Related provisions for PERG 6.1.1

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EG App 2.1.9RP
2The following are indicators of whether action by the FCA or one of the other agencies is more appropriate. They are not listed in any particular order or ranked according to priority. No single feature of the case should be considered in isolation, but rather the whole case should be considered in the round.(a) 2 Tending towards action by the FCAWhere the suspected conduct in question gives rise to concerns regarding market confidence or protection of consumers of services regulated
IFPRU 4.14.3GRP
A firm may apply to the FCA under section 138A of the Act to waiveIFPRU 4.14.2 R if it wishes to use the residual maturity of the interest-rate contract.
FIT 1.3.4AGRP
1A relevant authorised person assessing the continuing fitness and propriety of an approved person is required to notify the FCA under section 63(2A) of the Act if it forms the opinion that there are grounds on which the FCA could withdraw its approval (see SUP 10C.14.24R). In discharging its obligation to notify the FCA, a relevant authorised person should take into account how relevant and how important the matter is that comes to its attention which suggests an approved person
FEES 2.2.3GRP
(1) Paragraph15 23(8) of Schedule 1ZA of the Act permits the FCA to recover fees (including fees relating to payment services, the issuance of electronic money, 17CBTL firms, data reporting services providers,17designated credit reference agencies, designated finance platforms16 and, where relevant, FOS levies, CFEB levies and SFGB levies18).14(2) Section 213(6) of the Act permits the FSCS to recover shares of the FSCS levy payable, as a debt owed to the FCA and FSCS respectively.
SYSC 22.2.3RRP

Table: What positions need a reference

Position

When to obtain reference

Comments

(A) Permitting or appointing someone to perform an FCA controlled function or a PRA controlled function.

One month before the end of the application period

Where a request for a reference would require:

(a) the firm requesting the reference;

(b) the employer giving the reference; or

(c) any other person;

to make a mandatory disclosure prior to P disclosing to its current employer that such application has been made, the date is the end of the application period.

(B) Issuing a certificate under section 63F of the Act (Certification of employees by relevant authorised persons).

Before the certificate is issued

This includes renewing an existing certificate.

(C) Appointing someone to any of the following positions (as defined in the PRA Rulebook):

(a) a notified non-executive director;

(b) a credit union non-executive director; or

(c) a key function holder.

Not applicable

SYSC 22.2.1R (obligation to obtain a reference) does not apply to a firm appointing someone to the position in column (1).

However SYSC 22.2.2R does apply to a firm asked to give a reference to a firm appointing someone to the position in column (1).

Note 1: Mandatory disclosure means an obligation in any applicable laws, regulations or rules to declare or disclose information to the public.

Note 2: P refers to the employee or ex-employee about whom the reference is given as defined in more detail in SYSC 22.2.1R and SYSC 22.2.2R.

Note 3: The application period means the period for consideration referred to in section 61 of the Act (Determination of application).
CASS 5.3.1GRP
Section 137B(1) of the Act (Miscellaneous ancillary matters) provides that rules may make provision which results in client money being held by a firm on trust (England and Wales and Northern Ireland) or as agent (Scotland only). CASS 5.3.2 R creates a fiduciary relationship between the firm and its client under which client money is in the legal ownership of the firm but remains in the beneficial ownership of the client. In the event of failure of the firm, costs relating to
DISP App 1.1.5GRP
This appendix is also relevant to complaints which the Ombudsman may investigate under the Compulsory Jurisdiction or Voluntary Jurisdiction of the Financial Ombudsman Service established under Part XVI of the Act (The Ombudsman Scheme).2525
SUP 12.7.3AGRP
Where a notification is linked to an application for approval under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements), see SUP 10A.13.7 G21.121
DEPP 6.5A.2GRP
(1) The FCA2 will determine a figure that reflects the seriousness of the breach. In many cases, the amount of revenue generated by a firm from a particular product line or business area is indicative of the harm or potential harm that its breach may cause, and in such cases the FCA2 will determine a figure which will be based on a percentage of the firm’s revenue from the relevant products or business areas. The FCA2 also believes that the amount of revenue generated by a firm
COLL 4.8.3RRP
(1) An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme that has been approved by the FCA to operate as a feeder UCITS, including as a feeder UCITS of a different master UCITS, must provide the following information to its unitholders at least 30 calendar days before the date when the feeder UCITS is to start to invest in units of the master UCITS or, if it has already invested in them, the date when its investment will exceed the limit applicable under COLL 5.2.11R (9) (Spread: general):(a)
SUP 11.4.9GRP
The obligations 4in SUP 11.4.2 R andSUP 11.4.2A R apply 4 whether or not the controller himself has given or intends to give a notification, in accordance with his obligations under the Act.144
MAR 1.1.3GRP
The FCA's statement of policy about the imposition, duration5 and amount of penalties in cases of market abuse (required by section 124 of the Act) is in DEPP 63 .3
PR 5.5.1RRP
The rules in this section specify in accordance with section 84(1)(d) of the Act and for the purposes of Part 6 of the Act, the persons responsible for a prospectus.Note: In accordance with PR 1.1.9 a reference in this section to a prospectus includes a supplementary prospectus.
BIPRU 8.5.12GRP
If a firm wishes to exclude an undertaking on the basis of any of the grounds set out in BIPRU 8.5.11 G it should apply to the appropriate regulator for a waiver. The appropriate regulator will consider such applications in the light of the criteria in Section 138A of the Act.
EG 13.13.1RP
1The FCA will exercise its rights under sections 362, 371 and 374 of the Act to be heard on a third party's petition or in subsequent hearings only where it believes it has information that it considers relevant to the court's consideration of the petition or application. These circumstances may include: (1) where the FCA has relevant information which it believes may not otherwise be drawn to the court's attention; especially where the FCA has been asked to attend for a particular