Related provisions for SUP 8.3.5
Table: examples of how the requirements for submitting statements of responsibilities work
1Example |
Comments |
(1) A firm applies for approval for A to perform the executive director function and the money laundering function. |
There should be a single statement of responsibilities document that covers the two functions. The combined document should be included with the application for approval. |
(2) Firm X applies for approval for A to perform the executive director function. Firm Y applies for approval for A to perform the money laundering function. Both firms are relevant authorised persons. |
There should be separate statements of responsibilities for each firm. This is the case even if Firm X and Firm Y are in the same group. |
(3) A firm applies for approval for A to perform an FCA-designated senior management function and a PRA-designated senior management function. The arrangements in SUP 10C.9 for FCA functions to be absorbed into PRA ones do not apply and so there are separate applications to the FCA and PRA. |
The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both the FCA and the PRA functions. |
(4) A has approval to perform the executive director function. Later, A is to be appointed to perform the money laundering function for the same firm. This will also result in substantial changes to A’s duties as an executive director. |
The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director. The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to perform the money laundering function. The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both functions. The part relating to A’s duties as an executive director should be updated. |
(5) A has approval to perform the executive director function. Later, A is to be appointed to perform the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function for the same firm. This will also result in substantial changes to A’s duties as an executive director. |
The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director. The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to perform the PRA function. The firm should not submit the revised single statement of responsibilities document separately to the FCA. Instead, it should include it as part of the application to the PRA. The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both the FCA and the PRA functions. The part relating to A’s duties as an executive director should be updated. |
(6) A has approval to perform the money laundering function. The approval to perform the money laundering function is subject to a condition. The firm is applying to vary that condition. |
The firm should include a revised statement of responsibilities with the application. The firm should not use Form J. It should submit a revised statement of responsibilities along with the application to vary the approval. |
(7) A has approval to perform the executive director function and the money laundering function for the same firm. The approval to perform the money laundering function is subject to a condition. The firm is applying to vary that condition. As part of the same arrangements, there are to be substantial changes to A’s job as an executive director. |
The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director. The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to vary the approval for the money laundering function. The single statement of responsibilities document should be updated and should cover both functions. |
(8) A has approval to perform the executive director function and the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function for the same firm. The arrangements in SUP 10C.9 for FCA functions to be absorbed into PRA ones do not apply and so there are separate FCA and PRA approvals. The approval to perform the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function is subject to a condition. The firm is applying to vary that condition. As part of the same arrangements, there are to be substantial changes to A’s job as an executive director. |
The firm should not use Form J to notify the changes to A’s duties as an executive director. The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to vary the PRA function. The firm should not submit the revised document separately to the FCA. Instead it should include it as part of the application to the PRA. The single statement of responsibilities document should cover both the FCA and the PRA functions and should be updated. |
(9) A has approval to perform the executive director function and the money laundering function for the same firm. Sometime later, A is to give up the money laundering function and take up the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function. This will involve major changes to A’s role as executive director. |
The answer to example (5) applies. The application to the PRA to perform the PRA function should be accompanied by a single document that: (1) contains the statement of responsibilities for the new function; (2) contains the revised statement of responsibilities for the executive director function; and (3) reflects the fact that A is no longer performing the money laundering function. |
(10) A firm has approval for A to perform the executive director function and the money laundering function. A then ceases to perform the money laundering function but continues to perform the executive director function. |
The firm must submit: (a) Form C for the money laundering function; (b) Form J; and (c) a single updated statement of responsibilities document that covers the executive director function. |
(11) A has approval to perform the executive director function and the PRA's chief risk officer designated senior management function for the same firm. Later, A gives up his role as chief risk officer. |
The firm must submit: (a) Form C for the PRA function; (b) Form J; and (c) a single updated statement of responsibilities document that covers the executive director function. The firm should not submit the revised single statement of responsibilities document separately to the FCA. Instead, it should include it as part of the notification to the PRA. |
(12) A has approval to perform the executive director function. Later, A is to be appointed to perform the money laundering function for the same firm. The application is rejected. |
The single statement of responsibilities document submitted as part of the application will no longer be correct as it reflects the proposed new approval. If the only changes to the single document in the version sent with the application are ones, clearly and exclusively tied to the new function, the firm will not need to amend the document as the changes will automatically fall away. In any other case (for instance if the application is approved conditionally), it is likely that the firm will need to update it using Form J. In any case, the FCA may contact the firm to agree a revised single statement of responsibilities document. |
(13) A has approval to perform the executive director function. Later, A is to be appointed to perform the money laundering function for the same firm. This will not result in any changes to A’s duties as an executive director. However, there have been some insignificant changes to A’s role as an executive director since the firm submitted the most recent single statement of responsibilities document. The changes are not connected to A’s appointment to perform the money laundering function. |
The answer for example (4) applies. The single statement of responsibilities document should be updated to cover the changes to A’s duties as executive director, as well as covering A’s new money laundering role. It does not matter that the changes to A’s role as an executive director are not significant. |
(14) A has approval to perform the executive director function. Later, A’s business unit grows in size and so the firm needs to apply for A to be approved to perform the PRA's Head of Key Business Area designated senior management function. However, A’s responsibilities do not change. |
The firm should submit a revised single statement of responsibilities document along with the application to perform the PRA function. The firm should submit a single statement of responsibilities document that covers both the FCA and the PRA functions. It should not submit the revised single statement of responsibilities document separately to the FCA. Instead, it should include it as part of the application to the PRA. |
2(15) Firm X has a branch in the United Kingdom. Firm Y is a UK authorised subsidiary3 of firm X. Firm X is a third-country relevant authorised person and firm3 Y is a UK relevant authorised person. Both firms apply for approval for the same individual (P) to perform the executive3director function. |
There should be separate statement of responsibilities for P for each firm. |
The single statement of responsibilities document means the single document described in SUP 10C.11.13D |
|
Table: Examples of how the need for dual FCA and PRA approval in relation to PRA-authorised persons is reduced
1Example |
Whether FCA approval required |
Whether PRA approval required |
Comments |
(1) A is appointed as chief risk officer and an executive director. |
No. He is not treated as performing the executive director function. |
Yes |
Chief risk officer is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA-designated senior management function. To avoid the need for FCA approval, A’s appointment as director should not take effect before PRA approval for the chief risk officer role. |
(2) Same as example (1), except that A will take up the role as an executive director slightly later because the approval is needed from the firm's shareholders or governing body. |
No |
Yes |
The answer for (1) applies. The arrangements in this section apply if the application to the PRA says that A will start to perform the potential FCA governing function around the time of the PRA approval as well as at that time. |
(3) Same as example (1) but the application to the PRA does not mention that it is also intended that A is to be an executive director. |
Yes, to perform the executive director function. |
Yes |
SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply if the application for PRA approval does not say that A will also be performing what would otherwise be an FCA governing function. |
(4) A is to be appointed as chief executive and an executive director. |
No. A is not treated as performing the executive director function. |
Yes |
Being a chief executive is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function. |
(5) A is appointed as chief risk officer. Later, A is appointed as an executive director while carrying on as chief risk officer. |
Yes, when A takes up the director role. The executive director function applies. |
Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role. |
SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because, when the firm applied for approval for A to perform the PRA chief risk officer designated senior management function, there was no plan for A also to perform the executive director function. |
(6) A is appointed as an executive director. Later, A takes on the chief risk officer function and remains as an executive director. |
Yes, when A is appointed as director. The executive director function applies. |
Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role. |
When A is appointed as chief risk officer, A is still treated as carrying on the executive director function. A retains the status of an FCA-approved person. |
(7) A is appointed as chief risk officer. A then stops performing that role and for a while does not perform any controlled function for that firm. Later, A is appointed as an executive director with the same firm. |
Yes, when A is appointed as an executive director. The executive director function applies. |
Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role. |
SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because there is no current PRA approval when A is being appointed as a director. |
(8) A is appointed as an executive director and chief risk officer at the same time. Later, A gives up the role as chief risk officer but remains as an executive director. |
No, on A’s first appointment (see example (1)). But when A gives up the role as chief risk officer, FCA approval is needed to perform the executive director function. Form E should be used. The application should state that it is being made as a result of A ceasing to perform a PRA-designated senior management function. Form A should be used if there have been changes in A’s fitness (SUP 10C.10.9D(4)) |
Yes, on A’s first appointment. |
When A stops being a chief risk officer, A stops performing a PRA-designated senior management function. However, being an executive director requires FCA approval. A does not have that approval because A did not need it when A was first appointed. The combined effect of SUP 10C.9.8R and the relevant PRA rules is that the firm has three months to secure approval by the FCA. During that interim period, A keeps the status of a PRA approved person performing the director element of the PRA chief risk designated senior management function - which is included in that function under relevant PRA rules. The relevant PRA rules say that, during this transitional period, A is still treated as performing the PRA chief risk designated senior management function and SUP 10C.9.8R says that, for as long as A is performing a PRA-designated senior management function, A does not perform the executive director function. |
(9) A is appointed as the chief finance officer and an executive director at the same time. Later, A switches to being chief risk officer while remaining as an executive director. |
No |
Yes |
The arrangements in SUP 10C.9.8R continue to apply, even though A switches between PRA-designated senior management function after the PRA's first approval. |
(10) A is appointed chief risk officer and an executive director. A goes on temporary sick leave. A takes up his old job when he comes back. |
No, neither on A’s first appointment nor when A comes back from sick leave. |
Yes |
SUP 10C.9.8R still applies on A’s return because A does not stop performing either the PRA's chief risk function or what would otherwise have been the executive director function just because A goes on temporary sick leave. |
(11) A is appointed to be chairman of the governing body and chairman of the nomination committee at the same time. |
No. A does not need approval to perform the chair of the nomination committee function. |
Yes, on first appointment. |
Being chairman of the governing body is a PRA-designated senior management function. Therefore, the answer for example (1) applies. |
2(12) ‘A’ is to be appointed to perform the Head of Overseas Branch PRA-designated senior management function (SMF19) for a third-country relevant authorised person. A is also an executive director of that firm’sUKbranch. |
No. A is not treated as performing the executive3director function. |
Yes |
A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function. |
Note: The relevant PRA rules can be found in Chapter 2 of the part of the PRA rulebook called ‘Senior Management Functions’ |
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Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32
31Part 1: Application, notification and vetting fees |
||
31(1) Fee payer |
(2) Fee payable (£)37 |
Due date |
(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (zza)52 of this table 26 |
(1) Unless (2),41 (3) or (4)41 applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application. When both (A) and (B) apply, 50% of the tariff payable under (1):34 (2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply: (a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or (b) the application is a limited permission case under . (A) the application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6; and34 (B) the application is:34 (i) a straightforward case under paragraph 2(d) or 3(g) of FEES 3 Annex 1; (ii) a moderately complex case under paragraph 2(e) or 3(h) of FEES 3 Annex 1; or (iii) a limited permission case under paragraph 3(i) of FEES 3 Annex 1. (3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the higher of: 78 (i) the fee otherwise payable in (1) or (2); and 78 (ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 78 (4) No fee is payable if the applicant satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(a).41 17834343434 |
On or before the application is made |
(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30 |
As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4 |
(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4 (2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable |
On or before the notice of exercise is given |
(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order |
2,000 |
On or before the application is made |
(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act27 of, a collective investment scheme |
FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227 27 |
On or before the application is made |
(da) Applicants for the authorisation of an AIF as a UK ELTIF36 |
FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 2A36 |
On or before the date the application is made36 |
(e) The management company27 of a scheme making a notification under section 264 of the Act 2727 |
FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 327 27 |
On or before the date the application is made28 |
28(ea) (i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation (ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation |
FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4 |
On or before the date the notification is made |
28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation |
£750 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body. |
10,000 |
30 days after the order is granted |
(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17 (i) under section 287 of the Act; or17 (ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations17 76 |
FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1 |
On or before the date the application is made26 |
(ga) [deleted]52 26353535 |
||
(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE76 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act 7676 |
FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2 |
On or before the date the application is made |
(i) [deleted]35 35 |
35 | 35 |
(j) [deleted]38 |
||
(k) [deleted]35 35 |
35 | 35 |
(l) [deleted]38 |
72 | |
(m) [deleted]38 |
72 | |
(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges |
50,000 |
On or before the date the application is made |
2(o) In relation to a BIPRU firm, either:29 (i) a firm applying to the FCA29 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FCA29 as EEA consolidated supervisor under the (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29)) any firm making such an application ;5 or (ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FCA295for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FCA's29 assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EUCRR29), any firm to which the FCA29 would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5 1122957629576295762976297629 |
(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5 (2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1firm submitting a second application for the permission or5guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1 (c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2 52512555765765 |
Where the firm has made an application directly to the FCA29, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FCA29 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.229 27629762976 |
29(oa) Either: (i) a firm applying to the 37FCA for permission to use one of the internal approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6A (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the 37FCA as consolidating supervisor under the EU CRR) any firm making such an application; or (ii) in the case of an application to the consolidating supervisor other than the 37FCA for the use of the IRB approach and the consolidating supervisor requesting the 37FCA's assistance in accordance with the EU CRR, any firm to which the 37FCA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach. 3737373737 |
(1) Unless (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6A. (2) (a) Unless (b) applies a firm submitting a second application for the permission or guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6A, but only in respect of that second application. (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements. (c) No fee is payable where the consolidating supervisor has requested the assistance described in paragraph (oa)(ii) of column 1. 37 |
Where the firm has made an application directly to the 37FCA , on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the 37FCA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's consolidating supervisor has requested assistance. 3737 |
(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (zza)52 of this table 26 |
(1) Unless (2), (2A), (3), (3A), (3B), (3C), (3D) or 3(E)44 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application. (2) Subject to (2A) below, if the firm's application includes an application for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 that would be payable under (1) above or, if higher, 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 that would be payable in relation to the new credit-related regulated activity30.37 (2A) If an applicant which already has a Part 4A permission to carry on a credit-related regulated activity exclusively applies for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, that is specified in Part 3 of FEES 3 Annex 1R37 in the straightforward category (or if it exclusively applies for a number of such permissions), the fee is £25030.37 (3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11 (3A) If the applicant had a limited permission prior to the application to vary its Part 4A permission, 100% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application30.37 (3B) If the applicant has a limited permission and its application exclusively relates to another limited permission, the fee is 030 (3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee is the highest of the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR and the amount otherwise payable in (1), (2), (2A), (3), (3A) or (3B), or (4).78 (3D) No fee is payable if the applicant satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(a).41 (4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,76 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1 (3E) The fee is 12,500 if the firm applying:44 (i) is an MTF operator and the proposed new business of the firm is to be an OTF operator; or44 (ii) is an OTF operator and the proposed new business of the firm is to be an MTF operator.44 307841307878176763776377878371373030233737371137 |
On or before the date the application is made |
30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”) |
As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
| 77137713777722227 | 333 | |
| 66 | 566 | |
5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor. Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly. |
Either (1) or (2) as set out below: (1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 9,25037; or (2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 5,000. 7575377575377537 |
On or before any application is made for the appointment of a person as an independent expert. 37 |
| 20 | ||
(u) [deleted]34 34 |
34 | 34 |
(v) [deleted]38 2222 |
||
[deleted]35 35 |
35 | 35 |
(x)[deleted]38 |
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8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations |
The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.47 |
On or before the date the application is made. |
47(ya) An applicant for registration as an account information service provider under regulation 17 of the Payment Services Regulations. |
47FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (2)(i). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R. |
47On or before the date the application is made. |
(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 16 47 of the Payment Services Regulations applies |
The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 13 47 of the Payment Services Regulations |
FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 5 47 of the Payment Services Regulations. |
(1) If50 prior to the variation the authorised payment institution is authorised to carry on any one or more of the payment services falling50 within paragraph (f), 47 (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and the authorised payment institution is applying to extend its authorisation to include any one or more of the payment services in (a) to (e)50, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application. (2) Where the authorised payment institution50 already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (f);50 the fee payable is £47250 irrespective of the number of agents it has. 50(3) Where the authorised payment institution already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (f) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or both of the services in (g) and (h) the fee payable is £750, irrespective of the number of agents it has. (4)50 In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable. 4747474747 |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 13 47 of the Payment Services Regulations |
(1)The 47 fee is 50% of the tariff 47set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). 47 (2) 47 In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable. 4747 |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(zd) 47 |
47 | [deleted]47 |
(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12 12 |
Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 . |
|
(zf) [deleted]76 76 |
76 | 91676 |
16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations. |
The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations. |
The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies. |
The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations. |
50(1) Subject to (2) below, the fee is 50% of the tariff for an electronic money institution authorisation application set out in FEES 3 Annex 10R. 50(2) Where the authorised electronic money institution applies to vary its permission so as to be able to provide one or both of the payment services in paragraphs (g) and (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations the fee payable is £750. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations. |
The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body. |
2,500 |
On or before the date the application is made.18 |
18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond. |
(1) Unless (2) or (3)41 applies, 45,000. (2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000. (3) No fee is payable if the issuer satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(b).41 |
On or before the date the application is made. |
18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D. |
(1) Unless (2) applies 6,500.41 (2) No fee is payable if the issuer satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(c).41 |
On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21 |
21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either: (i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or (ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1). |
An amount equal to: (1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or (2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
76(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2. 37 |
Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act. 37 |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
76(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. 37 |
Any amount invoiced to the FCA37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. 3737 |
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30(zs) Applicant for FCA permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) and/or money paid or property transferred under and agreement to be retained under 3128A(3)(b) of the Act |
(1) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act and for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act, the fee is 31£3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.30 (2) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31 (3) If the application is for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31 Where there are a number of agreements of the same type, only one fee is payable in respect of those agreements. A number of agreements are of the same type when those agreements are entered into on the same terms and conditions. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 78 |
Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 78 (1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 78 (2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 78 |
On or before the application is made.78 |
(zu)40 Any person to which the Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee applies under FEES 3 Annex 10B. 39 |
Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 10B. |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
43(zv) Any firm that meets the test in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1)R(1) (PPI campaign fees). |
The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1) R(2). |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
45(zw) An applicant for authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations, or the operator of a trading venue seeking verification of their compliance with Title V of MiFID49 under regulation 8 of the DRS Regulations or an applicant for variation of an authorisation under regulation 12 of the DRS Regulations. |
Either (1), (2), or (3) applies as set out below: (1) If the applicant is applying for permission to operate one data reporting service, 5,000. (2) If the applicant is applying for permission to operate more than one data reporting services, 50% of the fee at (1) for each additional service plus the fee at (1). (3) If the applicant is applying for variation of an authorisation, 50% of the fee at (1) for each additional service. |
On the date the application is made. |
46(zx) (1) Unless (2) applies any person applying to connect to the market data processor system to make transaction reports directly to the FCA under MiFIR. (2) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zx)(1) above and has been connected then no further fee is payable for any further such applications. |
1) Unless (2) applies, 20,000. (2) Any incoming data reporting services provider will pay 80% of the fee at (1). |
On the date the application is made |
46(zy) (1) Subject to (2) and (3) below, any person applying to connect to the market data processor system to provide markets data (other than transaction reports) under MiFID49 and MiFIR. (2) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zy)(1) above and has been connected then no further fee is payable for any further such applications in relation to reporting the same data. (3) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zy)(1) above and makes a further application in relation to the provision of different data then a separate fee is payable for such application. |
(1) Unless (2) applies, 10,000. (2) Any incoming data reporting services provider authorised by another EEA State will pay 80% of the fee at (1). |
On the date the application is made. |
51(zz) an applicant for registration under regulation 14 of the Risk Transformation Regulations as a protected cell company. |
500 |
On or before the date the application is made. |
52(zza) An application for authorisation as a regulated benchmark administrator. |
The highest of the applicable tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R. Where an applicant intends to administer benchmarks falling into different complexity groupings, it will pay one fee only, for the highest category applied for. If, once authorised, a regulated benchmark administrator notifies the FCA of its intention to administer other/additional benchmarks no further application fee is payable (even if the other/additional benchmark falls into a higher complexity category). |
On the date the application is made. |
52(zzb) An application for recognition of an administrator in accordance with article 32 of the benchmarks regulation. |
5,000 |
On the date the application is made. |
52(zzc) An application for endorsement of a benchmark or family of benchmarks in accordance with article 33 of the benchmarks regulation. |
1,500 |
On the date the application is made. |
(1) Fee payer |
(2) Fee payable |
(3) Due date |
(a) (i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R. (ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2). |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice. |
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On or before the date the application is made. |
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38(c) For the purposes of48 the listing rules:48 (i)48 an issuer requesting approval of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction; or48 48(ii) an issuer or person applying for eligibility for listing of its securities. |
On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA. |
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38(d) Under the prospectus rules, Prospectus Rules or the Prospectus Regulation, an issuer or a person requesting approval or review of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction. |
On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA. |
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38(e) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a super transaction. |
On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA. |
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38(f) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a significant transaction. |
On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA. |
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38(g) A person who requests the FCA’s approval of a document that includes a mineral expert’s report and who is a fee payer under one or more of the categories (c), (d), (e), and (f) above must additionally pay a fee under this category. |
On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA. |
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38(h) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider. |
On or before the date the application is made. |
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[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19