Related provisions for SUP 18.2.50
21 - 40 of 238 items.
A UK firm17 cannot establish a branch in another EEA State for the first time under an EEA right unless the relevant13 conditions in paragraphs 19(2), (4) and (5)12 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act are satisfied. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to contravene this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). These conditions are that:913121213(1) the UKfirm has given the appropriate UK regulator,20 in accordance with the
4An appointed representative appointed by a firm to carry on insurance mediation activity on its behalf may establish a branch in another EEA State under the Insurance Mediation Directive. In this case, the notice of intention8 in SUP 13.3.2 G (1) should be given to the appropriate UK regulator20 by the firm on behalf of the appointed representative.5820
(1) 8If the UK firm'sEEA right derives from the CRD12 or10MiFID8,10 the appropriate UK regulator20 will give the Host State regulator a consent notice within three months unless it has reason to doubt the adequacy of a UK firm's resources or its administrative structure.8 The Host State regulator then has a further two months to notify the applicable provisions (if any) and prepare for the supervision, as appropriate, of the UK firm, or in the case of a MiFID investment firm,
20Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give a consent notice, except where paragraph 19(7A) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act applies. Where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give a consent notice in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
(1) If the appropriate UK regulator20 gives a consent notice, it will inform the UK firm in writing that it has done so.20(2) The consent notice will contain, among other matters, the requisite details17 (see SUP 13 Annex 18) provided by the UK firm in its notice of intention8 (see SUP 13.5 (Notices of intention)).8815158888(3) 10Where a consent notice is given under the UCITS Directive, the FCA20 will at the same time: 20(a) communicate to the Host State regulator details of
(1) If the appropriate UK regulator20 proposes to refuse to give a consent notice, then paragraph 19(8) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the appropriate UK regulator20 to give the UK firm a warning notice.2020(2) If the appropriate UK regulator20 decides to refuse to give a consent notice, then paragraph 19(12) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the appropriate UK regulator20 to give the UK firm a decision notice within three months8 of the date on which
Firms are reminded that SUP 15.6.4 R requires them to notify the appropriate regulator4 if information notified under SUP 11.4.2 R, SUP 11.4.2A R3 or SUP 11.4.4 R was false, misleading, inaccurate, incomplete, or changes, in a material particular. This would include a firm becoming aware of information that it would have been required to provide under SUP 11.5.1 R if it had been aware of it.144
After submitting a section 178 notice2under SUP 11.4.2 R orSUP 11.4.2A R2 and until the change in control occurs (or is no longer to take place), SUP 15.6.4 R and SUP 15.6.5 R apply to a UK domestic firm in relation to any information its controller or proposed controller provided to the appropriate regulator4 under SUP 11.5.1 R or SUP 11.3.7 D.1224
(1) This section applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager of an AUT, ACS1 or ICVC;(b) any other director of an ICVC; and(c) an ICVC;which is a UCITS scheme whose units may be marketed in another EEA State (the Host State).(2) The marketing of units of a UCITS scheme in the Host State may not commence until the FCA has, in accordance with paragraph 20B(5) (Notice of intention to market) of Schedule 3 to the Act, notified the authorised fund manager, in response to the application
The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme whose units are being marketed in a Host State should be aware that it may be required by the laws, regulations and administrative provisions of the Host State regulator to maintain facilities in that State, including for making payments to unitholders, repurchasing or redeeming units and making available the information which is required to be provided in relation to the scheme.[Note: article 92 of the UCITS Directive]
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme whose units are being marketed in a Host State must ensure that investors within the territory of that Host State are provided with all the information and documents which it is required by the Handbook to provide to investors in the United Kingdom.(2) The information and documents referred to in (1) must be provided to investors in the way prescribed by the laws, regulations or administrative provisions of the Host State and in
(1) The authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme whose units are being marketed in a Host State must ensure that an electronic copy of each document referred to in COLL 12.4.4 R (1) is made available on: (a) the website of the UCITS scheme or the authorised fund manager; or(b) another website designated by the authorised fund manager in the notification letter submitted to the FCA under paragraph 20B of Schedule 3 to the Act or any updates to it. (2) Any document that is made
A UK firm17 or an AIFM exercising an EEA right to market an AIF under AIFMD13,9 cannot start providing cross border services into another EEA State under an EEA right unless it satisfies the conditions in paragraphs 20(1) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act and, if it derives its EEA right from17AIFMD, MiFID or the UCITS Directive,13paragraph 20(4B) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act. If a UK firm derives its EEA right from the MCD, it cannot start providing cross border services
4An appointed representative appointed by a firm to carry on insurance mediation activity on its behalf may provide cross border services in another EEA State under the Insurance Mediation Directive. In this case, the notice of intention8 in SUP 13.4.2 G (1) should be given to the appropriate UK regulator20 by the firm on behalf of the appointed representative5.820
8(2) [deleted]17(2A) 8(a) If the UK firm'sEEA right derives from the Insurance Mediation Directive, and the EEA State in which the UK firm is seeking to provide services has notified the European Commission of its wish to be informed of the intention of persons to provide cross border services in its territory in accordance with article 6(2) of that directive, paragraph 20(3B)(a) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the appropriate UK regulator20 to send a copy of the
20Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give a consent notice and where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give a consent notice in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
If a firm intends to cease carrying on one or more regulated activities permanently, it should give prompt notice to the appropriate regulator8 to comply with Principle 11 (see SUP 15.3.8 G (1)(d)). A firm should consider whether it needs to notify the appropriate regulator8 before applying to vary or cancel its Part 4A permission.8888
Discussions with the appropriate regulator8 are particularly relevant where the firm has to discharge obligations to its customers or policyholders before it can cease carrying on a regulated activity. This may be the case, for example, where the firm is an insurer, a bank a dormant account fund operator,4 or, as is often the case, holding client money or customer assets.8
A firm which is winding down (running off) its activities should contact its supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator8 to discuss its circumstances. Discussions will focus on8 the firm's winding down plans and the need for the firm to vary or cancel itsPart 4A permission and/or the need to impose a new requirement, vary any existing requirement or cancel such a requirement. Following these discussions the firm should usually make the relevant application, as appropria
(1) Specific guidance on the additional procedures for a firm winding down (running off) its business in the circumstances discussed in SUP 6.2.8 G is in SUP 6 Annex 4.(2) The guidance in SUP 6 Annex 4 applies to any firm that is applying for variation of Part 4A permission or for the imposition, variation or cancellation of a requirement before it applies for cancellation of Part 4A permission8 to enable it to wind down (run off) its business over a long term period of six months
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part 4A permission from the appropriate UK regulator3 to do so (see the appropriate UK regulator's website: www.fca.org.uk/firms/authorisation/apply-authorisation for the FCA and
Where theappropriate UK regulator3 grants a top-up permission to an incoming EEA firm to carry on regulated activities for which it has neither an EEA right nor a Treaty right, the appropriate UK regulator3 is responsible for the prudential supervision of the incoming EEA firm, to the extent that the responsibility is not reserved to the incoming EEA firm'sHome State regulator. 33
For guidance on how to apply for Part 4A permission3 under the Act, see the appropriate UK regulator's website: http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation/getting-authorised for the FCA and www.bankofengland.co.uk/pra/Pages/authorisations/newfirm/default.aspx for the PRA.31 If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part
Sections 87H and 87I of the Act provide:
Prospectus approved in another EEA State |
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87H |
(1) |
A prospectus approved by the competent authority of an EEA State other than the United Kingdom is not an approved prospectus for the purposes of section 85 unless that authority has notified ESMA and provided the competent authority with -3 |
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(a) |
a certificate of approval; |
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(b) |
a copy of the prospectus as approved; and |
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(c) |
if requested by the [FCA], a translation of the summary of the prospectus. |
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(2) |
A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states that the prospectus - |
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(a) |
has been drawn up in accordance with the prospectus directive; and |
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(b) |
has been approved, in accordance with that directive, by the competent authority providing the certificate. |
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(3) |
A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states whether (and, if so, why) the competent authority providing it authorised, in accordance with the prospectus directive, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included. |
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3(3A) |
The competent authority must publish on its website a list of certificates of approval provided to it in accordance with this section. |
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3(3B) |
The list referred to in subsection (3A) must - |
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(a) |
be kept up-to-date; |
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(b) |
retain items on it for a period of at least 12 months; and |
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(c) |
include hyperlinks to any certificate of approval and prospectus published on the website of - |
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(i) |
the competent authority of the EEA State which provided the certificate; |
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(ii) |
the issuer; or |
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(iii) |
the regulated market where admission to trading is sought. |
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(4) |
"Prospectus" includes a supplementary prospectus. |
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Provision of information to host Member State |
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87I |
(1) |
The [FCA] must, if requested to do so, supply the competent authority of a specified EEA State with – |
|
(a) |
a certificate of approval; |
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(b) |
a copy of the specified prospectus (as approved by the [FCA]); and |
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(c) |
a translation of the summary of the specified prospectus (if the request states that one has been requested by the other competent authority).2 |
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(1A)2 |
If the competent authority supplies a certificate of approval to the competent authority of the specified EEA State, it must also supply a copy of that certificate to - |
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(a) |
the person who made the request under this section; and |
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(b) |
ESMA. |
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(2) |
Only the following may make a request under this section – |
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(a) |
the issuer of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates; |
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(b) |
a person who wishes to offer the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to the public in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom; |
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(c) |
a person requesting the admission of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to a regulated market situated or operating in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom. |
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(3) |
A certificate of approval must state that the prospectus – |
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(a) |
has been drawn up in accordance with this Part and the prospectus directive; and |
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(b) |
has been approved, in accordance with those provisions, by the [FCA]. |
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(4) |
A certificate of approval must state whether (and, if so, why) the [FCA] authorised, in accordance with section 87B, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included. |
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(5) |
The [FCA] must comply with a request under this section – |
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(a) |
if the prospectus has been approved before the request is made, within 3 working days beginning with the date the request is received2; or 2 |
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(b) |
if the request is submitted with an application for the approval of the prospectus, on the first working day after the date on which it approves the prospectus. |
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(6) |
“Prospectus” includes a supplementary prospectus. |
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(7) |
“Specified” means specified in a request made for the purposes of this section. |
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(1) This rule applies to a request by a person to the FCA to supply information referred to in section 87I of the Act to the competent authority of a relevant Host State.(2) The request must be in writing and must include:(a) the relevant prospectus as approved (if it has already been approved); and(b) a translation of the summary if required by the competent authority of a relevant host State.4[Note: See PR 3.1.-1EU for the additional requirements where a request is made prior
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 6
2(1) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to promote and maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing in the carrying on of regulated activities by persons in the course of using the facilities provided by the [UK RIE]. |
(2) The [UK RIE] must be able and willing to cooperate by the sharing of information or otherwise, with the [FCA].4with any other authority, body or person having responsibility in the United Kingdom for the supervision or regulation of any regulated activity or other financial service, or with an overseas regulator within the meaning of section 195 of the Act. 4 |
In assessing the ability of a UK recognised body to cooperate with the FCA4 and other appropriate bodies, the FCA4 may have regard to the extent to which the constitution and rules of the UK recognised body and its agreements with its members enable it to obtain information from members and to disclose otherwise confidential information to the FCA4 and other appropriate bodies.444
In assessing the willingness of a UK recognised body to cooperate with the FCA4 and other appropriate bodies, the FCA4 may have regard to:44(1) the extent to which the UK recognised body is willing to provide information about it and its activities to assist the FCA4 in the exercise of its functions;4(2) the extent to which the UK recognised body is open with the FCA4 or other appropriate bodies in regulatory matters;4(3) how diligently the UK recognised body investigates or pursues
Information to be submitted by the firm (see SUP 11.4.7 R (2)(a))
(1) |
The name of the firm; |
(2) |
the name of the controller or proposed controller and, if it is a body corporate and is not an authorised person, the names of its directors and its controllers; |
(3) |
a description of the proposed event including the shareholding and voting power of the person concerned, both before and after the change in control; and5 |
(4) |
any other information of which the appropriate regulator7 would reasonably expect notice.5 7 |
Firms are reminded that a change in control may give rise to a change in the groupcompanies to which the appropriate regulator's7 consolidated financial supervision requirements apply. Also, the firm may for the first time become subject to the appropriate regulator's7 requirements on consolidated financial supervision (or equivalent requirements imposed by another EEA State). This may apply, for example, if the controller is itself an authorised undertaking. The appropriate regulator7
A firm and its controller or proposed controller may discharge an obligation to notify the appropriate regulator7 by submitting a single joint section 178 notice5containing the information required from the firm and the controller or proposed controller. In this case, the section 178 notice53 may be used on behalf of both the firm and the controller or proposed controller.75355
When an event occurs (for example, a group restructuring or a merger) as a result of which: (1) more than one firm in a group would undergo a change in control; or(2) a single firm would experience more than one change in control;then, to avoid duplication of documentation, all the firms and their controllers or proposed controllers may discharge their respective obligations to notify the appropriate regulator7 by submitting a single section 178 notice5 to the PRA7 containing
Under section 33(2) of the Act (Withdrawal of authorisation), if the appropriate regulator cancels a firm'sPart 4A permission,1 and as a result there is no regulated activity for which the firm has permission, the regulator authorising that firm1 is required to give a direction withdrawing the firm's status as an authorised person.111
(1) If an offer is
made, or admission to trading is
sought, in one or more EEA States excluding
the United Kingdom and the United Kingdom is the Home
State, the prospectus must
be drawn up in a language accepted by the competent authorities of those EEA States or in a language customary in
the sphere of international finance, at the choice of the issuer, offeror or person requesting
admission (as the case may be). [ Note: article
19.2 PD ](2) For the purpose of the scrutiny
by
If admission
to trading of non-equity transferable
securities whose denomination per unit amounts to at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount)
is sought in the United Kingdom or
in one or more other EEA States,
the prospectus must be drawn
up in either a language accepted by the competent authorities of the Home State and Host
States or in a language customary in the sphere of international
finance, at the choice of the issuer, offeror or person requesting
admission (as
If:(1) an offer is
made in the United Kingdom;(2) a prospectus relating
to the transferable securities has
been approved by the competent authority of another EEA
State and the prospectus contains
a summary; and(3) the prospectus is drawn up in a language other than English
that is customary in the sphere of international finance;222the offeror must
ensure that the summary is
translated into English. [ Note: article
19.2 PD ]
In the FCA's view the requirements relating to risk management policy and risk measurement set out in this section are the regulatory responsibility of the management company'sHome State regulator but to the extent that they constitute fund application rules, are also the responsibility of the UCITS'Home State regulator. As such, these responsibilities may overlap between the competent authorities of the Home and Host States. EEA UCITS management companies providing collective
UK UCITS management companies operating EEA UCITS schemes are advised that to the extent that the matters referred to in COLL 6.12.5 R (3)(a) are viewed by the UCITSHome State regulator as falling under its responsibility, they will be expected to comply with the UCITS Home State measures implementing articles 40 and 41 of the UCITS implementing Directive.
UK UCITS management companies operating EEA UCITS schemes are advised that to the extent that the matters referred to in COLL 6.12.9R (1)(b) are viewed by the UCITSHome State regulator as falling under its responsibility, they will be expected to comply with the UCITS Home State measures implementing articles 41 and 43 of the UCITS implementing Directive.
(1) An authorised fund manager or a UKUCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must employ an appropriate liquidity risk management process in order to ensure that each UCITS it manages is able to comply at any time with COLL 6.2.16 R (Sale and redemption) or the equivalent UCITS Home State measures implementing article 84(1) of the UCITS Directive.(2) Where appropriate, the authorised fund manager or UKUCITS management company must conduct stress tests to enable it to
For the purposes of paragraph 13(2)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the applicable provisions may include the appropriate UK regulator's11rules. The EEA firm is required to comply with relevant rules when carrying on a passported activity through a branch in the United Kingdom as well as with relevant UK legislation.11
(1) When the appropriate regulator11 receives a consent notice from the EEA firm'sHome State regulator, it will, under paragraphs 13(2)(b), (c) and 13(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify the applicable provisions (if any)911within two months of the notice2 date.2(1A) The notice date is:2(a) for a MiFID investment firm, the date on which the Home State gave the consent notice; and2(b) in any other case, the date on which the appropriate UK regulator11 received the consent
(1) 11Where the PRA receives a consent notice, it will give a copy to the FCA without delay, and where the FCA receives a consent notice it will give a copy to the PRA, where relevant, without delay.(2) In a case where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, the consent of the PRA is required for any notification by the FCA which relates to:(a) a PRA-regulated activity;(b) a PRA-authorised person; or(c) a person whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
(1) Strategy and plans will often dictate the risk which the business is prepared to take on and high-level controls will dictate how the business is to be run. If the strategy of the business is to enter high-risk areas, then the degree of control and strength of monitoring reasonably required within the business will be high. In organising the business for which they are responsible, senior conduct rules staff members should bear this in mind.4(2) (a) Strategy and plans for
For the purpose of rule SC4 in COCON 2.2.4R, regulators in addition to the FCA and the PRA are those which have recognised jurisdiction in relation to activities to which COCON applies and have a power to call for information from the relevant person in connection with their function or the business for which they are responsible. This may include an exchange or an overseas regulator.
SC4 applies to senior conduct rules staff members in addition to rule 3 in COCON 2.1.3R. Although, the rules have some overlap, they are different. Rule 3 normally relates to responses from individuals to requests from the regulator, whereas rule SC4 imposes a duty on a senior conduct rules staff member to disclose appropriately any information of which the appropriate regulator would reasonably expect, including making a disclosure in the absence of any request or enquiry from
Where a senior conduct rules staff member is responsible within the firm (individually or with other senior conduct rules staff members) for reporting matters to the regulator, failing promptly to inform the regulator concerned of information of which they are aware and which it would be reasonable to assume would be of material significance to the regulator concerned, whether in response to questions or otherwise, constitutes a breach of rule SC4 in COCON 2.2.4R.
(1) If a senior conduct rules staff member comes across a piece of information that is something of3 which they think the FCA or PRA could reasonably expect notice, they should determine whether that information falls within the scope of their responsibilities:2(a) (for an SMF manager)2 by virtue of that person’sstatement of responsibilities; or2(b) (for an approved person performing a significant influence function in a Solvency II firm or a small non-directive insurer3) including
1Section 59(1) is relevant where the firm directly employs the person concerned. Under the provision, a firm ('A') must take reasonable care to ensure that no person performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by A in relation to the carrying on by it of a regulated activity, unless the appropriate regulator (as defined in section 59(4) of the Act)
approves the performance by that person of the controlled function to which the approval relates.
1Section 59(2) is relevant where the person is employed by a contractor of the firm. It requires a firm ('A') to take reasonable care to ensure that no person performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a contractor of A in relation to the carrying on by A of a regulated activity, unless the appropriate regulator (as defined in section 59(4) of the Act)
approves the performance by that person of the controlled function to which the approval
1DEPP 7 applies when the FCA3:3(1) has appointed an investigator at
the request of an overseas regulator,
under section 169(1)(b) (Assistance to overseas regulators) or of an EEA regulator under
section 131FA2 of the Act;
and(2) has directed, or is considering
directing, the investigator, under section 169(7) or section 131FA2 of the Act,
to permit a representative of the overseas
regulator or
of the EEA regulator2 to attend, and take part in, any interview conducted for the
purposes
1The FCA's power to conduct investigations to assist overseas authorities is contained in section 169 of the Act. The section provides that at the request of an overseas regulator, the FCA may use its power under section 165 to require the production of documents or the provision of information under section 165 or to appoint a person to investigate any matter.
1If the overseas regulator is a competent authority and makes a request in pursuance of any Community obligation, section 169(3) states that the FCA must, in deciding whether or not to exercise its investigative power, consider whether the exercise of that power is necessary to comply with that obligation.
(1) Subject to (1A), a 11firm other than a credit union wishing to cancel its Part 4A permission, must apply online at the appropriate regulator website using the form specified on the online notification and application system16.9112412129(1A) An FCA-authorised person wishing to cancel its Part 4A permission which covers only credit-related regulated activities must submit any form, notice or application by using the form in SUP 6 Annex 6 and submitting it in the way set out
The relevant regulator24 may require additional information, including professional advice, to supplement or support the report in SUP 6.4.9 G where it considers this appropriate. Examples of reports that may be requested by the relevant regulator24 include, but are not limited to those detailed in SUP 6.4.16 G.2424
(1) A firm which is applying for cancellation of Part 4A permission and which is not otherwise authorised by, or under, the Act should, at the same time:15(a) comply with:15(i) SUP 10A.14.8R (for a firm that is not a relevant authorised person);15(ii) SUP 10C.14.5R (for a relevant authorised person); or15(iii) the corresponding PRA requirements; and15(b) notify the appropriate regulator of persons ceasing to perform controlled functions specified by that regulator.15(2) These
In deciding whether to cancel a firm'sPart 4A permission, the relevant regulator24 will take into account all relevant factors in relation to business carried on under that permission, including whether:24(1) there are unresolved, unsatisfied or undischarged complaints against the firm from any of its customers;(2) the firm has complied with CASS 5.5.80 R and CASS 7.11.34R 13 (Client money: discharge of fiduciary duty)24 and CASS 7.11.50 R135(Client money: allocated but unclaimed
(1) 1The following provisions of the MiFI Regulations regulate the establishment, application and resetting of position limits:
(a) Regulation 16(1) imposes an obligation on the FCA to establish position limits in respect of commodity derivatives traded on trading venues in the United Kingdom and economically equivalent OTC contracts;
(b) Regulation 16(2) imposes an obligation on the FCA to establish position limits on the basis of all positions held by a person in the contract
(1) 1A person must comply at all times with commodity derivative position limits established by the FCA, published at www.fca.org.uk. (2) A direction made under (1) applies where a commodity derivative is traded on a trading venue in the United Kingdom, provided that there is not a central competent authority established in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom. (3) Position limits established under (1) shall apply to the positions held by a person together with those held
1Where a position limit is established by a competent authority or central competent authority other than the FCA, a non-financial entity should submit its application for exemption, in relation to the position limit, to that competent authority or central competent authority in the manner it specifies.
[Note: article 8 of MiFID RTS 21]
For the purpose of rule 3 in COCON 2.1.3R, regulators other than the FCA and the PRA are those which have recognised jurisdiction in relation to activities to which COCON applies and have a power to call for information from the firm or from individuals performing certain functions in connection with those regulated activities. This may include an exchange or an overseas regulator.
There is no duty on a person to report information directly to the regulator concerned unless they are one of the persons responsible within the firm for reporting matters to the regulator concerned. However, if a person takes steps to influence the decision not to report to the regulator concerned or acts in a way that is intended to obstruct the reporting of the information to the regulator concerned, then the appropriate regulator will, in respect of that information, view