Related provisions for SYSC 7.1.1

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CREDS 2.1.4GRP
The purposes of SYSC, which applies to all credit unions, are:(1) to encourage directors and senior managers to take appropriate practical responsibility for the arrangements that all firms must put in place on matters likely to be of interest to the FCA2 because they impinge on the FCA’s functions2 function under the Act;(2) to reinforce Principle 3, under which all firms must take reasonable care to organise and control their affairs responsibly and effectively with adequate
DTR 7.1.3RRP
An issuer must ensure that, as a minimum, the relevant body must:(1) monitor the financial reporting process and submit recommendations or proposals to ensure its integrity4;(2) monitor the effectiveness of the issuer’s internal quality control4 and risk management systems and, where applicable, its internal audit, regarding the financial reporting of the issuer, without breaching its independence4; (3) monitor the statutory audit of the annual and consolidated financial statements,
DISP App 3.7.8ERP
If a firm chooses to make this presumption, then it should do so fairly and for all relevant complainants in a relevant category of sale. It should not, for example, only use the approach for those complainants it views as being a lower underwriting risk or those complainants who have cancelled their policies.
SUP 7.3.2GRP
The FCA 5 may also5 seek to exercise its own-initiative powers in certain situations,5 including the following:55(1) If the FCA5 determines that a firm's management, business or internal controls give rise to material risks that are not fully addressed by existing requirements, the FCA5may seek to use its own-initiative powers.555(2) If a firm becomes or is to become involved with new products or selling practices which present risks not adequately addressed by existing requirements,
IPRU-INV 12.1.3GRP
Prudential standards have an important role in minimising the risk of harm to consumers by requiring a firm to behave prudently in monitoring and managing business and financial risks.
DISP 1.3.3BGRP
4The processes that a firm or CBTL firm7 should have in place in order to comply with DISP 1.3.3 R may include, taking into account the nature, scale and complexity of the firm's or CBTL firm’s7 business including, in particular, the number of complaints the firm or CBTL firm7receives:(1) the collection of management information on the causes of complaints and the products and services complaints relate to, including information about complaints that are resolved by the firm by
IPRU-INV 5 App 1.1GRP

1The following words or terms throughout IPRU-INV 5 appearing in bold (other than headings and titles) are to have the meanings given to them below if not inconsistent with the subject or context. If a defined term is italicised the definition appearing in the main Handbook Glossary applies.

Term

Meaning

accounting reference date

means:

(a)

the date to which a firm's accounts are prepared in order to comply with the relevant Companies Act legislation. In the case of a firm not subject to Companies Act legislation, the equivalent date selected by the firm; and

(b)

in the case of an OPS firm which is not subject to the relevant Companies Act legislation, the date to which the accounts of the OPS in respect of which the firm acts are prepared.

annual expenditure

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.5.1 (Determination).

category a body

means:

(a)

the government or central bank of a zone a country; or

(b)

EU or Euratom (the European Atomic Energy Community); or

(c)

the government or central bank of any other country, provided the receivable in question is denominated in that country's national currency.

category b body

means:

(a)

the European Investment Bank (EIB) or a multi-lateral development bank; or

(b)

the regional government or local authority of a zone a country; or

(c)

an investment firm or credit institution authorised in a zone a country; or

(d)

a recognised clearing house or exchange; or

(e)

an investment firm or credit institution authorised in any other country, which applies a financial supervision regime at least equivalent to the Capital Adequacy Directive.

counterparty

means any person with or for whom a firm carries on regulated business or an ancillary activity.

counterparty risk requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.11.1R (Counterparty risk requirement).

expenditure based requirement

means the requirement calculated in accordance with IPRU-INV 5.9.1R (Expenditure based requirement).

financial resources

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.2.3R (Financial resources).

financial resources requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.1R (Determination of requirement).

financial resources rules

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.2.

financial return

means quarterly financial return or monthly financial return as the case may be.

foreign exchange position

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.14.1R (Foreign exchange requirement).

investment

means a designated investment in the main Glossary.

investment business

means designated investment business in the main Glossary.

investment firm

has the meaning given to investment firm in the main Glossary except that it excludes persons to which MiFID does not apply as a result of articles 2 or 3 of MiFID.

Note: An investment firm is not necessarily a firm for the purposes of the rules.

investment manager

means a person who, acting only on behalf of a customer, either:

(a)

manages an account or portfolio in the exercise of discretion; or

(b)

has accepted responsibility on a continuing basis for advising on the composition of the account or portfolio.

liquid capital

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.3.1R (Calculation of own funds and liquid capital).

liquid capital requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.4R (Liquid capital requirement).

non-retail client

means a professional client or an eligible counterparty.

OPS or occupational pension scheme

means any scheme or arrangement which is comprised in one or more instruments or agreements and which has, or is capable of having, effect in relation to one or more descriptions or categories of employment so as to provide benefits, in the form of pensions or otherwise, payable on termination of service, or on death or retirement, to or respect of earners with qualifying service in an employment of any such description or category.

OPS firm

means:

(a)

a firm which:

(i)

carries on OPS activity but not with a view to profit; and

(ii)

is one or more of the following:

(A)

a trustee of the occupational pension scheme in question;

(B)

a company owned by the trustees of the occupational pension scheme in question;

(C)

a company which is:

(I)

an employer in relation to the occupational pension scheme in question in respect of its employees or former employees or their dependants; or

(II)

a company within the group which includes an employer within (I); or

(III)

an administering authority subject to the Local Government Superannuation Regulations 1986; or

(b)

a firm which:

(i)

has satisfied the requirements set out in (a) at any time during the past 12 months; but

(ii)

is no longer able to comply with those requirements because of a change in the control or ownership of the employer referred to in (a)(ii) during that period.

otc derivative

means interest rate and foreign exchange contracts covered by Annex III to the previous version of the Banking Consolidation Directive (i.e. Directive (2000/12/EC) and off balance sheet contracts based on equities which are not traded on a recognised or designated investment exchange or other exchange where they are subject to daily margin requirements, excluding any foreign exchange contract with an original maturity of 14 calendar days or less.

other assets requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.17.1R (Other assets requirement).

own funds

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.3.1R and IPRU-INV 5.3.2R, as applicable.

own funds requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.3R and IPRU-INV 5.4.4R (Own funds requirement), as applicable.

permitted business

means regulated activity which a firm has permission to carry on.

position risk requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.11.1R (Position risk requirement).

prescribed subordinated loan agreement

means the subordinated loan agreement prescribed by the appropriate regulator for the purposes of IPRU-INV 5.6.4R.

qualifying capital instrument

means that part of a firm's capital which is a security of indeterminate duration, or other instrument, that fulfils the following conditions:

(a)

it may not be reimbursed on the bearer's initiative or without the prior agreement of the appropriate regulator;

(b)

the debt agreement must provide for the firm to have the option of deferring the payment of interest on the debt;

(c)

the lender's claims on the firm must be wholly subordinated to those of all non-subordinated creditors;

(d)

the documents governing the issue of the securities must provide for debt and unpaid interest to be such as to absorb losses, whilst leaving the firm in a position to continue trading; and

(e)

only fully paid-up amounts shall be taken into account.

qualifying capital item

means that part of a firm's capital which has the following characteristics:

(a)

it is freely available to the firm to cover normal banking or other risks where revenue or capital losses have not yet been identified;

(b)

its existence is disclosed in internal accounting records; and

(c)

its amount is determined by the management of the firm and verified by independent auditors, and is made known to, and is monitored by, the FCA.

Note: Verification by internal auditors will suffice until such time as EU provisions making external auditing mandatory have been implemented.

qualifying property

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.7.1R (Qualifying property and qualifying amount defined).

qualifying subordinated loan

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.6 (Qualifying subordinated loans).

qualifying undertaking

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.7.3R (Qualifying undertakings).

readily realisable investment

means a unit in a regulated collective investment scheme, a life policy or any marketable investment other than one which is traded on or under the rules of a recognised or designated investment exchange so irregularly or infrequently:

(a)

that it cannot be certain that a price for that investment will be quoted at all times; or

(b)

that it may be difficult to effect transactions at any price which may be quoted.

regulated business

means designated investment business in the main Glossary.

relevant foreign exchange items

means:

(a)

all assets less liabilities, including accrued interest, denominated in the currency (all investments at market or realisable value);

(b)

any currency future, at the nominal value of the contract;

(c)

any forward contract for the purchase or sale of the currency, at the contract value, including any future exchange of principal associated with currency swaps;

(d)

any foreign currency options at the net delta (or delta-based) equivalent of the total book of such options;

(e)

any non-currency option, at market value;

(f)

any irrevocable guarantee;

(g)

any other off-balance sheet commitment to purchase or sell an asset denominated in that currency.

reporting currency

means the currency in which the firm's books of account are maintained.

specified trustee business

1.

means any investment business carried on in the UK by a trustee firm, but excluding each of the following activities:

(a)

Dealing or arranging deals in investments

(i)

where the deal is transacted or arranged by a trustee firm with or through a PTP; or

(ii)

where the dealing or arranging is done in the course of, or is incidental to, an activity of management falling within paragraph (b) below; or

(iii)

where the trust is a unit trust scheme and the deal is or the arrangements are made with a view to either an issue or sale of units in such a scheme to, or a redemption or repurchase or conversion of such units or a dealing in investments for such a scheme carried out by with or through, the operator or on the instructions of the operator; or

(iv)

where the trustee firm, being a bare trustee (or, in Scotland, a nominee) holding investments for another person, is acting on that person's instructions; or

(v)

where any arrangements do not or would not bring about the transaction in question.

(b)

Managing investments

(i)

where the trustee firm has no general authority to effect transactions in investments at discretion; or

(ii)

if and to the extent that all day-to-day decisions in relation to the management of the investments or any discrete part of the investments are or are to be taken by a PTP; or

(iii)

if and to the extent that investment decisions in relation to the investments or any discrete part of the investments are or are to be taken substantially in accordance with the advice given by a PTP; or

(iv)

where the trustee firm is a personal representative or executor and is acting in that capacity; or

(v)

where the trust is a unit trust scheme and all day-to-day investment decisions in the carrying on of that activity are or are to be taken by the operator of the scheme.

(c)

Investment advice

(i)

where the relevant advice:

(A)

does not recommend the entry into any investment transaction or the exercise of any right conferred by any investment to acquire, dispose of, underwrite or convert such an investment; and

(ii)

if and to the extent that the relevant advice is in substance the advice of a PTP; or

(iii)

where the relevant advice is given by the trustee firm acting in the capacity of personal representative or executor.

(d)

Establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme including acting as trustee of an authorised unit trust scheme but only to the extent that such activities do not otherwise constitute specified trustee business.

(e)

Any trustee activity undertaken as trustee of an issue of debentures or government or public securities:

(i)

where the issue is made by a company listed on a recognised investment exchange or on a designated investment exchange (or by a wholly-owned subsidiary of such a company); or

(ii)

where the issue is listed or traded either on a recognised investment exchange or on a designated investment exchange or on the Société de la Bourse de Luxembourg; or

(iii)

where the issue is made by a government, local authority or international organisation; or

(iv)

where the aggregate amounts issued (pursuant to the trust deed or any deed supplemental thereto and ignoring any amounts redeemed, repurchased or converted) exceed the sum of £10,000,000.

2.

For the purpose of this definition of "specified trustee business":

(a)

a transaction is entered into through a person if that person:

(i)

enters into it as agent; or

(ii)

arranges for it to be entered into as principal or agent by another person and the arrangements are such that they bring about the transaction in question;

(b)

investment transaction means a transaction to purchase, sell, subscribe for or underwrite a particular investment and "investment decision" means a decision relating to an investment transaction;

(c)

debentures means any securities falling within article 77 of the RAO;

(d)

government or public securities means any securities falling within article 78) of the RAO;

(e)

government, local authority or international organisation means:

(i)

the government of the United Kingdom, of Northern Ireland, or of any country or territory outside the United Kingdom;

(ii)

a local authority in the United Kingdom or Anywhere; or

(iii)

an international organisation the members of which include the United Kingdom or another EEA State.

(f)

in determining the size of an issue of debentures or government or public securities made in a currency other than sterling, the amount of the issue shall be converted into sterling at the exchange rate prevailing in London on the date of issue.

total capital requirement

has the meaning given in IPRU-INV 5.4.5R (Total capital requirement).

trading book

in relation to a firm's business or exposures, means:

(a)

its proprietary positions in financial instruments:

(i)

which are held for resale and/or are taken on by the firm with the intention of benefiting in the short term from actual and/or expected differences between their buying and selling prices or from other price or interest-rate variations;

(ii)

arising from matched principal broking;

(iii)

taken in order to hedge other elements of the trading book;

(b)

exposures due to unsettled securities transactions, free deliveries, OTC derivative instruments, repurchase agreements and securities lending transactions based on securities included in (a)(i) to (iii) above, reverse repurchase agreements and securities borrowing transactions based on securities included in (a)(i) to (iii) above; and

(c)

fees, commission, interest and dividends, and margin on exchange-traded derivatives which are directly related to the items included in (a) and (b) above.

trustee activity

means, in relation to a firm, any activity undertaken in the course of or incidental to the exercise of any of its powers, or the performance of any of its duties, when

unit trust manager

means the manager of a unit trust scheme.

zone b country

means a country which is not a Zone A country in the Glossary.
IFPRU 11.7.4RRP
A firm or qualifying parent undertaking must notify the FCA by sending an e-mail to its usual supervisory contact.
REC 2.6.27GRP
2The FCA5 may also have regard to the extent to which the UK recognised body's rules, procedures and the arrangements for monitoring and overseeing the use of its facilities:5(1) include appropriate measures to prevent the use of its facilities for abusive or improper purposes;(2) provide appropriate safeguards for investors against fraud or misconduct, recklessness, negligence or incompetence by users of its facilities;(3) provide appropriate information to enable users of its
COLL 8.4.8RRP
(1) An authorised fund manager must, as frequently as necessary to ensure compliance with COLL 8.4.7 R (2) and COLL 8.4.7 R (4), re-calculate the amount of cover required in respect of derivatives and forwards positions in existence under this chapter.(2) Derivatives and forwards positions may be retained in the scheme property only so long as they remain covered globally under COLL 8.4.7 R.(3) An authorised fund manager must use a risk management process enabling it to monitor
IFPRU 4.5.2GRP
The FCA would not expect a firm to treat an obligor as part of a single obligor under IFPRU 4.5.1 G if the firm rates its exposures on a standalone basis or if its rating is notched. (For these purposes, a rating is notched if it takes into account individual risk factors or otherwise reflects risk factors that are not applied on a common group basis.) Accordingly, if a group has two members which are separately rated, the FCA will not expect that the default of one will necessarily
BIPRU 7.4.40RRP
A firm must safeguard against other risks, apart from the delta risk, associated with commodity options.
CONC 3.9.3RRP
A firm must ensure that a financial promotion or a communication with a customer (to the extent a previous communication to the same customer has not included the following information) includes:(1) a statement of the services the firm offers;(2) a statement of any relationship with a business associate which is relevant to the services offered in the promotion; [Note: paragraph 2.5a of DMG](3) a statement setting out the level of fees charged for the firm's services, how they
SYSC 4.1.13GRP
7Firms should also consider the additional guidance on risk-centric governance arrangements for effective risk management contained in SYSC 21.
SUP 16.18.4EURP

Reporting to competent authorities

1.

In order to comply with the requirements of the second subparagraph of Article 24(1) and of point (d) of Article 3(3) of Directive 2011/61/EU, an AIFM shall provide the following information when reporting to competent authorities:

(a)

the main instruments in which it is trading, including a break-down of financial instruments and other assets, including the AIF's investment strategies and their geographical and sectoral investment focus;

(b)

the markets of which it is a member or where it actively trades;

(c)

the diversification of the AIF's portfolio, including, but not limited to, its principal exposures and most important concentrations.

The information shall be provided as soon as possible and not later than one month after the end of the period referred to in paragraph 3. Where the AIF is a fund of funds this period may be extended by the AIFM by 15 days.

2.

For each of the EU AIFs they manage and for each of the AIFs they market in the Union, AIFMs shall provide to the competent authorities of their home Member State the following information in accordance with Article 24(2) of Directive 2011/61/EU:

(a)

the percentage of the AIF's assets which are subject to special arrangements as defined in Article 1(5) of this Regulation arising from their illiquid nature as referred to in point (a) of Article 23(4) of Directive 2011/61/EU;

(b)

any new arrangements for managing the liquidity of the AIF;

(c)

the risk management systems employed by the AIFM to manage the market risk, liquidity risk, counterparty risk and other risks including operational risk;

(d)

the current risk profile of the AIF, including:

(i)

the market risk profile of the investments of the AIF, including the expected return and volatility of the AIF in normal market conditions;

(ii)

the liquidity profile of the investments of the AIF, including the liquidity profile of the AIF's assets, the profile of redemption terms and the terms of financing provided by counterparties to the AIF;

(e)

information on the main categories of assets in which the AIF invested including the corresponding short market value and long market value, the turnover and performance during the reporting period; and

(f)

the results of periodic stress tests, under normal and exceptional circumstances, performed in accordance with point (b) of Article 15(3) and the second subparagraph of Article 16(1) of Directive 2011/61/EU.

3.

The information referred to in paragraphs 1 and 2 shall be reported as follows:

(a)

on a half-yearly basis by AIFMs managing portfolios of AIFs whose assets under management calculated in accordance with Article 2 in total exceed the threshold of either EUR 100 million or EUR 500 million laid down in points (a) and (b) respectively of Article 3(2) of Directive 2011/61/EU but do not exceed EUR 1 billion, for each of the EU AIFs they manage and for each of the AIFs they market in the Union;

(b)

on a quarterly basis by AIFMs managing portfolios of AIFs whose assets under management calculated in accordance with Article 2 in total exceed EUR 1 billion, for each of the EU AIFs they manage, and for each of the AIFs they market in the Union;

(c)

on a quarterly basis by AIFMs which are subject to the requirements referred to in point (a) of this paragraph, for each AIF whose assets under management, including any assets acquired through use of leverage, in total exceed EUR 500 million, in respect of that AIF;

(d)

on an annual basis by AIFMs in respect of each unleveraged AIF under their management which, in accordance with its core investment policy, invests in non-listed companies and issuers in order to acquire control.

4.

By way of derogation from paragraph 3, the competent authority of the home Member State of the AIFM may deem it appropriate and necessary for the exercise of its function to require all or part of the information to be reported on a more frequent basis.

5.

AIFMs managing one or more AIFs which they have assessed to be employing leverage on a substantial basis in accordance with Article 111 of this Regulation shall provide the information required under Article 24(4) of Directive 2011/61/EU at the same time as that required under paragraph 2 of this Article.

6.

AIFMs shall provide the information specified under paragraphs 1, 2 and 5 in accordance with the pro-forma reporting template set out in the Annex IV.

7.

In accordance with point (a) of Article 42(1) of Directive 2011/61/EU, for non-EU AIFMs, any reference to the competent authorities of the home Member State shall mean the competent authority of the Member State of reference.

[Note: Article 110 of the AIFMD level 2 regulation]
CASS 6.1.23GRP
The rules in this chapter are designed primarily to restrict the commingling of client and the firm's assets and minimise the risk of the client'ssafe custody assets2 being used by the firm without the client's agreement or contrary to the client's wishes, or being treated as the firm's assets in the event of its insolvency.2
SUP 16.12.11RRP

The applicable data items referred to in SUP 16.12.4 R are set out according to firm type in the table below:

Description of data item

45Firms' prudential category and applicable data items(note 1)

IFPRU investment firms and BIPRU firms

Firmsother thanBIPRU firms or IFPRU investment firms

IFPRU

BIPRU

IPRU(INV)Chapter 3

IPRU(INV)Chapter 5

IPRU(INV)Chapter 9

IPRU(INV)Chapter 13

 38

Solvency statement

No standard format (note 11)

No standard format (note 20)

No standard format (note 11)

 38

Balance sheet

FSA001/FINREP (note 36)

FSA001 (Note 2)

FSA029 (note 18)

FSA029

FSA029

FSA029 (note 15) or Section A RMAR (note 15)

 38

Income statement

FSA00250/FINREP (note 36)

50

FSA002 (Note 2)

FSA030 (note 18)

FSA030

FSA030

FSA030 (note 15) or Section B RMAR (note 15)

 38

Capital adequacy

COREP (Note 36)

FSA003 (Note 2)

FSA033 (note 18)

FSA034 or FSA035 or FIN07152 (note 14)

FSA031

FSA032 (note 15) or Section D162 RMAR (note 15)

5050		 38

Supplementary capital data for collective portfolio management investment firms

FIN067 (Note 35)

FIN068 (Note 35)

Credit risk

COREP (Note 36)

FSA004 (Notes 2, 3)

Market risk

COREP (Note 36)

FSA005 (Notes 2, 4)

Market risk - supplementary

FSA006 (note 5)

FSA006 (Note 5)

Operational risk

COREP (Note 36)

Large exposures

COREP (Note 36)

Exposures between core UK group and non-core large exposures group

FSA018 (note 12)

Solo consolidation data

FSA016 (note 25)

FSA016 (Note 25)

Pillar 2 questionnaire

FSA019 (note 8)

FSA019 (Note 8)

Non-EEA sub-group

COREP (Note 36)

FSA028 (Note 9)

Threshold conditions

Section F RMAR (Note 15)

Client money and client assets

FSA039

FSA039

FSA039 (note 18)

FSA039

FSA039

Section C RMAR (Note 15) or FSA039

 38

CFTC

FSA040 (note 24)

FSA040 (Note 24)

FSA040 (note 24)

FSA040 (note 24)

FSA040 (note 24)

FSA040 (note 24)

 38

IRB portfolio risk

FSA045 (note 22)

FSA045 (Note 22)

Securitisation: non-trading book

COREP (Note 36)

FSA046 (Note 23)

Daily Flows

FSA047/COREP (Notes 26, 29 , 31, 33, and 36)

Enhanced Mismatch Report

FSA048/COREP (Notes 26, 29 , 31, 33, and 36)

Liquidity Buffer Qualifying Securities

FSA050/COREP (Notes 27, 30, 31, 33, and 36)

Funding Concentration

FSA051/COREP (Notes 27, 30, 31, 33, and 36)

Pricing data

FSA052/COREP (Notes 27, 31, 33, 34, and 36)

Retail and corporate funding

FSA053/COREP (Notes 27, 30, 31, 33, and 36)

Currency Analysis

FSA054/COREP (Notes 27, 30, 31, 33, and 36)

Systems and Controls Questionnaire

FSA055/COREP (Notes 28, 33, and 36)

FSA055 (Notes 28 and 33)

Securitisation: trading book

COREP (Note 36)

46Liquidity Questionnaire

MLA-M (Note 37)

MLA-M (Note 37)

MLA-M (Note 37)

MLA-M (Note 37)

MLA-M (Note 37)

MLA-M (Note 37)

MLA-M (Note 37)

Note 1

All firms, except IFPRU investment firms in relation to data items reported under the EU CRR, when submitting the completed data item required, a firm must use the format of the data item set out in SUP 16 Annex 24. Guidance notes for completion of the data items are contained in SUP 16 Annex 25.

Note 2

Firms that are members of a UK consolidation group are also required to submit this report on a UK consolidation group basis.

Note 3

This applies to a firm that is required to submit data item FSA003 and, at any time within the 12 months up to its latest accounting reference date ("the relevant period"), was reporting data item FSA004 ("Firm A") or not reporting this item ("Firm B").

In the case of Firm A it must report this data item if one or both of its last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold was exceeded.

In the case of Firm B it must report this item if both the last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold has been exceeded.

The threshold is exceeded where data element 77A in data item FSA003 is greater than £10 million, or its currency equivalent, at the relevant reporting date for the firm.

Note 4

This applies to a firm that is required to submit data item FSA003 and, at anytime within the 12 months up to its latest accounting reference date ("the relevant period"), was reporting data item FSA005 ("Firm A") or not reporting this item ("Firm B").

In the case of Firm A it must report this data item if one or both of its last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold was exceeded.

In the case of Firm B it must report this item if both the last two submissions in the relevant period show that the threshold has been exceeded.

The threshold is exceeded where data element 93A in data item FSA003 is greater than £50 million, or its currency equivalent, at the relevant reporting date for the firm.

Note 5

Only applicable to firms with a VaR model permission.

Note 6

[deleted]

Note 7

[deleted]

Note 8

Only applicable to IFPRU investment firms and BIPRU firms that:

(a) are subject to consolidated supervision under BIPRU 8, except those that are either included within the consolidated supervision of a group that includes a UK credit institution, or that have been granted an investment firm consolidation waiver; or

(b) have been granted an investment firm consolidation waiver; or80

(c) are not subject to consolidated supervision under BIPRU 8.

An IFPRU investment firm and a BIPRU firm under (a) must complete the report on the basis of its UK consolidation group. An IFPRU investment firm and a BIPRU firm under (b) or (c) must complete the report on the basis of its solo position.

Note 9

This will be applicable to firms that are members of a UK consolidation group on the reporting date.

Note 10

[deleted]55

55

Note 11

Only applicable to a firm that is a sole trader or a partnership, when the report must be submitted by each partner.

Note 12

This is only applicable to a firm that has both a core UK group and a non-core large exposures group.

Note 13

[deleted]55

5055

Note 14

FSA03474 must be completed by a firm not subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.4.2R74, unless it is a firm whose permitted business includes establishing, operating or winding up a personal pension scheme, in which case FIN071 must be completed76.

FSA035 must be completed by a firm subject to the exemption in IPRU(INV) 5.4.2R7476.

7452

Note 15

FSA029, FSA030, FSA032 and FSA039 only apply to a firm subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13 which is an exempt CAD firm. Sections A, B, C, D1,62 D280 and F RMAR only apply to a firm subject to IPRU(INV) Chapter 13 which is not an exempt CAD firm.

505050

Note 16

[deleted]

Note 17

An exempt BIPRU commodity firm will, by virtue of the definition of BIPRU TP 15, be exempt from completing FSA003 (and thus FSA004, FSA005, FSA006 and FSA007) for the duration of the transitional provision. It is however required to submit all other data items applicable according to the firm's BIPRU classification including, for the avoidance of doubt, BIPRU TP 16.

Note 18

Except if the firm is an adviser77 (as referred to in IPRU(INV) 3-60(4)R.

Note 19

[deleted]55

55

Note 20

Only required in the case of an adviser77 (as referred to in IPRU(INV) 3-60(4)R) that is a sole trader.

Note 21

[deleted]

Note 22

Only applicable to firms that have an IRB permission.

Note 23

Only applicable to firms that hold securitisation positions, or are the originator or sponsor of securitisations80 of non-trading book exposures.

Note 24

Only applicable to firms granted a Part 30 exemption order and operating an arrangement to cover forward profits on the London Metals Exchange.

Note 25

Only applicable to a firm that has a solo consolidation waiver.

Note 26

A firm must complete this item separately on each of the following bases (if applicable).

(1) It must complete it on a solo basis. Therefore even if it has a solo consolidation waiver it must complete the item on an unconsolidated basis by reference to the firm alone.

(2) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a DLG by default and is a UKlead regulated firm, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

(3) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UKDLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

(4) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a non-UK DLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

Note 27

A firm must complete this item separately on each of the following bases that are applicable.

(1) It must complete it on a solo basis unless it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UKDLG by modification. Therefore even if it has a solo consolidation waiver it must complete the item on an unconsolidated basis by reference to the firm alone.

(2) If it is a group liquidity reporting firm in a UKDLG by modification, it must complete the item on the basis of that group.

Note 28

If it is a non-ILAS BIPRU firm, it must complete it on a solo basis. Therefore even if it has a solo consolidation waiver it must complete the item on an unconsolidated basis by reference to the firm alone.

Note 29

(1) This item must be reported in the reporting currency.

(2) If any data element is in a currency or currencies other than the reporting currency, all currencies (including the reporting currency) must be combined into a figure in the reporting currency.

(3) In addition, all material currencies (which may include the reporting currency) must each be recorded separately (translated into the reporting currency). However if:

(a) the reporting frequency is (whether under a rule or under a waiver) quarterly or less than quarterly; or

(b) the only material currency is the reporting currency;

(3) does not apply.

(4) If there are more than three material currencies for this data item, (3) only applies to the three largest in amount. A firm must identify the largest in amount in accordance with the following procedure.

(a) For each currency, take the largest of the asset or liability figure as referred to in the definition of material currency.

(b) Take the three largest figures from the resulting list of amounts.

(5) The date as at which the calculations for the purposes of the definition of material currency are carried out is the last day of the reporting period in question.

(6) The reporting currency for this data item is whichever of the following currencies the firm chooses, namely USD (the United States Dollar), EUR (the euro), GBP (sterling), JPY (the Japanese Yen), CHF (the Swiss Franc), CAD (the Canadian Dollar) or SEK (the Swedish Krona).

Note 30

Note 29 applies, except that paragraphs (3), (4) and (5) do not apply, meaning that material currencies must not be recorded separately.

Note 31

Any changes to reporting requirements caused by a firm receiving an intra-group liquidity modification (or a variation to one) do not take effect until the first day of the next reporting period applicable under the changed reporting requirements for the data item in question if the firm receives that intra-group liquidity modification or variation part of the way through such a period. If the change is that the firm does not have to report a particular data item or does not have to report it at a particular reporting level, the firm must nevertheless report that item or at that reporting level for any reporting period that has already begun. This paragraph is subject to anything that the intra-group liquidity modification says to the contrary.15

Note 32

Only applicable to firms that hold securitisation positions in the trading book and/or are the originator or sponsor of securitisations held in the trading book.

Note 33

FSA047, FSA048, FSA050, FSA051, FSA052, FSA053 and FSA054 must be completed by an ILAS BIPRU firm. An ILAS BIPRU firm does not need to complete FSA055. A non-ILAS BIPRU firm must complete FSA055 and does not need to complete FSA047, FSA048, FSA050, FSA051, FSA052, FSA053 and FSA054.

Note 34

This data item must be reported only in the currencies named in FSA052, so that liabilities in GBP are reported in GBP in rows 1 to 4, those in USD are reported in USD in rows 5 to 8, and those in Euro are reported in Euro in rows 9 to 12. Liabilities in other currencies are not to be reported.

Note 35

Only applicable to firms that are collective portfolio management investment firms.

Note 36

Requirements under COREP and FINREP should be determined with reference to the EU CRR and applicable technical standards.

46Note 37

Only applicable to RAG 3 firms carrying on home financing or home finance administration connected to regulated mortgage contracts, unless as at 26 April 2014 its Part 4A permission was and continues to remain subject to a restriction preventing it from undertaking new home financing or home finance administration connected to regulated mortgage contracts.
DEPP 6.2.9-EGRP
9When determining under section 66A(5)(d) of the Act whether or not an SMF manager has taken such steps as a person in their position could reasonably be expected to take to avoid the contravention of a relevant requirement by the firm occurring (or continuing), additional considerations to which the FCA would expect to have regard include, but are not limited to:(1) the role and responsibilities of the SMF manager (for example, such steps as an SMF manager in a non-executive