Related provisions for IPRU-INV 4.2.2
101 - 120 of 640 items.
A UK firm17 or an AIFM exercising an EEA right to market an AIF under AIFMD13,9 cannot start providing cross border services into another EEA State under an EEA right unless it satisfies the conditions in paragraphs 20(1) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act and, if it derives its EEA right from17AIFMD, MiFID or the UCITS Directive,13paragraph 20(4B) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act. If a UK firm derives its EEA right from the MCD, it cannot start providing cross border services
(1) A MiFID investment firm that wishes to obtain a passport for the activity of operating a multilateral trading facility or operating an organised trading facility18 should follow the procedures described in this chapter.18(2) A UK market operator that operates a recognised investment exchange, a recognised auction platform (pursuant to the RAP regulations, the definition of regulated market in the Act is read for these purposes as including a recognised auction platform), an
8(2) [deleted]17(2A) 8(a) If the UK firm'sEEA right derives from the Insurance Mediation Directive, and the EEA State in which the UK firm is seeking to provide services has notified the European Commission of its wish to be informed of the intention of persons to provide cross border services in its territory in accordance with article 6(2) of that directive, paragraph 20(3B)(a) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the appropriate UK regulator20 to send a copy of the
(1) 14If the UKfirm'sEEA right derives from AIFMD (other than the EEA right to market an AIF (referred to in (3)) and the condition in (2) is met, paragraph 20(3D) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FCA to:(a) send a copy of the notice of intention to the Host State regulator within one month of receipt; (b) include confirmation that the UKfirm has been authorised by the FCA under AIFMD; and(c) immediately inform the UKfirm that the notice of intention and confirmation
(1) If the operator of a scheme makes an application under section 272 of the Act (Individually recognised overseas schemes), the application must include the information in paragraph (4). 11(2) The documents must be in English or accompanied by a translation in English. (3) The documents must be certified by the operator to be true copies of the originals. (4) The operator of the scheme must provide the following information and documents with the application: 1(a) the name of
An operator of a scheme recognised under section 272 of the Act must ensure the prospectus:(1) contains a statement that "Complaints about the operation of the scheme may be made to the FCA."; and(2) states whether or not investors in the scheme would be covered by the compensation scheme, and if so, it must state how they are covered and who they would need to contact for further information.
(1) An operator of a scheme which is a recognised scheme by virtue of section 272 of the Act must comply with the requirements set out in COLL 4.2 (Pre-sale notifications). 11(2) Where a scheme recognised under section 2721of the Act is managed and authorised in Guernsey, Jersey, or the Isle of Man, the prospectus need not comply with the requirements of COLL 4.2.5 R (Table: contents of prospectus), providing it contains corresponding matter required under the law in its home
(1) 2The PRIIPs Regulation requires the manufacturer of a PRIIP to draw up a key information document in accordance with the PRIIPs Regulation before that PRIIP is made available to retail investors (as defined in the PRIIPs Regulation).(2) The requirements of the PRIIPs Regulation are directly applicable.(3) As a result, when a recognised scheme under section 272 of the Act is made available to retail clients in the United Kingdom the operator must draw up a key information
A firm authorised under Part 4A8 of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part 4A permission8 granted by the FCA or the PRA. A firm'sPart 4A permission8 specifies all or some of the following elements (see PERG 2 Annex 2 (Regulated activities and the permission regime) and the information online at the FCA and PRA websites):8888338(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved;
8If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission to:(1) add a regulated activity, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) remove a regulated activity from those to which the permission relates; or(3) vary the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates; or(4) cancel the permission;it can apply to the FCA under section 55H of the Act (Variation by FCA at request of authorised person).
8If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission, by adding to the regulated activities to which the permission relates one or more regulated activities, which include a PRA-regulated activity, it can apply to the PRA under section 55I of the Act (Variation by PRA at request of authorised person). The PRA can determine such an application only with the consent of the FCA.
Breaching Principle 11, or the rules in this chapter, makes a firm liable to regulatory sanctions, including discipline under Part XIV of the Act (Disciplinary Measures), and may be relevant to the use of the appropriate regulator's other powers, including the statutory information gathering and investigation powers (see further PRIN 1.1.7 G to PRIN 1.1.9 G). But, unlike a breach of a requirement imposed under the statutory powers listed in SUP 2.1.5 G, a breach of Principle 11
The FCA1 would not normally seek to gather information using the methods described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4 in a situation where the FCA1 could not have obtained it under the powers in Part XI of the Act (Information Gathering and Investigations). In particular, the limitations in the following sections of the Act are relevant to this chapter:11(1) section 175(5) (Information and documents: supplementary powers) under which no person may be required under Part XI of the Act (Information
When the FCA1 obtains confidential information using the methods of information gathering described in SUP 2.3 or SUP 2.4, it is obliged under Part XXIII of the Act (Public Record, Disclosure of Information and Co-operation) to treat that information as confidential. The FCA1 will not disclose confidential information without lawful authority, for example if an exception applies under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Disclosure of Confidential Information) Regulations
(1) 1PR 2, PR 3, PR 4.2, PR 5.1, PR 5.3.1 UK to PR 5.3.3 G and PR 5.5 only apply (subject to paragraph (2)) in relation to:(a) an offer, or a request for admission to trading of transferable securities, in respect of which section 85 of the Act applies (other than an exempt offer under section 86 of the Act) and in relation to which the United Kingdom is the Home State;(b) an offer, or a request for admission to trading of transferable securities, where under section 87 of the
The FCA considers that the 4following documents together 4determine the effect of the Prospectus Directive6: 4(1) Part 6 of the Act;(2) the PD Regulation;(3) these rules; 4(4) the ESMA Prospectus Recommendations434(5) the ESMA Prospectus Questions and Answers;4(6) the ESMA Prospectus Opinions6; and4(7) the Prospectus RTS Regulations5. 4
In determining whether Part 6 of the Act, these rules ,4the PD Regulation and the Prospectus RTS Regulations5have2 been complied with, the FCA will consider whether a person has acted in accordance with the4ESMA Prospectus Recommendations, the ESMA Prospectus Questions and Answers and the ESMA Prospectus Opinions6. 4424244
Section 6A(1) of the Act (Enhancing public understanding of financial matters etc) (as it had effect before the passing of the Financial Services Act 2012) required4 the FSA to establish the CFEB in order to enhance:4(1) the understanding and knowledge of members of the public of financial matters (including the UK financial system); and(2) the ability of members of the public to manage their own financial affairs.
Paragraph 12(1) of Part 2 of Schedule 1A to the Act enables the FCA to make rules requiring certain2authorised persons or payment service providers or electronic money issuers2 to pay to the FCA specified amounts or amounts calculated in a specified way in order to meet a proportion of:22(1) the expenses incurred by the FCA in establishing the CFEB, whenever these were incurred; and(2) the expenses incurred, or expected to be incurred, by the CFEB in connection with the discharge
For a person (P) who is an approved person, COCON applies to the conduct of P in relation to the performance by P of functions relating to the carrying on of activities (whether or not regulated activities) by the firm on whose application approval was given to P.[Note:sections 64A(4) and (5)(a) of the Act (Rules of conduct)]
For a person (P) subject to COCON who is not an approved person, COCON applies to the conduct of P in relation to the performance by P of functions relating to the carrying on of activities (whether or not regulated activities) by:9(1) (in the case of a board director of a firm) that firm; or9(2) (in any other case) P’s employer.9[Note: sections 64A(4), (5)(ab) 9and (5)(b) of the Act (Rules of conduct)]
The FCA interprets the phrase ‘dealing with’ in COCON 1.1.10R as including having contact with customers and extending beyond ‘dealing’ as used in the phrase ‘dealing in investments’. ‘Dealing in’ is used in Schedule 2 to the Act to describe, in general terms, the regulated activities which are specified in Part II of the Regulated Activities Order.
1Sections 87A(2), (2A), 2(3) and (4) of the Act provide for the general contents of a prospectus:
(2) |
The necessary information is the information necessary to enable investors to make an informed assessment of – |
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(a) |
the assets and liabilities, financial position, profits and losses, and prospects of the issuer of the transferable securities and of any guarantor; and |
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(b) |
the rights attaching to the transferable securities.2 |
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2(2A) |
If, in the case of transferable securities to which section 87 applies, the prospectus states that the guarantor is a specified EEA State, the prospectus is not required to include other information about the guarantor. |
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(3) |
The necessary information must be presented in a form which is comprehensible and easy to analyse. |
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(4) |
The necessary information must be prepared having regard to the particular nature of the transferable securities and their issuer.6 266 |
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Sections 87A(5) and (6) of the Act set out the requirement for a summary to be included in a prospectus:
(5) |
The prospectus must include a summary (unless the transferable securities in question are ones in relation to which prospectus rules provide that a summary is not required). |
(6) |
The summary must convey concisely, in non-technical language and in an appropriate structure, the key information relevant to the securities which are the subject of the prospectus and, when read with the rest of the prospectus, must be an aid to investors considering whether to invest in the securities2. 2 |
The summary must also contain a warning to the effect that:(1) it should be read as an introduction to the prospectus;(2) any decision to invest in the transferable securities should be based on consideration of the prospectus as a whole by the investor; (3) where a claim relating to the information contained in a prospectus is brought before a court, the plaintiff investor might, under the national legislation of the EEA States, have to bear the costs of translating the prospectus
Where, in relation to an offer in the United Kingdom, no prospectus is required under the Act, the issuer and offeror must ensure that material information they provide to qualified investors or special categories of investors, including information disclosed in the context of meetings relating to offers, is disclosed to all qualified investors or special categories of investors to whom the offer is exclusively addressed. [Note: article 15.5 PD]
3For supervisory notices (as defined in section 395(13)) which have taken effect, decision notices and final notices, section 391 of the Act requires the FCA to publish, in such manner as it considers appropriate, such information about the matter to which the notice relates as it considers appropriate. Section 391 prevents the FCA from publishing warning notices, but the FCA may publish such information about the matter to which a warning notice falling within section 391(1ZB)
3The FCA may publish information about warning notices which fall within section 391(1ZB) of the Act. These are essentially disciplinary warning notices, for example, where the FCA is proposing to censure, fine, or impose a suspension, restriction, condition or limitation on1 a firm or individual. The power to publish information does not apply, for example, to warning notices which only propose to prohibit an individual, withdraw the approval of an individual or cancel the permission
3The FCA will take the following initial steps in considering whether it is appropriate to exercise this power: (1) It will consider whether it is appropriate to publish details of the warning notice in order to enable consumers, firms and market users to understand the nature of the FCA’s concerns. The FCA will consider the circumstances of each case but expects normally to consider it appropriate to publish these details. (2) Where the FCA considers it is appropriate to publish
3However, as required by the Act (see paragraph 6.2.1 above), the FCA will not publish information if publication of it would, in its opinion, be unfair to the person in respect of whom the action is taken or prejudicial to the interests of consumers, or detrimental to the stability of the UK financial system. It may make that decision where, for example, publication could damage market confidence or undermine market integrity in a way that could be damaging to the interests of
Section 21(2) of the Act sets out two circumstances in which a financial promotion will not be caught by the restriction in section 21(1). These are where the communicator is an authorised person or where the content of the financial promotion has been approved for the purposes of section 21 by an authorised person. Where approval is concerned it must be specifically for the purposes of enabling the financial promotion to be communicated by unauthorised persons free of the restriction
Where an authorised person makes a financial promotion, he is not subject to the restriction in section 21. So, the communication of the financial promotion by the authorised person will not be a criminal offence under the provisions of section 25 of the Act (Contravention of section 21) and any resulting contract will not be unenforceable under section 30 of the Act (Enforceability of agreement resulting from unlawful communications). However, the appropriate financial promotion
An unauthorised person may wish to pass on a financial promotion made to him by an authorised person. In this case, the fact that the financial promotion was made to him by an authorised person will not be enough for the restriction in section 21 not to apply to him. The authorised person must also both have approved its content and have done so for the purpose of section 21 of the Act. If an authorised person wishes to ensure that an unauthorised person can communicate a financial
The guidance in COND 2 explains each FCA1threshold condition in Schedule 6 (threshold conditions) to the Act and indicates1 how the FCA1 will interpret it in practice. This guidance is not, however, exhaustive and is written in very general terms. A firm will need to have regard to the obligation placed upon the FCA1 under section 55B (The threshold conditions) of the Act; that is, the FCA1 must ensure that the firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the FCA1threshold conditions
1When assessing the FCAthreshold conditions, the FCA may have regard to any person appearing to be, or likely to be, in a relevant relationship with the firm, in accordance with section 55R of the Act (Persons connected with an applicant). For example, a firm'scontrollers, its directors or partners, other persons with close links to the firm (see COND 2.3), and other persons that exert influence on the firm which might pose a risk to the firm's satisfaction of the FCAthreshold
(1) For ease of reference, the FCA1threshold conditions in or under Schedule 6 to the Act have been quoted in full in COND 2. (1A) 1Paragraphs 2A and 3A of Schedule 6 of the Act have not been quoted. These set out the application of the FCAthreshold conditions to firms which do not carry on, or are not seeking to carry on, a PRAregulated activity and firms which carry on, or are seeking to carry on, a PRAregulated activity respectively. This application is summarised in COND
1Paragraph 1A of Schedule 6 to the Act(1) "assets" includes contingent assets;"consolidated supervision" has the same meaning as in section 3M(a);"consumer" has the meaning given by section 425A(b);"financial crime" is to be read with section 1H(3)(c);"functions", in relation to either the FCA or the PRA, means the functions conferred on that regulator by or under this Act;"liabilities" includes contingent liabilities; "relevant directives" has the same meaning as in section 3M;
Sections 292(3) and 292(4) state:
2Section 292(3) |
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The requirements are that- |
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(a) |
investors are afforded protection equivalent to that which they would be afforded if the body concerned were required to comply with -4 3 |
4(i) recognition requirements, other than any such requirements which are expressed in regulations under section 286 not to apply for the purposes of this paragraph; and |
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4(ii) requirements contained in any directly applicable Community regulation made under the markets in financial instruments directive or markets in financial instruments regulation; |
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(b) |
there are adequate procedures for dealing with a person who is unable, or likely to become unable, to meet his obligations in respect of one or more market contracts connected with the [ROIE] 3 |
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the applicant is able and willing to co-operate with the[FCA]3by the sharing of information and in other ways; and 3 |
(d) |
adequate arrangements exist for co-operation between the[FCA]3and those responsible for the supervision of the applicant in the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated. 3 |
Section 292(4) |
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In considering whether it is satisfied as to the requirements mentioned in subsections (3)(a) and (b), the[FCA]3is to have regard to- 3 |
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(a) |
the relevant law and practice of the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated; |
(b) |
the rules and practices of the applicant. |
Under section 33(2) of the Act (Withdrawal of authorisation), if the appropriate regulator cancels a firm'sPart 4A permission,1 and as a result there is no regulated activity for which the firm has permission, the regulator authorising that firm1 is required to give a direction withdrawing the firm's status as an authorised person.111
1If the FCA concludes that it should grant an FCA-authorised person's application for cancellation of permission and end its authorisation, the FCA will:(1) cancel the firm'sPart 4A permission under section 55H(3) of the Act;(2) withdraw the firm'sauthorised status under section 33(2) of the Act by giving the firm a direction in writing; and(3) update the firm's entry in the Financial Services Register to show it has ceased to be authorised.
2The FCA may apply to the court for an injunction if it appears that a person, whether authorised or not, is reasonably likely to breach a relevant requirement12, or engage in market abuse. It can also apply for an injunction if a person has breached one of those requirements or has engaged in market abuse and is likely to continue doing so. 12 Under section 380(6)(a) and (7)(a), a 'relevant requirement' in relation to an application by the appropriate regulator means a requirement:
2The FCA may consider taking disciplinary1 action using a range of powers1 as well as seeking restitution, if a person has breached a relevant requirement13 of the Act or any directly applicable Community regulation or decision under MiFID or the UCITS Directive or the auction regulation1, or has engaged in1market abuse. 13 Under section 204A(2), a 'relevant requirement' in relation to an application by the appropriate regulator means a requirement: which is imposed by or under
An ROIE1 is required to notify the FCA1 of certain events and give information to it on a regular basis and when certain specified events occur. Section 295 of the Act (Notification: overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses) requires each ROIE1 to provide the FCA1 with a report (at least once a year) which contains:111(1) a statement as to whether any events have occurred which are likely to affect the FCA's assessment of whether it is satisfied that the ROIE
The period covered by a report submitted under section 295(1) of the Act starts on the day after the period covered by its last report or, if there is no such report, after the making of the recognition order recognising theROIE1 as such, and ends on the date specified in the report or, if no date is specified, on the date of the report. 1
1Work done or commissioned by the firm does not fetter the FCA's ability to use its statutory powers, for example to require a skilled person’s report under section 166 of the Act or to carry out a formal enforcement investigation; nor can a report commissioned by the firm be a substitute for formal regulatory action where this is needed or appropriate. But even if formal action is needed, it may be that a report could be used to help the FCA decide on the appropriate action to
1The FCA is not able to require the production of “protected items”, as defined in the Act, but it is not uncommon for there to be disagreement with firms about the scope of this protection. Arguments about whether certain documents attract privilege tend to be time- consuming and delay the progress of an investigation. If a firm decides to give a report to the FCA, then the FCA considers that the greatest mutual benefit is most likely to flow from disclosure of the report itself
1This does not mean that information provided to the FCA is unprotected. The FCA is subject to strict statutory restrictions on the disclosure of confidential information (as defined in section 348 of the Act), breach of which is a criminal offence (under section 352 of the Act). Reports and underlying materials provided voluntarily to the FCA by a firm, whether covered by legal privilege or not, are confidential for these purposes and benefit from the statutory protections.
1Even in circumstances where disclosure of information would be permitted under the “gateways” set out in the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Disclosure of Confidential Information) Regulations, the FCA will consider carefully whether it would be appropriate to disclose a report provided voluntarily by a firm. The FCA appreciates that firms feel strongly about the importance of maintaining confidentiality, and that firms are more likely to volunteer information to the
1Under
section 312B of the Act, the FCA5 may
prohibit an EEA market operator from
making or, as the case may be, continuing arrangements in the United Kingdom, to facilitate access to,
or use of, a regulated market,6multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility6 operated by the operator if:5(1) the FCA5 has clear and demonstrable grounds for believing that the operator
has contravened a relevant requirement;6 and5(2) the FCA5 has first complied with sections 312B(3)
(1) In particular, this section sets out the FCA’s policies about varying conditional approvals at the request of a firm, as required by section 63ZD of the Act (Statement of policy relating to conditional approval and variation). (2) This section does not deal with the FCA’s policies on varying a condition on its own initiative. DEPP 8 deals with that.
Under section 61(5) of the Act (Determination of applications), as applied by section 63ZA(8) of the Act (Variation of senior manager’s approval at request of relevant authorised person), the firm may withdraw an application only if it also has the consent of:(1) the approved person; and(2) the person by whom the approved person is employed if this is not the firm making the application.
Under section 63ZB of the Act (Variation of senior manager's approval on initiative of regulator), the FCA may vary an approval given by the FCA or the PRA for the performance of a designated senior management function if the FCA considers that it is desirable to do so to advance one or more of its operational objectives.
The FCA9 is concerned to ensure that every actuary appointed by a firm under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,9 has the necessary skill and experience to provide the firm with appropriate actuarial advice from a conduct perspective9. SUP 4.3.9 R to SUP 4.3.10 G set out the FCA’s9 rules and guidance aimed at achieving this.11
Before a firm applies for approval of the person it proposes to appoint as an actuary under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 69, it must take reasonable steps to ensure that the actuary:11(1) has the required skill and experience to perform his functions under the regulatory system; and(2) is a Fellow of the Institute of Actuaries or of the Faculty of Actuaries.
A firm must not appoint under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act or for the purposes of9 rule 6.1 of the PRA9 Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business,9 an actuary who is disqualified by the FCA10 under section 345 of the Act (Disciplinary measures: FCA) or the PRA under section 345A of the Act (Disciplinary measures: PRA10) from acting as an actuary either for that firm or for a relevant class of firm. 1181010
If it appears to the FCA9 that an actuary1 has failed to comply with a duty imposed on him under the Act, it has9 the power to and10 may disqualify him under section 3459 of the Act. A list of actuaries who are disqualified may be found on the FCA10 website (http://www.fca.org.uk10).101011055110101010
1A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that an actuary who is to be, or has been, appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 69:8(1) does not perform the function of chairman or chief executive of the firm, or does not, if he is to perform the with-profits actuary function, become a member of the firm's governing body; and(2) does not perform any other function on behalf