Related provisions for PERG 6.5.2

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REC 2.16.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body has effective arrangements for the investigation and resolution of complaints arising in connection with the performance of, or failure to perform, any of its regulatory functions, the FCA3 may have regard to the extent to which the UK recognised body's resources and procedures enable it to:3(1) acknowledge complaints promptly;(2) make an objective, prompt and thorough initial investigation of complaints;(3) provide a timely reply to
REC 2.16.4GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body's arrangements for the investigation of complaints include appropriate arrangements for the complaint to be fairly and impartially investigated by an independent person (a "complaints investigator"), the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) the arrangements made for appointing (and removing) a complaints investigator, including the terms and conditions of such an appointment and the provision for remuneration of a complaints investigator; (2)
SUP 13A.7.1GRP
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part 4A permission from the appropriate UK regulator3 to do so (see the appropriate UK regulator's website: www.fca.org.uk/firms/authorisation/apply-authorisation for the FCA and
SUP 13A.7.4GRP
For guidance on how to apply for Part 4A permission3 under the Act, see the appropriate UK regulator's website: http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation/getting-authorised for the FCA and www.bankofengland.co.uk/pra/Pages/authorisations/newfirm/default.aspx for the PRA.31 If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part
IFPRU 11.1.2GRP
(1) An IFPRU 730k firm that is not subject to supervision on a consolidated basis will not be an RRD group member.(2) An IFPRU 730k firm may be subject to supervision on a consolidated basis by the FCA, the PRA or another competent authority.
IFPRU 11.1.3RRP
This chapter does not apply to: (1) a PRA authorised person; (2) an RRD group member that is: (a) a qualifying parent undertaking of a PRAauthorised person; and(b) subject to supervision on a consolidated basis by the PRA; and(3) a qualifying parent undertaking that is a mixed activity holding company of a PRA authorised person.
DISP 4.2.1RRP
A VJ participant is subject to these standard terms, which may be amended or supplemented by the Financial Ombudsman Service with the approval of the FCA19.31619
DISP 4.2.6RRP
The following rules in FEES apply to VJ participants as part of the standard terms, but substituting 'VJ participant' for 'firm':(1) FEES 2.2.1 R (late payment) but substituting 'FOS Ltd' for 'the FCA';1919(2) FEES 2.3.1 R and 2.3.2 R (remission of fees);(3) [deleted]22(4) FEES 5.3.6 R (general levy) but substituting:(a) 'Voluntary Jurisdiction' for 'Compulsory Jurisdiction' ; and(b) 'FOS Ltd' for 'the FCA';1919(5) FEES 5.3.8 R (calculation of general levy) but substituting:22(a)
PR 1.1.6GRP
The FCA considers that the 4following documents together 4determine the effect of the Prospectus Directive6: 4(1) Part 6 of the Act;(2) the PD Regulation;(3) these rules; 4(4) the ESMA Prospectus Recommendations434(5) the ESMA Prospectus Questions and Answers;4(6) the ESMA Prospectus Opinions6; and4(7) the Prospectus RTS Regulations5. 4
PR 1.1.8GRP
In determining whether Part 6 of the Act, these rules ,4the PD Regulation and the Prospectus RTS Regulations5have2 been complied with, the FCA will consider whether a person has acted in accordance with the4ESMA Prospectus Recommendations, the ESMA Prospectus Questions and Answers and the ESMA Prospectus Opinions6. 4424244
ICOBS 3.2.8RRP
The requirements relating to the placing and receipt of orders do not apply to contracts concluded exclusively by exchange of e-mail or by equivalent individual communications.[Note: article 10(4) and 11(3) of the E-Commerce Directive]
IPRU-INV 13.1.22GRP
(1) The FCA1 considers it reasonable for a firm's policy to exclude cover for:(a) specific business lines if that type of business has not been carried out by the firm in the past and will not be carried out by the firm during the life of the policy; or (b) specific claims that have been previously notified to the firm'sinsurer and claimed for under another policy. (2) The FCA1 does not consider it reasonable for a firm's policy to treat legal defence
IPRU-INV 13.1.28RRP
A firm must notify the FCA1 immediately if it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following matters in relation to its professional indemnity insurance has occurred, may have occurred or may occur in the foreseeable future: (1) professional indemnity insurance cannot be obtained within 28 days of the inception or renewal date; (2) professional indemnity insurance is cancelled; (3) the amount of aggregate cover is exhausted;
IPRU-INV 13.1.29GRP
(1) 1For the purposes of the provisions relating to professional indemnity insurance, “additional capital resources” means readily realisable own funds or capital resources under IPRU-INV 13.15.3R, depending on the type of firm1.(2) 1The FCA1 expects items included in own funds or capital resources under IPRU-INV 13.15.3R, depending on the type of firm,1 to be regarded as “readily realisable” only if they can be realised, at any given time, within 90 days.
LR 10.5.3GRP
1The FCA would (amongst other things) generally consider an increase of 10% or more in the consideration payable to be a material change to the terms of the transaction.
LR 10.5.4RRP
(1) 2If a listed company becomes aware of a matter described in (2) after the publication of a circular that seeks shareholder approval for a transaction expressly requiring a vote by the listing rules, but before the date of a general meeting, it must, as soon as practicable:(a) advise the FCA of the matters of which it has become aware; and(b) send a supplementary circular to holders of its listedequity shares providing an explanation of the matters referred to in (2).(2) The
REC 1.2.2GRP
(1) Most of the provisions in this sourcebook are marked with a G (to indicate guidance) or an R (to indicate a rule). Quotations from UK5 statute or statutory instruments are marked with the letters "UK"5 unless they form part of a piece of guidance. Other informative text regarding provisions of EU directives or directly applicable EU regulations which is meant to be for the convenience of readers but is not part of the legislative material is preceded by the word “Note”.5
REC 1.2.3GRP
(1) This sourcebook contains quotations from the Act, the Recognition Requirements Regulations, the RAP regulations,5 the Companies Act 19895and, where necessary, words have been added to, or substituted for, the text of these provisions to facilitate understanding.32(2) The additions and substitutions are enclosed in square brackets ([ ]). The omission of words within a quotation is indicated by three dots (...).(3) Any words in these quotations which have the same meaning as
SYSC 9.1.1RRP
A firm (other than a common platform firm)5 must arrange for orderly records to be kept of its business and internal organisation, including all services and transactions undertaken by it, which must be sufficient to enable the FCA5 or any other relevant competent authority under 5the UCITS Directive4 to monitor the firm's compliance with the requirements under the regulatory system, and in particular to ascertain that the firm has complied with all obligations with respect to
SYSC 9.1.1ARRP
(1) 5A common platform firm must arrange for records to be kept of all services, activities and transactions undertaken by it. (2) The records in (1) must be sufficient to enable the FCA to fulfil its supervisory tasks and to perform the enforcement actions under the regulatory system including MiFID, MiFIR and the Market Abuse Regulation, and in particular to ascertain that the common platform firm has complied with all obligations including those with respect to clients or potential
PERG 6.3.1GRP
The business of effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance is subject to prior authorisation under the Act1and regulation by the FCA and PRA1. (There are some limited exceptions to this requirement, for example, for breakdown insurance.)1
PERG 6.3.2GRP
The Regulated Activities Order, which sets out the activities for which authorisation is required, does not attempt an exhaustive definition of a 'contract of insurance'. Instead, it makes some specific extensions and limitations to the general common law meaning of the concept. For example, it expressly extends the concept to fidelity bonds and similar contracts of guarantee, which are not contracts of insurance at common law, and it excludes certain funeral plan contracts, which
FEES 6.7.6RRP
If a firm ceases to be a participant firm or carry out activities within one or more classes54 part way through a financial year6 of the compensation scheme:44(1) it will remain liable for any unpaid levies which the FSCS has already made on the firm; and41(2) the FSCS may make one or more levies4 upon it (which may be before or after the firm5 has ceased to be a participant firm or carry out activities within one or more classes5,4 but must be before it ceases to be an authorised
SYSC 4.9.6GRP
The information and material in SYSC 4.9.4R that should be made available includes details:(1) about unresolved or possible breaches of the requirements of the regulatory system; and(2) of any unresolved concerns expressed by the FCA, the PRA or another regulatory body.
SYSC 4.9.8GRP
(1) Where the responsibilities or job in SYSC 4.9.4R are being taken over from another person, the firm should have arrangements for an orderly transition.(2) As part of these arrangements, the firm should take reasonable steps to ensure that the predecessor contributes to the information and material in SYSC 4.9.4R all that would be reasonable to expect the predecessor to know and consider relevant, including the predecessor’s opinions.(3) One way of doing this could be for the
PR 3.4.1UKRP

Section 87G of the Act provides that:

(1)

Subsection (2) applies if, during the relevant period, there arises or is noted a significant new factor, material mistake or inaccuracy relating to the information included in a prospectus approved by the [FCA].

(2)

The person on whose application the prospectus was approved must, in accordance with prospectus rules, submit a supplementary prospectus containing details of the new factor, mistake or inaccuracy to the [FCA] for its approval.

(3)

The relevant period begins when the prospectus is approved by the [FCA] and ends –

(a)

with the closure of the offer of the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates; or

(b)

when trading in those securities on a regulated market begins.

4(3A)

But where the prospectus relates both to an offer of transferable securities to the public and the admission of those securities to trading on a regulated market, subsection (3) does not apply and the relevant period beings when the prospectus is approved and ends with the later of -

(a)

the closure of the offer to the public to which the prospectus relates; or

(b)

the time when trading in those securities on a regulated market begins.

(4)

"Significant" means significant for the purposes of making an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2).

(5)

Any person responsible for the prospectus who is aware of any new factor, mistake or inaccuracy which may require the submission of a supplementary prospectus in accordance with subsection (2) must give notice of it to –

(a)

the issuer of the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates, and

(b)

the person on whose application the prospectus was approved.

(6)

A supplementary prospectus must provide sufficient information to correct any mistake or inaccuracy which gave rise to the need for it.

(7)

Subsection (1) applies also to information contained in any supplementary prospectus published under this section.
PR 3.4.3RRP
1In the event that a requirement for a supplement is triggered, then as soon as practicable after the new factor, mistake or inaccuracy arises or is noted, a3person referred to in section 87G(2) of the Act must submit a supplementary prospectus referred to in that section to the FCA for approval.33
MAR 7A.3.6RRP
A firm which is a member or participant of a trading venue must immediately notify the following if it is engaging in algorithmic trading:(1) the FCA; and (2) any competent authority of a trading venue in another EEA State where the firm engages in algorithmic trading. [Note: article 17(2) of MiFID]
MAR 7A.3.7RRP
A firm must provide the following, at the FCA’s request, within 14 days from receipt of the request: (1) a description of the nature of its algorithmic trading strategies; (2) details of the trading parameters or limits to which the firm’s system is subject; (3) evidence that MAR 7A.3.2R (systems and controls) and MAR 7A.3.3R (business continuity and system tests) are met; (4) details of the testing of the firm’s systems; (5) the records in MAR 7A.3.8R(2) (accurate and time-sequenced
SUP 10A.4.2RRP
Part 1 of the table of FCA controlled functions applies in relation to an FCA-authorised person. It also applies in relation to an appointed representative for the purposes of SUP 10A.1.15 R to SUP 10A.1.16BR4 (Appointed representatives) whether its principal is an FCA-authorised person or a PRA-authorised person. Part 2 applies in relation to a PRA-authorised person, except in relation to CBTL business.22
SUP 10A.4.3GRP
The fact that a person may be FCA-approved for one purpose does not have the effect of bringing all his activities within that FCA controlled function.
GEN 1.2.1GRP
The purpose of GEN 1.2.2AR6 is to prevent clients being misled about the extent to which the FCA6 has approved a firm's affairs.99
GEN 1.2.2ARRP
(1) 4Unless required to do so under the regulatory system, a firm must ensure that neither it nor anyone acting on its behalf claims, in a public statement or to a client, expressly or by implication, that its affairs, or any aspect of them, have the approval or endorsement of the FCA6 or another competent authority.(1A) 7Paragraph (1) does not apply to a firm to the extent that it is incompatible with the United Kingdom’s obligations under article 44(8) of the MiFID Org Regulation.
REC 2A.3.1GRP
In assessing compliance with the RAP recognition requirements, the FCA3 will have regard to relevant guidance in REC 2 on the equivalent requirements set out in the Recognition Requirement Regulations. The FCA3 may also take into account compliance by the RAP or RAP applicant with the recognition requirements (see REC 2A.2.1 UK). The FCA3 will not make a separate assessment of compliance with the recognition requirements during the course of examining an application to become
REC 2A.3.2GRP

The guidance in relation to the recognition requirements in the sections of REC 2 listed in Column A of the table below applies to an RAP in relation to the equivalent RAP recognition requirements listed in Column C and (if shown) with the modifications in Column B.

Table: Guidance on RAP recognition requirements

Column A

REC 2 guidance which applies to an RAP

Column B

Modification to REC 2 guidance for an RAP

Column C

Relevant RAP recognition requirement

REC 2.2.2 G to REC 2.2.7 G (Relevant circumstances and Outsourcing)

Reg 13

REC 2.3.3 G to REC 2.3.9 G (Financial resources)

Reg 14

REC 2.4.3 G to REC 2.4.6 G (Suitability)

In addition to the matters set out in REC 2.4.3 G to REC 2.4.6 G, the FCA3 will have regard to whether a key individual has been allocated responsibility for overseeing the auction platform of the UK recognised body.

3

Reg 15

REC 2.5.3 G to REC 2.5.20 G (Systems and controls and conflicts) and REC 2.5A (Guidance on Public Interest Disclosure Act: Whistleblowing)

Reg 16 and 17(2)(f)1

REC 2.6.26 G to REC 2.6.34 G (Safeguards for investors)

Reg 17

REC 2.7.3 G to REC 2.7.4 G (Access to facilities)

The FCA3 shall have regard to whether an RAP provides access to bid at auctions only to those persons eligible to bid under article 18 of the auction regulation.

3

Reg 17(2)(a) and1 20

REC 2.8.3 G to REC 2.8.4 G (Settlement and clearing services)

Reg 17(2)(d) and 21

REC 2.9.3 G to REC 2.9.4 G (Transaction recording)

Reg 17(2)(e)

REC 2.10.3 G to REC 2.10.4 G (Financial crime and market abuse)

Reg 17(2)(g)

REC 2.11.3 G to REC 2.11.4 G (Custody)

REC 2.11.4 G is replaced with the following for an RAP:

Where an RAP arranges for other persons to provide services for the safeguarding and administration services of assets belonging to users of its facilities, it will also need to satisfy the RAP recognition requirement in regulation 17(2)(h) of the RAP regulations (see REC 2A.2.1 UK).

Reg 17(2)(h)

REC 2.12.11 G to REC 2.12.12 G (Availability of relevant information)

REC 2.12.11 G to REC 2.12.12 G are replaced with the following for an RAP:

REC 2.12.11 G

In determining whether appropriate arrangements have been made to make relevant information available to persons engaged in dealing in emissions auction products2 the FCA3 may have regard to:

(1) the extent to which auction bidders are able to obtain information in a timely fashion about the terms of those emissions auction products2 and the terms on which they will be auctioned, either through accepted channels for dissemination of information or through other regularly and widely accessible communication media;

(2) what restrictions, if any, there are on the dissemination of relevant information to auction bidders; and

(3) whether relevant information is, or can be, kept to restricted groups of persons in such a way as to facilitate or encourage market abuse.

REC 2.12.12 G

An RAP does not need to maintain its own arrangements for providing information on the terms of emissions auction products2 to auction bidders where it has made adequate arrangements for other persons to do so on its behalf or there are other effective and reliable arrangements for this purpose.

2322

Reg 17(2)(c)

REC 2.13.3 G to REC 2.13.6 G (Promotion and maintenance of standards)

Reg 18

REC 2.14.3 G to REC 2.14.6 G (Rules and consultation)

Reg 19

REC 2.15.3 G to REC 2.15.6 G (Discipline)

Reg 22

REC 2.16.3 G to REC 2.16.4 G (Complaints)

Reg 23
MAR 10.1.1GRP
(1) 1The purpose of this chapter is to implement articles 57 and 58 of MiFID by setting out the necessary directions, rules and guidance.(2) In particular, this chapter sets out the FCA’s requirements in respect of: (a) articles 57(1) and 57(6) of MiFID, which require competent authorities or central competent authorities to establish limits, on the basis of a methodology determined by ESMA, on the size of a net position which a person can hold, together with those held on the
MAR 10.1.2GRP
(1) The scope of this chapter is as follows: In respect of position limit requirements in MAR 10.2, a commodity derivative position limit established by the FCA in accordance with MAR 10.2.2D(1) applies regardless of the location of the person at the time of entering into the position and the location of execution. [Note: article 57(14)(a) of MiFID](2) In respect of position management controls requirements:(a) the requirements contained or referred to in MAR 10.3 apply to persons
EG 10.2.1RP
1The court may make three types of order under these provisions: to restrain a course of conduct, to take steps to remedy a course of conduct and to secure assets. As is explained below, the court may also make an order freezing assets under its inherent jurisdiction. In certain cases, the FCA may seek only one type of order, although in others it may seek several.
EG 10.2.2RP
1The broad test the FCA will apply when it decides whether to seek an injunction is whether the application would be the most effective way to deal with the FCA's concerns. In deciding whether an application for an injunction is appropriate in a given case, the FCA will consider all relevant circumstances and may take into account a wide range of factors. The following list of factors is not exhaustive; not all the factors will be relevant in a particular case and there may be