Related provisions for SUP 8.3.13A
61 - 80 of 252 items.
(1) The rules and guidance in this sourcebook apply to recognised bodies and to applicants for recognition as RIEs under Part XVIII of the Act (Recognised Investment Exchanges and Clearing Houses) and (as RAPs) under the RAP regulations. 5(2) The recognition requirements and guidance in REC 2 relate primarily to UK RIEs which are recognised, or applying to be recognised, to operate a regulated market in the United Kingdom.5(3) While some recognition requirements in REC 2 apply
(1) UK RIEs4 are exempt persons under section 285 of the Act (Exemption for recognised investment exchanges and clearing houses).4(2) UK RIEs4 must satisfy recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury (in certain cases with the approval of the Secretary of State) in the Recognition Requirements Regulations. UK RIEs must also satisfy the MIFID/MiFIR requirements5.2RAPs must satisfy the recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury in the RAP regulations, under the
A UK firm17 or an AIFM exercising an EEA right to market an AIF under AIFMD13,9 cannot start providing cross border services into another EEA State under an EEA right unless it satisfies the conditions in paragraphs 20(1) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act and, if it derives its EEA right from17AIFMD, MiFID or the UCITS Directive,13paragraph 20(4B) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act. If a UK firm derives its EEA right from the MCD, it cannot start providing cross border services
In determining whether a firm has complied with:5(1) any provision in or under the Act such as any Principle or other rule; or5(2) any provision in Part 3 of the MCD Order; or5(3) any qualifying EU provision specified, or of a description specified, for the purpose of section 39(4) of the Act by the Treasury by order,5anything that an appointed representative has done or omitted to do as respects the business for which the firm has accepted responsibility will be treated as having
2A firm may provide information that would otherwise be subject to a contractual or other requirement to keep it in confidence if it is provided for the purposes of anything required to be done in respect of the skilled person's collection or updating of information under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act.
Firms are reminded that section 398 of the Act (Misleading the FCA or PRA:9 residual cases) makes it an offence for a firm knowingly or recklessly to provide the FCA3 with information which is false or misleading in a material particular in purported compliance with the FCA's3rules or any other requirement imposed by or under the Act. An offence by a body corporate, partnership or unincorporated association may be attributed to an officer or certain other persons (section 400
1Examples of circumstances in which the FCA will consider varying a firm'sPart 4A permission because it has serious concerns about a firm, or about the way its business is being or has been conducted include where: (1) in relation to the grounds for exercising the power under section 55J(1)(a) or section 55L(2)(a) of the Act, the firm appears to be failing, or appears likely to fail, to satisfy the threshold conditions relating to one or more, or all, of its regulated activities,
3Financial penalties, suspensions, restrictions, conditions, limitations, disciplinary prohibitions,2 and public censures are important regulatory tools. However, they are not the only tools available to the FCA, and there will be many instances of non-compliance which the FCA considers it appropriate to address without the use of formal disciplinary sanctions. Still1, the effective and proportionate use of the FCA's powers to enforce the requirements of the Act, the rules, COCON1
3The FCA has the following powers to impose sanctions2.(1) It may publish a statement: (a) against an approved person or conduct rules staff1 under section 66 of the Act;
(b) against an issuer under section 87M of the Act;
(c) against a sponsor under section 88A of the Act;
(ca) against a primary information provider under section 89Q of the Act;
(d) where there has been a contravention
A firm must ensure that its written contract with each of its appointed representatives:4(1) complies with the requirements prescribed in regulation 3 of the Appointed Representatives Regulations (see SUP 12.5.2 G);4(2) requires the appointed representative to comply, and to ensure that any persons who provide services to the appointed representative under a contract of services or a contract for service comply, with the relevant requirements in or under the Act (including the
SUP 14.6 (Cancelling qualification for authorisation), which sets out how to cancel qualification for authorisation under the Act, also applies to:(1) an incoming Treaty firm that qualifies for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act; and(2) a UCITS qualifier that is an authorised person under Schedule 5 to the Act; a UCITS qualifier should, however, refer to COLLG 3.1.11 G6 for full details of applicable rules and guidance.26
1The insurance client money chapter2 does not apply to an authorised professional firm with respect to its non-mainstream regulated activities, which are insurance mediation activities, if:2(1) the firm's designated professional body has made rules which implement article 4 of the Insurance Mediation Directive;33(2) those rules have been approved by the FCA under section 332(5) of the Act; and(3) the firm is subject to the rules in the form in which they were approved.
A firm must not communicate or approve a financial promotion which relates to qualifying credit provided by an overseas person, unless:(1) the financial promotion of qualifying credit makes clear which firm has approved or communicated it and, where relevant, explains:(a) that the rules made under the Act for the protection of customers do not apply;(b) the extent and level to which the compensation scheme will be available or, if the scheme will not be available, a statement
For the purposes of paragraph 13(2)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the applicable provisions may include the appropriate UK regulator's11rules. The EEA firm is required to comply with relevant rules when carrying on a passported activity through a branch in the United Kingdom as well as with relevant UK legislation.11
3The material in this guide does not form part of the FCAHandbook and is not guidance on rules, but it is 'general guidance' as defined in section 139B of the Act. If you have any doubt about a legal or other provision or your responsibilities under the Act or other relevant requirements, you should seek appropriate legal advice from your legal adviser.
(1) Guidance on what constitutes a branch is given in SUP App 3.18(2) (a) Where a UK MiFID investment firm is seeking to use a tied agent established in another EEA State in which a branch is already established, the tied agent will be assimilated into the branch.18(b) If a UK MiFID investment firm is seeking to use a tied agent established in another EEA State in which no branch is already established, the rules in SUP 13 will apply as if that firm were seeking to establish a
A UK firm17 cannot establish a branch in another EEA State for the first time under an EEA right unless the relevant13 conditions in paragraphs 19(2), (4) and (5)12 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act are satisfied. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to contravene this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). These conditions are that:913121213(1) the UKfirm has given the appropriate UK regulator,20 in accordance with the