4A UK RIE should have regard to the urgency and significance of a matter and, if appropriate, should also notify its usual supervisory contact at the FCA by telephone or by other prompt means of communication, before submitting written notification. Oral notifications should be given directly to its usual supervisory contact at the FCA. An oral notification left with another person or left on a voicemail or other automatic messaging service is unlikely to have been given appr
FIT 1.3.4AGRP
1A relevant authorised person assessing the continuing fitness and propriety of an approved person is required to notify the FCA under section 63(2A) of the Act if it forms the opinion that there are grounds on which the FCA could withdraw its approval (see SUP 10C.14.24R). In discharging its obligation to notify the FCA, a relevant authorised person should take into account how relevant and how important the matter is that comes to its attention which suggests an approved person