Related provisions for PERG 6.7.2

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SUP 10C.9.9GRP

Table: Examples of how the need for dual FCA and PRA approval in relation to PRA-authorised persons is reduced

1Example

Whether FCA approval required

Whether PRA approval required

Comments

(1) A is appointed as chief risk officer and an executive director.

No. He is not treated as performing the executive director function.

Yes

Chief risk officer is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA-designated senior management function. To avoid the need for FCA approval, A’s appointment as director should not take effect before PRA approval for the chief risk officer role.

(2) Same as example (1), except that A will take up the role as an executive director slightly later because the approval is needed from the firm's shareholders or governing body.

No

Yes

The answer for (1) applies. The arrangements in this section apply if the application to the PRA says that A will start to perform the potential FCA governing function around the time of the PRA approval as well as at that time.

(3) Same as example (1) but the application to the PRA does not mention that it is also intended that A is to be an executive director.

Yes, to perform the executive director function.

Yes

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply if the application for PRA approval does not say that A will also be performing what would otherwise be an FCA governing function.

(4) A is to be appointed as chief executive and an executive director.

No. A is not treated as performing the executive director function.

Yes

Being a chief executive is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function.

(5) A is appointed as chief risk officer. Later, A is appointed as an executive director while carrying on as chief risk officer.

Yes, when A takes up the director role. The executive director function applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because, when the firm applied for approval for A to perform the PRA chief risk officer designated senior management function, there was no plan for A also to perform the executive director function.

(6) A is appointed as an executive director. Later, A takes on the chief risk officer function and remains as an executive director.

Yes, when A is appointed as director. The executive director function applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

When A is appointed as chief risk officer, A is still treated as carrying on the executive director function. A retains the status of an FCA-approved person.

(7) A is appointed as chief risk officer. A then stops performing that role and for a while does not perform any controlled function for that firm. Later, A is appointed as an executive director with the same firm.

Yes, when A is appointed as an executive director. The executive director function applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because there is no current PRA approval when A is being appointed as a director.

(8) A is appointed as an executive director and chief risk officer at the same time. Later, A gives up the role as chief risk officer but remains as an executive director.

No, on A’s first appointment (see example (1)). But when A gives up the role as chief risk officer, FCA approval is needed to perform the executive director function.

Form E should be used. The application should state that it is being made as a result of A ceasing to perform a PRA-designated senior management function.

Form A should be used if there have been changes in A’s fitness (SUP 10C.10.9D(4))

Yes, on A’s first appointment.

When A stops being a chief risk officer, A stops performing a PRA-designated senior management function. However, being an executive director requires FCA approval. A does not have that approval because A did not need it when A was first appointed.

The combined effect of SUP 10C.9.8R and the relevant PRA rules is that the firm has three months to secure approval by the FCA. During that interim period, A keeps the status of a PRA approved person performing the director element of the PRA chief risk designated senior management function - which is included in that function under relevant PRA rules. The relevant PRA rules say that, during this transitional period, A is still treated as performing the PRA chief risk designated senior management function and SUP 10C.9.8R says that, for as long as A is performing a PRA-designated senior management function, A does not perform the executive director function.

(9) A is appointed as the chief finance officer and an executive director at the same time. Later, A switches to being chief risk officer while remaining as an executive director.

No

Yes

The arrangements in SUP 10C.9.8R continue to apply, even though A switches between PRA-designated senior management function after the PRA's first approval.

(10) A is appointed chief risk officer and an executive director. A goes on temporary sick leave. A takes up his old job when he comes back.

No, neither on A’s first appointment nor when A comes back from sick leave.

Yes

SUP 10C.9.8R still applies on A’s return because A does not stop performing either the PRA's chief risk function or what would otherwise have been the executive director function just because A goes on temporary sick leave.

(11) A is appointed to be chairman of the governing body and chairman of the nomination committee at the same time.

No. A does not need approval to perform the chair of the nomination committee function.

Yes, on first appointment.

Being chairman of the governing body is a PRA-designated senior management function. Therefore, the answer for example (1) applies.

2(12) ‘A’ is to be appointed to perform the Head of Overseas Branch PRA-designated senior management function (SMF19) for a third-country relevant authorised person. A is also an executive director of that firm’sUKbranch.

No. A is not treated as performing the executive3director function.

Yes

A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function.

Note: The relevant PRA rules can be found in Chapter 2 of the part of the PRA rulebook called ‘Senior Management Functions’

EG 4.11.8RP
1On occasion, where the police have a power of arrest, the FCA may make a request to the police for assistance to arrest the individual for questioning by the FCA (FCA investigators do not have powers of arrest), for example: (1) where it appears likely that inviting an individual to attend on a voluntary basis would prejudice an ongoing investigation or risk the destruction of evidence or the dissipation of assets; or (2) where a suspect declines an invitation to attend a voluntary
EG 19.31.4RP
1For example, the FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation and the reasons for the appointment. The FCA's policy in regulatory investigations under the Small and Medium Sized Business (Credit Information) Regulations is to use powers to compel information, in the same way as it would in the course of an investigation under the Act.
EG 19.32.6RP
For example, the FCA will, if appropriate, notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation and the reasons for the appointment. The FCA's policy in regulatory investigations under the PARs is to use powers to compel information, in the same way as it would in the course of an investigation under the Act.
EG 19.22.5RP
1Certain FCA decisions (for example the cancellation of an authorisation or the imposition of a financial penalty) may be referred to the Tribunal by an aggrieved party.
EG 19.27.2RP
2The AIFMD UK regulation includes information gathering and sanctioning powers that enable the FCA to investigate and take action for breaches of the regulations and directly applicable EU regulations. Specific standalone powers are in the AIFMD UK regulation for unauthorised AIFMs, by applying relevant sections of the Act. Amendments to the Act, including those made under the Financial Services and Markets Act (Qualifying EU
MCOB 1.6.5GRP
(1) MCOB 1.6.4 R(2) means, for example, that if a firm discovered immediately after completion that a loan was a regulated mortgage contract, the firm would be required to comply with MCOB 7.4 (Disclosure at the start of the contract).(2) Although MCOB 1.6.4 R recognises that firms may become aware that a mortgage is a regulated mortgage contract at a late stage, the FCA expects this to be an extremely rare occurrence. It could arise, for example, if a firm has acted on the understanding,
FEES 7.2.2RRP
The CFEB levy is calculated as follows:(1) identify each of the activity groups set out in Part 1 of FEES 7 Annex 1R and Part 1 of FEES 7 Annex 2R4 that apply to the business of the firm for the relevant period (for this purpose, the activity groups under FEES 7 Annex 1R4 are defined in accordance with Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR and the activity groups under FEES 7 Annex 2R are defined in accordance with Part 1 of that Annex4);66(2) for each of those activity groups, calculate
EG 14.2.3RP
1The following are examples of situations where the FCA may consider it appropriate to seek a court order under section 258 (in the case of an AUT) or section 261Y (in the case of an ACS) to remove the authorised fund manager or depositary: (1) Where there are grounds for concern over the behaviour of the authorised fund manager or depositary in respect of the management of the scheme or of its assets. (2) Where an authorised
EG 3.7.4RP
1When it considers whether to use its investigative power, and whether section 169(4) applies, the FCA will first consider whether it is able to assist without using its formal powers, for example by obtaining the information voluntarily. Where that is not possible, the FCA may take into account all of the factors in section 169(4), but may give particular weight to the seriousness of the case and its importance to persons in the United Kingdom, and to the public interest.
DEPP 6A.1.3GRP
The power to impose a suspension, restriction, condition,4 limitation or disciplinary prohibition4 is a disciplinary measure which the FCA2 may use in addition to, or instead of, imposing a financial penalty or issuing a public censure. The principal purpose of imposing such a measure3 is to promote high standards of regulatory and/or market conduct by deterring persons who have committed breaches from committing further breaches, helping to deter other persons from committing
DEPP 6A.1.4GRP
The powers to impose a suspension, restriction, condition or limitation3 in relation to authorised persons and approved persons, and to impose a disciplinary prohibition in relation to individuals,4 are disciplinary measures;2 where the FCA2 considers it necessary to take action, for example, to protect consumers from an authorised person, the FCA2 will seek to cancel or vary the authorised person'spermissions. If the FCA2 has concerns with a person's fitness to be approved, and
DEPP 6A.3.2GRP
The following factors may be relevant to determining the appropriate length of the period of suspension, restriction,4 condition or disciplinary prohibition4 to be imposed on a person under the Act:3(1) DeterrenceWhen determining the appropriate length of the period of suspension, restriction,4 condition or disciplinary prohibition4 the FCA2 will have regard to the principal purpose for which it imposes sanctions, namely to promote high standards of regulatory and/or market conduct
DEPP 6A.3.3GRP
The FCA2 may delay the commencement of the period of suspension,4 restriction or disciplinary prohibition4. In deciding whether this is appropriate, the FCA2 will take into account all the circumstances of a case. Considerations that may be relevant in respect of an authorised person, sponsor or primary information provider2 include:22(1) the impact of the suspension or restriction on consumers;(2) any practical measures the authorised person, sponsor or primary information provider2
COLL 5.2.22AGRP
[deleted]131(1) In the FCA's view the requirement in COLL 5.2.22R (1)(a) can be met where:(a) the risks of the underlying financial instrument of a derivative can be appropriately represented by another financial instrument and the underlying financial instrument is highly liquid; or(b) the authorised fund manager or the depositary has the right to settle the derivative in cash, and cover exists within the scheme property which falls within one of the following asset classes:(i)
COLL 5.2.35GRP
(1) 15A syndicated loan for the purposes of this guidance means a form of loan where a group or syndicate of parties lend money to a third party and, in return, receive interest payments during the life of the debt and a return of principal either at the end of the loan period or amortised over the life of the loan. Such loans are usually arranged through agent banks which may, among other things, maintain a record of the lenders’ interest in the loan and arrange or act as a