Related provisions for INSPRU 1.5.4

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REC 1.2.1GRP
The purpose of the guidance (other than in REC 6A) 2in this sourcebook is to give information on the recognised body requirements.3 The purpose of the guidance3 in REC 6A is to give EEA market operators information about their passporting rights in the United Kingdom2. Explanations of the purposes of the rules in this sourcebook are given in the chapters concerned.2233
SYSC 14.1.2RRP
This section applies to:(1) an EEA-deposit insurer; and(2) a Swiss general insurer;only in respect of the activities of the firm carried on from a branch in the United Kingdom.
BIPRU 12.3.9GRP
As part of the SLRP, the appropriate regulator will assess the appropriateness of the liquidity risk tolerance adopted by an ILAS BIPRU firm to ensure that this risk tolerance is consistent with maintenance by the firm of adequate liquidity resources for the purpose of the overall liquidity adequacy rule. The appropriate regulator will expect a firm to provide it with an adequately reasoned explanation for the level of liquidity risk which that firm'sgoverning body has decided
SYSC 19D.1.1RRP
(1) The dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code applies to:(a) a building society;(b) a UK bank2;(c) a UK designated investment firm;(d) an overseas firm that;(i) is not an EEAfirm;(ii) has its head office outside the EEA; and(iii) would be a firm in (a), (b) or (c) if it had been a UK domestic firm, had carried on all of its business in the United Kingdom and had obtained whatever authorisations for doing so as are required under the Act.(2) For a firm which falls under (1)(a),
EG 9.3.5RP
2The following are examples of types of behaviour which have previously resulted in FCA the deciding to issue a prohibition order or withdraw the approval of an approved person:(1) Providing false or misleading information to the FCA; including information relating to identity, ability to work in the United Kingdom, and business arrangements; (2) Failure to disclose material considerations on application forms, such as details of County
SUP 10C.9.9GRP

Table: Examples of how the need for dual FCA and PRA approval in relation to PRA-authorised persons is reduced

1Example

Whether FCA approval required

Whether PRA approval required

Comments

(1) A is appointed as chief risk officer and an executive director.

No. He is not treated as performing the executive director function.

Yes

Chief risk officer is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA-designated senior management function. To avoid the need for FCA approval, A’s appointment as director should not take effect before PRA approval for the chief risk officer role.

(2) Same as example (1), except that A will take up the role as an executive director slightly later because the approval is needed from the firm's shareholders or governing body.

No

Yes

The answer for (1) applies. The arrangements in this section apply if the application to the PRA says that A will start to perform the potential FCA governing function around the time of the PRA approval as well as at that time.

(3) Same as example (1) but the application to the PRA does not mention that it is also intended that A is to be an executive director.

Yes, to perform the executive director function.

Yes

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply if the application for PRA approval does not say that A will also be performing what would otherwise be an FCA governing function.

(4) A is to be appointed as chief executive and an executive director.

No. A is not treated as performing the executive director function.

Yes

Being a chief executive is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function.

(5) A is appointed as chief risk officer. Later, A is appointed as an executive director while carrying on as chief risk officer.

Yes, when A takes up the director role. The executive director function applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because, when the firm applied for approval for A to perform the PRA chief risk officer designated senior management function, there was no plan for A also to perform the executive director function.

(6) A is appointed as an executive director. Later, A takes on the chief risk officer function and remains as an executive director.

Yes, when A is appointed as director. The executive director function applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

When A is appointed as chief risk officer, A is still treated as carrying on the executive director function. A retains the status of an FCA-approved person.

(7) A is appointed as chief risk officer. A then stops performing that role and for a while does not perform any controlled function for that firm. Later, A is appointed as an executive director with the same firm.

Yes, when A is appointed as an executive director. The executive director function applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because there is no current PRA approval when A is being appointed as a director.

(8) A is appointed as an executive director and chief risk officer at the same time. Later, A gives up the role as chief risk officer but remains as an executive director.

No, on A’s first appointment (see example (1)). But when A gives up the role as chief risk officer, FCA approval is needed to perform the executive director function.

Form E should be used. The application should state that it is being made as a result of A ceasing to perform a PRA-designated senior management function.

Form A should be used if there have been changes in A’s fitness (SUP 10C.10.9D(4))

Yes, on A’s first appointment.

When A stops being a chief risk officer, A stops performing a PRA-designated senior management function. However, being an executive director requires FCA approval. A does not have that approval because A did not need it when A was first appointed.

The combined effect of SUP 10C.9.8R and the relevant PRA rules is that the firm has three months to secure approval by the FCA. During that interim period, A keeps the status of a PRA approved person performing the director element of the PRA chief risk designated senior management function - which is included in that function under relevant PRA rules. The relevant PRA rules say that, during this transitional period, A is still treated as performing the PRA chief risk designated senior management function and SUP 10C.9.8R says that, for as long as A is performing a PRA-designated senior management function, A does not perform the executive director function.

(9) A is appointed as the chief finance officer and an executive director at the same time. Later, A switches to being chief risk officer while remaining as an executive director.

No

Yes

The arrangements in SUP 10C.9.8R continue to apply, even though A switches between PRA-designated senior management function after the PRA's first approval.

(10) A is appointed chief risk officer and an executive director. A goes on temporary sick leave. A takes up his old job when he comes back.

No, neither on A’s first appointment nor when A comes back from sick leave.

Yes

SUP 10C.9.8R still applies on A’s return because A does not stop performing either the PRA's chief risk function or what would otherwise have been the executive director function just because A goes on temporary sick leave.

(11) A is appointed to be chairman of the governing body and chairman of the nomination committee at the same time.

No. A does not need approval to perform the chair of the nomination committee function.

Yes, on first appointment.

Being chairman of the governing body is a PRA-designated senior management function. Therefore, the answer for example (1) applies.

2(12) ‘A’ is to be appointed to perform the Head of Overseas Branch PRA-designated senior management function (SMF19) for a third-country relevant authorised person. A is also an executive director of that firm’sUKbranch.

No. A is not treated as performing the executive3director function.

Yes

A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function.

Note: The relevant PRA rules can be found in Chapter 2 of the part of the PRA rulebook called ‘Senior Management Functions’

FEES 6.7.6RRP
If a firm ceases to be a participant firm or carry out activities within one or more classes54 part way through a financial year6 of the compensation scheme:44(1) it will remain liable for any unpaid levies which the FSCS has already made on the firm; and41(2) the FSCS may make one or more levies4 upon it (which may be before or after the firm5 has ceased to be a participant firm or carry out activities within one or more classes5,4 but must be before it ceases to be an authorised
SYSC 4.9.1RRP
(1) This section applies to UK relevant authorised persons and to third-country relevant authorised persons.2(2) For third-country relevant authorised persons, references in this section to an SMF manager are references to the SMF manager when acting as an SMF manager for the firm’sbranch in the United Kingdom.2
COND 2.7.1UKRP
(1) 1A’s business model (that is, A’s strategy for doing business) must be suitable for a person carrying on the regulated activities that A carries on or seeks to carry on.(2) The matters which are relevant in determining whether A satisfies the condition in sub-paragraph (1) include-(a) whether the business model is compatible with A’s affairs being conducted, and continuing to be conducted, in a sound and prudent manner;(b) the interests of consumers;(c) the integrity of the
SUP 16.13.2GRP
The purpose of this section is to: 3(1) give directions to authorised payment institutions, small payment institutions and registered account information service providers under regulation 109(1) (Reporting requirements) of the Payment Services Regulations in relation to:31212(a) the information in respect of their provision of payment services and their compliance with requirements imposed by or under Parts 2 to 7 of the Payment Services Regulations that they must provide to
TC 2.1.1RRP
(1) 13A firm must not assess an employee as competent to carry on an activity in TC Appendix 1 until the employee has demonstrated the necessary competence to do so and has (if required by TC Appendix 1) attained 16each module of an appropriate qualification16. This assessment need not take place before the employee starts to carry on the activity.14161613(2) A firm may assess an employee who is subject to, but has not satisfied, an appropriate qualification16requirement as competent
PERG 8.7.2GRP
Controlled activity and controlled investment are defined in Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order and are listed in PERG 8.36.3 G and PERG 8.36.4 G. Broadly speaking, controlled activities and controlled investments are similar to regulated activities and specified investments under the Regulated Activities Order. However, with controlled activities, the exclusions set out in the Regulated Activities Order do not, in most cases, apply. It is important to note, however,
A subordinated loan/debt must not form part of the financial resources1 of the firm unless it meets the following conditions: (1) it has an original maturity of: (a) at least five years; or (b) it is subject to five years’ notice of repayment; (2) the claims of the subordinated creditors must rank behind those of all unsubordinated creditors; (3) the only events of default must be non-payment of any interest or principal under the debt agreement
PRIN 1.1.6GRP
As set out in PRIN 3.3 (Where?), Principles 1 (Integrity), 2 (Skill, care and diligence) and 3 (Management and control) apply to world-wide activities in a prudential context. Principle 5 (Market conduct) applies to world-wide activities which might have a negative effect on confidence in the UK financial system8. In considering whether to take regulatory action under these Principles in relation to activities carried on outside the United Kingdom, the FCA11 will take into account
PR 5.3.1UKRP

Sections 87H and 87I of the Act provide:

Prospectus approved in another EEA State

87H

(1)

A prospectus approved by the competent authority of an EEA State other than the United Kingdom is not an approved prospectus for the purposes of section 85 unless that authority has notified ESMA and provided the competent authority with -3

(a)

a certificate of approval;

(b)

a copy of the prospectus as approved; and

(c)

if requested by the [FCA], a translation of the summary of the prospectus.

(2)

A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states that the prospectus -

(a)

has been drawn up in accordance with the prospectus directive; and

(b)

has been approved, in accordance with that directive, by the competent authority providing the certificate.

(3)

A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states whether (and, if so, why) the competent authority providing it authorised, in accordance with the prospectus directive, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included.

3(3A)

The competent authority must publish on its website a list of certificates of approval provided to it in accordance with this section.

3(3B)

The list referred to in subsection (3A) must -

(a)

be kept up-to-date;

(b)

retain items on it for a period of at least 12 months; and

(c)

include hyperlinks to any certificate of approval and prospectus published on the website of -

(i)

the competent authority of the EEA State which provided the certificate;

(ii)

the issuer; or

(iii)

the regulated market where admission to trading is sought.

(4)

"Prospectus" includes a supplementary prospectus.

Provision of information to host Member State

87I

(1)

The [FCA] must, if requested to do so, supply the competent authority of a specified EEA State with –

(a)

a certificate of approval;

(b)

a copy of the specified prospectus (as approved by the [FCA]); and

(c)

a translation of the summary of the specified prospectus (if the request states that one has been requested by the other competent authority).2

(1A)2

If the competent authority supplies a certificate of approval to the competent authority of the specified EEA State, it must also supply a copy of that certificate to -

(a)

the person who made the request under this section; and

(b)

ESMA.

(2)

Only the following may make a request under this section –

(a)

the issuer of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates;

(b)

a person who wishes to offer the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to the public in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom;

(c)

a person requesting the admission of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to a regulated market situated or operating in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom.

(3)

A certificate of approval must state that the prospectus –

(a)

has been drawn up in accordance with this Part and the prospectus directive; and

(b)

has been approved, in accordance with those provisions, by the [FCA].

(4)

A certificate of approval must state whether (and, if so, why) the [FCA] authorised, in accordance with section 87B, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included.

(5)

The [FCA] must comply with a request under this section –

(a)

if the prospectus has been approved before the request is made, within 3 working days beginning with the date the request is received2; or

2

(b)

if the request is submitted with an application for the approval of the prospectus, on the first working day after the date on which it approves the prospectus.

(6)

“Prospectus” includes a supplementary prospectus.

(7)

“Specified” means specified in a request made for the purposes of this section.

RCB 1.1.7GRP
An insurer (which is not a UKSolvency II firm,4non-directive friendly society, incoming EEA firm or an incoming Treaty firm) may benefit from increased counterparty limits under INSPRU 2.1.22R (3)(b). An insurer which is a UKSolvency II firm is subject to the rules in the PRA Rulebook which transpose the Solvency II Directive and also to Solvency II Regulation (EU) 2015/35 of 10 October 2014.4
CONC 5.2.1RRP
(1) Before making a regulated credit agreement the firm must undertake an assessment of the creditworthiness of the customer.[Note: section 55B(1) of CCA](2) A firm carrying out the assessment required in (1) must consider: (a) the potential for the commitments under the regulated credit agreement to adversely impact the customer's financial situation, taking into account the information of which the firm is aware at the time the regulated credit agreement is to be made; and [Note:
GEN 1.2.2ARRP
(1) 4Unless required to do so under the regulatory system, a firm must ensure that neither it nor anyone acting on its behalf claims, in a public statement or to a client, expressly or by implication, that its affairs, or any aspect of them, have the approval or endorsement of the FCA6 or another competent authority.(1A) 7Paragraph (1) does not apply to a firm to the extent that it is incompatible with the United Kingdom’s obligations under article 44(8) of the MiFID Org Regulation.
EG 19.27.1RP
2The AIFMD UK regulation transposes AIFMD1 and makes the necessary changes to UK legislation in relation to the EuSEF regulation, the EuVECA regulation, the ELTIF regulation and the Money Market Funds regulation3. It1 provides new and updated powers in relation1 to both existing and new managers of AIFs, whether authorised or registered.