Related provisions for GENPRU 1.1.2B

SUP 13A.4.4AG01/04/2013

(1) 11Where the PRA receives a consent notice, it will give a copy to the FCA without delay, and where the FCA receives a consent notice it will give a copy to the PRA, where relevant, without delay.(2) In a case where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, the consent of the PRA is required for any notification by the FCA which relates to:(a) a PRA-regulated activity;(b) a PRA-authorised person; or(c) a person whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.

FEES 2.1.9AG01/03/2016

18PRA-authorised persons and persons seeking to become PRA-authorised persons should note that the FCA and the PRA have agreed for the FCA to act as the PRA's collection 12agent for 12PRA fees. Where applicable, both PRA and FCA fees should be paid as a single payment to the FCA, which will receive the payment in its own capacity in respect of FCA fees and in its capacity as collection 12agent for the PRA in respect of the PRA fees. References to this arrangement will be referred

EG 1.1.203/07/2016

3In the areas set out below, the Act expressly requires the FCA to prepare and publish statements of policy or procedure on the exercise of its enforcement and investigation powers and in relation to the giving of statutory notices. (1) section 63C requires the FCA to publish a statement of its policy on the imposition, and amount, of financial penalties on persons that perform a controlled function without approval; (1-A) 1section 63ZD requires the FCA, among other things, to

CONC 3.3.6G01/04/2014

If a communication or a financial promotion names the FCA, PRA or both as the regulator of a firm and refers to matters not regulated by the FCA, PRA or both, the firm should ensure that the communication or financial promotion makes clear that those matters are not regulated by the FCA, PRA or both.

BIPRU 9.11.2R01/04/2013

Table:

This table belongs to BIPRU 9.11.1 R

2

Credit Quality step

1

2

3

4 (only for credit assessments other than short-term credit assessments)2

All other credit quality steps2

2

Securitisation positions 2

2

20%

50%

100%

350%

1250%2

2 Resecuritisation positions

40%

100%

225%

650%

1250%

[Note: For mapping of the credit quality step to the credit assessments of eligible ECAIs, refer to: http://www.fca.org.uk/your-fca/documents/fsa-ecais-securitisation for the FCA and http://www.bankofengland.co.uk/pra/Documents/publications/ss/2013/ss913.pdf for the PRA]

[Note: BCD, Annex IX, Part 4, point 6, Table 1]2

SUP 10C.7.3G07/03/2016

Table: Examples of how the other overall responsibility function applies

1Example	Comments
(1) ‘A’ is appointed to perform the executive director function and to perform a potential other overall responsibility function for the same firm.	A only needs approval to perform the executive director function.
(2) ‘A’ is approved to perform the other overall responsibility function. Later, A is appointed to perform the executive director function for the same firm.	A requires approval for the other overall responsibility function when A is first appointed. When A is later approved to perform the executive director function, A stops performing the other overall responsibility function. The firm should use Form E to apply for approval for A to perform the executive director function.
(3) ‘A’ is appointed to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function and to perform a potential other overall responsibility function for the same firm.	A only needs approval to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. It does not make any difference whether the potential other overall responsibility function that A performs is connected to the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function.
(4) ‘A’ is approved to perform the other overall responsibility function. Later, A is appointed to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function for the same firm.	A requires approval for the other overall responsibility function when A is first appointed. When A is later approved to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function, A stops performing the other overall responsibility function.
(5) ‘A’ is appointed to perform: (a) the compliance oversight function for one firm (Firm X) in a group (which may or may not be a relevant authorised person); and (b) a function coming within the scope of the other overall responsibility function for another firm (which is a relevant authorised person) in the same group (Firm Y).	A needs approval to perform the compliance oversight function for Firm X and the other overall responsibility function for Firm Y.
(6) ‘A’ is appointed to be head of sales and to report directly to the firm's governing body about this. This function also comes within the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function.	A only needs approval to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function.
(7) ‘A’ is appointed to take on some functions that come within the other overall responsibility function. Later, A is appointed as chief risk officer.	On A’s first appointment, A will need to be approved to perform the other overall responsibility function. On being appointed as chief risk officer, the answer for example (4) applies because being chief risk officer is a PRA-designated senior management function. A will stop performing the other overall responsibility function.
(8) ‘A’ is appointed to a role that comes within the other overall responsibility function. Later, the firm reorganises and A’s role comes within the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. A’s role does not otherwise change.	The answer for example (7) applies.
(9) ‘A’ is appointed to a role that comes within the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. It is also a potential other overall responsibility function. Later, the firm reorganises—A’s role stays the same but now it falls outside the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function.	On A’s first appointment, A only needs approval to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. Following the reorganisation, the firm has three months to get approval for A to perform the other overall responsibility function. This three-month period applies because the relevant PRA rules keep the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function in place, which means that the other overall responsibility function does not apply during that period. The relevant PRA rules can be found in Chapter 2 of the part of the PRA rulebook titled ‘Senior Management Functions’.
(10) ‘A’ is appointed to a role that comes within the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. A also performs a potential other overall responsibility function. A gives up the PRA role but carries on with the potential other overall responsibility function.	The answer to example (9) applies.
(11) ‘A’ is appointed as an executive director. A then resigns and takes up a job with the same firm coming within the other overall responsibility function.	On A’s first appointment, A will need to be approved to perform the executive director function. A will need to get approval to perform the other overall responsibility function before A gives up being a director.
Note (1): A potential other overall responsibility function means a function that would have come within the other overall responsibility function but is excluded by SUP 10C.7.1R(2).
Note (2): A potential other overall responsibility function should be recorded in A’s statement of responsibilities and in the firm's management responsibilities map.

SUP 3.1.2R03/01/2018

Applicable sections (see SUP 3.1.1 R)

This table and the provisions in SUP 3 should be read in conjunction with GEN 2.2.23 R to GEN 2.2.25 G. In particular, the PRA does not apply any of the provisions in SUP 3 in respect of FCA-authorised persons. SUP 3.10 and SUP 3.11 are applied by the FCA only.41

(1) Category of firm		(2) Sections applicable to the firm	(3) Sections applicable to its auditor
(1)	Authorised professional firm which is required by IPRU(INV) 2.1.2R to comply with chapters 3, 519 or 13 of IPRU(INV) and which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act 9 (Notes 1 and 6)23 23 19 23 23	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19
(2)	Authorised professional firm not within (1) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies22 17 22 23	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.11	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10
(3)	Authorised professional firm not within (1) or (2) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8
(4)	Bank, building society or dormant account fund operator 21which in each case carries on designated investment business 21(Notes 2A and 6)23 23	SUP 3.1-SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10
(5)	Bank, building society or a dormant account fund operator which in each case does not carry on designated investment business 21 (Note 2A) 21	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8
(5A)	Credit union	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.824
27(5B)30	CASS debt management firm unless subject to a requirement imposed under section 55L of the Act stating that it must not hold client money or such a requirement to the same effect30	SUP 3.1 SUP 3.10 SUP 3.11	SUP 3.1 SUP 3.10
33(5C)	CASS 7 loan-based crowdfunding firm	SUP 3.1-3.7, SUP 3.11	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10
(6)	Insurer, the Society of Lloyd's, underwriting agent or members' adviser, UK ISPV 11 (Note 5)7	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8
(7)	Investment management firm, (other than an exempt CAD firm),16 personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm) 15,28 securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm 20)15 or collective portfolio management firm that is an external AIFM 28 which, in each case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act 9(Notes 3 and 623)17 23 9 28 17 23	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19
9(7A)	Investment management firm (other than an exempt CAD firm)20, personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm 15),28 securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm 15 or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm 20) or collective portfolio management firm that is an external AIFM 28 not within (7) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies22 23 28 17 22	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.1025
32 25
9(7B)	Collective portfolio management firm that is a 28 UCITS firm 13or an internally managed AIF 28 (Note 6)23 13	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10 19
13(7C)	UK MiFID investment firm, which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act (Notes 3B and 6)23 20 20 23	SUP 3.1 - 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.1014
17(7D)	Sole trader or partnership that is a UK 20 MiFID investment firm (other than an exempt CAD firm) (Notes 3C and 6)23 20 20 23	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10
(8)	Small personal investment firm or service company which, in either case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8
(9)8	Home finance provider 10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act 9 10	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88
(10)8	Insurance intermediary (other than an exempt insurance intermediary) to which the insurance client money chapter 17 (except for CASS 5.2 (Holding money as agent)) applies (see Note 4)8 17	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78, SUP 3.1123	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.108
(11)8	Exempt insurance intermediary and insurance intermediary not subject to SUP 3.1.2 R(10) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88
(12)8	Home finance intermediary 10 or home finance administrator 10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act. 10 10	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88
Note 1 = This chapter applies to an authorised professional firm in row (1) (and its auditor) as if the firm were of the relevant type in the right-hand column of IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R.
Note 2 [deleted]23 17 17 23
Note 2A = For this purpose, designated investment business does not include either or both: (a) dealing which falls within the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc) (or agreeing to do so); and (b) dealing in investments as principal (or agreeing to do so): (i) by a firm whose permission to deal in investments as principal is subject to a limitation to the effect that the firm, in carrying on this regulated activity, is limited to entering into transactions in a manner which, if the firm was an unauthorised person, would come within article 16 of the Regulated Activities Order (Dealing in contractually based investments); and (ii) in a manner which comes within that limitation; having regard to article 4(4) of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified activities: general23). 18
Note 3 = This note applies in relation to an oil market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply and in relation to an energy market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply. In SUP 3: (a) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.7 are applicable to such a firm; and (b) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 are applicable to its auditor; and, in each case, only if it has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.
17Note 3A [deleted]23 23
20Note 3B = UK MiFID investment firms include exempt CAD firms. An exempt CAD firm that has opted into MiFID can benefit from the audit exemption for small companies in the Companies Act legislation if it meets is an exempt investment firm as defined by article 8 of the MiFI Regulations.31 If a firm does so benefit then SUP 3 will not apply to it. For further details about exempt CAD firms, see PERG 13, Q58.
17Note 3C20 = A sole trader or a partnership that is a UK MiFID investment firm 20 to which the custody chapter 22 or client money chapter applies22 20 must have its annual accounts audited. 20 20 22 22
Note 4 = The client money audit requirement in SUP 3.1.2 R(10) therefore applies to all insurance intermediaries except:8 • those which do not hold client money or other client assets in relation to insurance mediation activities; or 8 • those which only hold up to, but not exceeding, £30,000 of client money under a statutory trust arising under CASS 5.3.8 Insurance intermediaries which, in relation to insurance mediation activities, hold no more than that amount of client money only on a statutory trust are exempt insurance intermediaries.8
Note (5) = In row (6):7
(a)7	SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7 applies to a managing agent in respect of its own business and in respect of the insurance business of each syndicate which it manages; and7
(b)7	SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 apply to the auditors of a managing agent and the auditors of the insurance business of each syndicate which the managing agent manages.1 2 3 4 5 6 7
23Note 6 = Where SUP 3.11 applies to a firm, and SUP 3.10 applies to the auditor of that firm, those sections apply whether or not that firm's permission prevents it from holding client money or custody assets and whether or not it holds client money or custody assets.A collective portfolio management firm that is an internally managed AIF is required to appoint an auditor under FUND 3.3.6R (2) (Annual report of an AIF) because the AIFM is also an AIF.28

SUP 13.3.5AG01/04/2013

20Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give a consent notice, except where paragraph 19(7A) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act applies. Where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give a consent notice in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.

SUP 10A.12.2G26/01/2017

Table: FCA-approved persons forms

Form		Purpose	Handbook requirement
the relevant Form A	The relevant online form on the FCA and PRA's online notification and application system 3 or the form in SUP 10A Annex 4D (See Note) 1 1	Application to perform controlled functions under the approved persons regime	SUP 10A.13.3 D
Form B	SUP 10A Annex 5R	Notice to withdraw an application to perform controlled functions under the approved persons regime	SUP 10A.13.19 R
Form C	SUP 10A Annex 6R	Notice of ceasing to perform controlled functions	SUP 10A.14.8 R
Form D	SUP 10A Annex 7R	Notification of changes in personal information or application details	SUP 10A.14.15 R
Form E	The relevant online form on the FCA and PRA's online notification and application system 3 system or the form in SUP 10A Annex 8D (See Note) 1 1	Internal transfer of an approved person	SUP 10A.14.4 D
Note: The form in the SUP annex shown is to be used by credit unions, and by other firms only in the event of a failure of the information technology systems used by the FCA. See the relevant "Handbook requirement"

SUP 11.8.6G26/05/2017

The appropriate regulator9 may ask the firm for additional information following a notification under SUP 11.8.1 R in order to satisfy itself that the controller continues to be suitable (see SUP 2: Information gathering by the FCA or PRA6 on its own initiative).999

SYSC 4.1.2R03/01/2018

For a common platform firm, the 3 arrangements, processes and mechanisms referred to in SYSC 4.1.1 R must be comprehensive and proportionate to the nature, scale and complexity of the risks inherent in the business model and of13 the common platform firm's activities and must take into account the specific technical criteria described in article 21(3) of the MiFID Org Regulation21, SYSC 5.1.7 R, SYSC 7 and whichever of the following as applicable:3817131312817(1) (for a

SUP 18.4.1AG01/04/2013

2In general, although the legislation governing transfers of engagements involves friendly societies is the Friendly Societies Act 1992, similar issues arise in these transfers as in insurance business transfers under Part VII of the Act and so the regulators would expect firms to be subject to a similar process followed under the Act. Accordingly, firms should usually first discuss the procedural aspects for dealing with friendly society transfers and amalgamations with the PRA.

GENPRU 3.2.9R01/04/2013

If the Part 4A permission of a firm contains a requirement obliging it to comply with this rule with respect to a third-country banking and investment group of which it is a member, it must comply, with respect to that third-country banking and investment group, with the rules in Part 2 of GENPRU 3 Annex 2, as adjusted by Part 3 of that annex.

SUP 18.3.1AG01/04/2013

3Unless otherwise expressly stated by the appropriate regulator, all the procedural aspects for dealing with insurance business transfers outside the United Kingdom should be discussed by firms with the PRA in the first instance.

Related provisions for GENPRU 1.1.2B

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