Related provisions for PERG 6.5.2
261 - 280 of 1122 items.
1(1) 1SYSC 22 (Regulatory references) says that if1 a firm (A):1(a) is considering appointing a person (P)1 to perform any1controlled function or certain other functions1; (b) requests a reference from a firm (B) that is P’s1 current or former employer1; and(c) indicates to B the purpose of the request;B should1, as soon as reasonably practicable, give a reference1 to A1(2) This applies even if A is a firm to which SUP 10A (FCA Approved Persons) applies rather than this chapt
(1) The obligations to supply information to:(a) the FCA under this chapter;(b) [deleted]1apply notwithstanding any:(c) agreement (for example a 'COT 3' Agreement settled by the Advisory, Conciliation and Arbitration Service (ACAS)); or(d) any other arrangements entered into by a firm and an employee upon termination of the employee’s employment.(2) A firm should not enter into any such arrangements or agreements that could conflict with its obligations under this chapter.
1Section 365(6) of the Act makes it clear that the FCA may petition for the compulsory winding up of a company even if it is already in voluntary winding up. This power is already available to creditors and contributories of companies in voluntary winding up. For example, the court can be asked to direct the liquidator to investigate a transaction which the company undertook before the winding up. In some circumstances, this power may be used in respect of partnerships (section
1Given the powers available to creditors (or contributories), the FCA anticipates that there will only be a limited number of cases where it will exercise the right under section 365(6) to petition for the compulsory winding up of a company already in voluntary winding up. The FCA will only be able to exercise this right where one or both of the grounds on which it can seek compulsory winding up are met.
1Factors which the FCA will consider when it decides whether to use this power (in addition to the factors identified in paragraphs 13.5.1 to 13.6.3 in relation to the FCA's decisions to seek compulsory winding up) include: (1) whether the FCA's concerns can properly and effectively be met by seeking a specific direction under section 365(2) of the Act;
(2) whether the affairs of the company require independent investigation of the kind which follows a compulsory
1The FCA will not normally make public the fact that it is or is not investigating a particular matter, or any of the findings or conclusions of an investigation except as described in other sections of this chapter. The following paragraphs deal with the exceptional circumstances in which the FCA may make a public announcement that it is or is not investigating a particular matter.
1Where the matter in question has occurred in the context of a takeover bid, and the following circumstances apply, the FCA may make a public announcement that it is not investigating, and does not propose to investigate, the matter. Those circumstances are where the FCA:(1) has not appointed, and does not propose to appoint, investigators; and (2) considers (following discussion with the Takeover Panel) that such an announcement is appropriate in the interests of preventing or
1Where it is investigating any matter, the FCA will, in exceptional circumstances, make a public announcement that it is doing so if it considers such an announcement is desirable to: (1) maintain public confidence in the financial system or the market; or (2) protect consumers or investors; or (3) prevent widespread malpractice; or (4) help the investigation itself, for example by bringing forward witnesses; or (5) maintain the smooth operation of the market. In deciding whether
1The exceptional circumstances referred to above may arise where the matters under investigation have become the subject of public concern, speculation or rumour. In this case it may be desirable for the FCA to make public the fact of its investigation in order to allay concern, or contain the speculation or rumour. Where the matter in question relates to a takeover bid, the FCA will discuss any announcement beforehand with the Takeover Panel. Any announcement will be subject
1The FCA will not normally publish details of the information found or conclusions reached during its investigations. In many cases, statutory restrictions on the disclosure of information obtained by the FCA in the course of exercising its functions are likely to prevent publication (see section 348 of the Act). In exceptional circumstances, and where it is not prevented from doing so, the FCA may publish details. Circumstances in which it may do so include those where the fact
(1) One purpose of the management responsibilities map is to help the firm and the FCA satisfy themselves that the firm has a clear organisational structure (as required by SYSC).(2) It also helps the FCA to identify who it needs to speak to about particular issues and who is accountable if something goes wrong.
A management responsibilities map must include:(1) (a) the names of all the firm's:(i) approved persons (including PRA approved persons); (ii) members of its governing body and (if different) management body who are not approved persons; (iii) senior management; and(iv) senior personnel; and(b) details of the responsibilities which they hold;(2) all responsibilities described in any current statement of responsibilities; (3) details of the management and governance arrangements
(1) This provision gives guidance on specific aspects of SYSC 4.5.5R and SYSC 4.5.7R.(2) A firm need only include summary details of the persons in SYSC 4.5.7R(1).(3) A firm'sSMF managers and members of its governing body may overlap with its senior management and senior personnel. If so, the firm does not have to give the same details twice.(4) A firm should include details of individuals in addition to those in SYSC 4.5.7R(1), (3) and (5) if they are needed to make the management
(1) The FCA expects that the management responsibilities map of a small and non-complex firm is likely to be simple and short. It may be no more than a single sheet of paper.(2) A firm is likely to be small and non-complex for these purposes if:(a) it is:(i) a small CRR firm as defined in the part of the PRA's rulebook called “Allocation of responsibilities”; or(ii) a credit union that meets the size requirements for small CRR firms under the PRA's requirements in (a)(i);(b) it
(1) An overseas firm, which is not an incoming firm, must notify the FCA4 within 30 business days of any person taking up or ceasing to hold the following positions:88(a) the firm's worldwide chief executive (that is, the person who, alone or jointly with one or more others, is responsible under the immediate authority of the directors for the whole of its business) if the person is based outside the United Kingdom;(b) the person within the overseas firm with a purely strategic
SUP 15.4.1 R is not made under the powers conferred on the FCA4 by Part V of the Act (Performance of Regulated Activities). A person notified to the FCA4 under SUP 15.4.1 R is not subject to the Statements of Principle or Code of Practice for Approved Persons, unless he is also an approved person.8888
(1) A firm other than a credit union must submit the form in SUP 15 Ann 2 R online 8 using the FCA's4online notification and application system6. 888552(2) A credit union must submit the form in SUP 15 Ann 2 R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).2(3) Where a firm is obliged to submit an application online under (1), if the FCA's4 information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, until
(1) If the FCA's4 information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FCA4 will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 15.4.3R(3) and SUP 15.7.4R to SUP 15.7.9G (Form and method of notification) should be used.28888(2) Where SUP 15.4.3R (3) applies to a firm, GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergency) does not apply.2
1The FCA will consider cancelling a firm'sPart 4A permission using its own-initiative powers contained in sections 55J and 55Q respectively of the Act in two main circumstances: (1) where the FCA has very serious concerns about a firm, or the way its business is or has been conducted; (2) where the firm'sregulated activities have come to an end and it has not applied for cancellation of its Part 4A permission.
1The grounds on which the FCA may exercise its power to cancel an authorised person's
permission under section 55J of the Act are the same as the grounds for variation and for imposition of requirements. They are set out in section 55J(1) and section 55L(2) and described in EG 8.1.1. Examples of the types of circumstances in which the FCA may cancel a firm'sPart 4A permission include: (1) non-compliance with a Financial Ombudsman Service award against the
1Depending on the circumstances, the FCA may need to consider whether it should first use its own-initiative powers to impose requirements on a firm or to vary a firm'sPart 4A permission before going on to cancel it. Amongst other circumstances, the FCA may use this power where it considers it needs to take immediate action against a firm because of the urgency and seriousness of the situation.
1Where the situation appears so urgent and serious that the firm should immediately cease to carry on all regulated activities, the FCA may first vary the firm'sPart 4A permission so that there is no longer any regulated activity for which the firm has a Part 4A permission. If it does this, the FCA will then have a duty to cancel the firm'sPart 4A permission - once it is satisfied that it is no longer necessary to keep the Part 4A permission in force.
1However, where the FCA has cancelled a firm'sPart 4A permission, it is required by section 33 of the Act to go on to give a direction withdrawing the firm'sauthorisation. Accordingly, the FCA may decide to keep a firm'sPart 4A permission in force to maintain the firm's status as an authorised person and enable it (the FCA) to monitor the firm's activities. An example is where the FCA needs to supervise an orderly winding down of the firm's regulated business (see SUP 6.4.22 (When
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 2
2(1) The [UK RIE] must be a fit and properpersonto perform the [ relevant functions ] of a [ UK RIE ]. |
(2) In considering whether this requirement is satisfied, the [FCA]4 may (without prejudice to the generality of regulation 6(1)) take into account all the circumstances, including the [UK RIE's] connection with any person. 4 |
2(3) The members of the management body5 must be of sufficiently good repute and possess sufficient knowledge, skill and experience to perform their duties5. |
2(4) The persons who are in a position to exercise significant influence over the management of the [UK RIE], whether directly or indirectly must be suitable. |
In determining whether a UK recognised body is a fit and proper person, the FCA4 may have regard to any relevant factor including, but not limited to:4(1) the commitment shown by the UK recognised body'smanagement body5 to satisfying the recognition requirements and to complying with other obligations in or under the Act;(2) its arrangements, policies and resources for fulfilling its obligations under the Act in relation to its activities as a UK recognised body;(3) the extent
In determining whether a UK recognised body is a fit and proper person, the FCA4 may have regard to its connections with:4(1) any undertaking in the same group;(2) any owner or part-owner of the UK recognised body;(3) any person who has the right to appoint or remove members of the management body5;(4) any person who is able in practice to appoint or remove members of the management body5;(5) any person in accordance with whose instructions the management body5 is accustomed to
In assessing whether its connection with any person could affect whether a UK recognised body is a fit and proper person, the FCA4 may have regard to:4(1) the reputation and standing of that other person, including his standing with any relevant UK or overseas regulator;(2) breaches of any law or regulation by that other person; (3) the roles of any of the UK recognised body's key individuals who have a position within organisations under the control or influence of that other
2In assessing whether the persons who effectively direct the business and operations of the UK RIE are of sufficiently good repute and sufficiently experienced to ensure the sound and prudent management and operation of the financial markets operated by 3it, the FCA4 may have regard to the repute and experience of the UK RIE'skey individuals.4
(1) 1Unless (1A) applies to the firm, where,27 in accordance with DISP 1.10.1 R, a firm submits a report to the
FCA
reporting 500 or more complaints, it must publish a summary of the complaints data contained in that report (the complaints data summary).27(1A) (a) This paragraph applies to a firm which:(i) has permission to carry on only credit-related regulated activities or to operate an electronic system in relation to lending3; and(ii) has revenue arising from those activities3
A firm must immediately confirm to the
FCA
, in an email submitted to
complaintsdatasummary@fca.org.uk ,
that the complaints data summary or total number of complaints (as appropriate)27 accurately reflects the report submitted to the
FCA
, that the summary or total number of complaints (as appropriate)27 has been published and where it has been published.
Firms may choose how they publish the complaints data summary or total number of complaints (as appropriate)27. However, the summary or total number of complaints (as appropriate)27 should be readily available. For this reason, the
FCA
recommends that firms should publish the summary or total number of complaints (as appropriate)27 on their websites.
(1) 4To improve consumer awareness and to help firms compare their performance against their peers, the FCA publishes:(a) complaints data about the financial services industry as a whole; and(b) firm-level complaints data for those firms that are required to publish a complaints data summary or the total number of complaints (as appropriate) under DISP 1.10A.1R.(2) The FCA also publishes firm-level information giving context to the complaints data reported to it for those firms
4For firms reporting 500 or more complaints under DISP 1.10.1R(1) or 1000 or more complaints under DISP 1.10.1R(2) in the relevant reporting period, the FCA will publish the firm-level complaints data and information providing context to the complaints data reported to it either:(1) after the firm provides the appropriate consent in the complaints data report and confirms that the reported data accurately reflects the data which it will publish under DISP1.10A.1R; or(2) after
4For firms with only a limited permission that report complaints to the FCA under the reporting requirements in SUP 16.12, the FCA will publish the firm-level complaints data reported to it after the FCA receives an email from the firm under DISP 1.10A.4R. That email should confirm that the total number of complaints accurately reflects the report submitted to the FCA under SUP 16.12, that the total number of complaints has been published and where the information has been pu
1The FCA's effective and proportionate use of its enforcement powers plays an important role in the pursuit of its statutory objectives, including its operational objectives of securing an appropriate degree of protection for consumers, protecting and enhancing the integrity of the UK financial system, and promoting effective competition in the interests of consumers. For example, using enforcement helps to contribute to the protection of consumers and to deter future contraventions
1There are a number of principles underlying the FCA's approach to the exercise of its enforcement powers: (1) The effectiveness of the regulatory regime depends to a significant extent on maintaining an open and co-operative relationship between the FCA and those it regulates.(2) The FCA will seek to exercise its enforcement powers in a manner that is transparent, proportionate, responsive to the issue, and consistent with its publicly stated policies.(3) The FCA will seek to
1Enforcement is only one of a number of regulatory tools available to the FCA. As a risk based regulator with limited resources, throughout its work the FCA prioritises its resources in the areas which pose the biggest threat to its statutory objectives. This applies as much to the enforcement tool as it does to any other tool available to it. The next section of this chapter summarises how in practice the FCA takes a risk based approach towards its use of the enforcement tool,
1Where a firm or other person has failed to comply with the requirements of the Act, the rules, or other relevant legislation, it may be appropriate to deal with this without the need for formal disciplinary or other enforcement action. The proactive supervision and monitoring of firms, and an open and cooperative relationship between firms and their supervisors, will, in some cases where a contravention has taken place, lead the FCA to decide against taking formal disciplinary
If a decision maker is asked to decide whether to give a decision notice or second supervisory notice, it will:(1) review the material before it;(2) consider any representations made (whether written, oral or both) and any comments by FCA1 staff or others in respect of those representations;1(3) decide whether to give the notice and the terms of any notice given.
If the FCA1 receives no response or representations within the period specified in a warning notice, the decision maker may regard as undisputed the allegations or matters in that notice and a decision notice will be given accordingly. A person who has received a decision notice and has not previously made any response or representations to the FCA1, may nevertheless refer the FCA's1 decision to the Tribunal.111
If the FCA1 receives no response or representations within the period specified in a first supervisory notice, the FCA1 will not give a second supervisory notice. The outcome depends on when the relevant action took or takes effect (as stated in the notice). If the action:11(1) took effect immediately, or on a specified date which has already passed, it continues to have effect (subject to any decision on a referral to the Tribunal); or(2) was to take effect on a specified date
Under section 388(3) of the Act, following the giving of a decision notice but before the FCA1 takes action to which the decision notice relates, the FCA1 may give the person concerned a further decision notice relating to different action concerning the same matter. Under section 388(4) of the Act, the FCA1 can only do this if the person receiving the further decision notice gives its consent. In these circumstances the following procedure will apply:111(1) FCA1staff will recommend
(1) When deciding whether to take enforcement
action under Part 7 of the RCB Regulations,
and what form that enforcement action should take, the FCA will consider all relevant factors,
including:(a) the relevant factors on decisions to take action set out in DEPP 6.2.1 G;(b) whether any contractual or other arrangements agreed between the
parties can be used effectively to address any perceived failure under the RCB Regulations; and(c) the interests of investors in the relevant
When considering whether to impose
a financial penalty, the amount of penalty, and whether to impose the penalty
on the issuer or the owner, the FCA will have regard, where relevant,1 to:(1) the statement on determining the appropriate level of a financial
penalty set out 1in DEPP 6.5 to DEPP 6.5D1;(2) the particular arrangements between the issuer and
the owner; (3) the likely impact of the penalty on the interests of investors
in a regulated covered bond;
and(4) the conduct
In the FCA's view the requirements relating to risk management policy and risk measurement set out in this section are the regulatory responsibility of the management company'sHome State regulator but to the extent that they constitute fund application rules, are also the responsibility of the UCITS'Home State regulator. As such, these responsibilities may overlap between the competent authorities of the Home and Host States. EEA UCITS management companies providing collective
(1) 3(a) An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must use a risk management process enabling it to monitor and measure at any time the risk of the scheme's positions and their contribution to the overall risk profile of the scheme.3(b) In particular, an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must not solely or mechanistically rely on credit ratings issued by
5An authorised fund manager or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme subject to COLL 6.12.3R(2) must notify the FCA of the information specified in points (a) and (b) of that rule:(1) annually, within 30 business days of 31 October, with information that is accurate as of 31 October of that year;(2) using the form in COLL 6 Annex 2R; and(3) by submitting it:(a) online through the appropriate systems accessible from the FCA’s website; or(b) if the appropriate
(1) 5In addition, an authorised fund manager or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme subject to COLL 6.12.3R(2) should submit a notification to the FCA if there has been a significant change to the fund’s risk profile since its last report, by sending the form in COLL 6 Annex 2R, completed as applicable, to fundsupervision@fca.org.uk.(2) A significant change to the fund’s risk profile could include, but is not limited to:(a) the first use of derivatives for investment
(1) An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must assess, monitor and periodically review:(a) the adequacy and effectiveness of the risk management policy and of the arrangements, processes and techniques referred to in COLL 6.12.5 R;(b) the level of compliance by the authorised fund manager or the UK UCITS management company with the risk management policy and with those arrangements, processes and techniques referred
UK UCITS management companies are advised that when they applied for authorisation from the FCA under the Act, their ability to comply with the requirements in COLL 6.12.7 R would have been assessed by the FCA as an aspect of their fitness and properness in determining whether the threshold conditions set out in Schedule 6 (Threshold conditions) of the Act were met. Firms are further advised that their compliance with these requirements is subject to review by the FCA on an ongoing
In the FCA view, this means that the reasonable investor must be satisfied that what he will get when he realises his investment is his proportionate share in the value of BC's underlying assets, less any dealing costs. In other words, that he is satisfied he will get net asset value. The investment condition focuses on the way the body corporate operates over time, and not by reference to particular issues of shares or securities (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition (section
For the 'satisfaction test' to be met, there must be objectively justifiable grounds on which the reasonable investor could form a view. He must be satisfied that the value of BC's property will be the basis of a calculation used for the whole, or substantially the whole, of his investment. The FCA considers that the circumstances, or combination of circumstances, in which a reasonable investor would be in a position to form this view include:(1) where the basis of net asset valuation
PERG 9.9.3 G (2)and PERG 9.9.3 G (3) refer to circumstances where the reasonable investor may be satisfied that he can realise his investment at net asset value because of arrangements made to ensure that the shares or securities trade at net asset value on a market. There may, for example, be cases of market dealing where the price of shares or securities will not depend on the market. An example is where BC or a third party undertakes to ensure that the market value reflects
However, where there is a market, the FCA does not consider that the test in section 236(3)(b) would be met if the price the investor receives for his investment is wholly dependent on the market rather than specifically on net asset value. In the FCA's view, typical market pricing mechanisms introduce too many uncertainties to be able to form a basis for calculating the value of an investment (linked to net asset value) of the kind contemplated by the satisfaction test. As a
The fact that the definition must be applied to BC as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition (section 236(3) of the Act): general)) is also relevant here. So, for example, in a take-over situation the fact that a bidder may be willing to provide an exit route for an investment at net asset value will be irrelevant within the context of the definition. This is so even if an investor invests in particular shares or securities in the knowledge or expectation or in anticipation
(1) The FCA may dispense with, or modify, a requirement in DTR 8 in such cases and by reference to such circumstances as it considers appropriate (subject to the Act).(2) A dispensation or modification may be either unconditional or subject to specified conditions.(3) If a primary information provider or a person that is applying for approval as a primary information provider has applied for, or been granted, a dispensation or modification, it must notify the FCA immediately it
(1) An application to the FCA to dispense with or modify a requirement in DTR 8 must be in writing.(2) The application must:(a) contain a clear explanation of why the dispensation or modification is requested;(b) include details of any special requirements, for example, the date by which the dispensation or modification is required;(c) contain all relevant information that should reasonably be brought to the FCA's attention;(d) contain any statement or information that is required
A primary information provider or a person applying for approval as a primary information provider must consult with the FCA at the earliest possible stage if they:(1) are in doubt about how a requirement in DTR 8 applies in a particular situation; or(2) consider that it may be necessary for the FCA to dispense with or modify a requirement in DTR 8.
Where a requirement in DTR 8 refers to consultation with the FCA, submissions must be made in writing other than in circumstances of exceptional urgency.Address for correspondenceNote: The FCA's address for correspondence in relation to DTR 8 is:Primary Market Monitoring
Enforcement and Market Oversight Division
The Financial Conduct Authority
12 Endeavour Square
London, E20 1JN
Primary Market MonitoringMarkets DivisionThe Financial Conduct Authority25 The North ColonnadeCanary
The relevant requirements in regulation 5(3) are that:(1) the incoming EEA firm has given a notice to the FCA12 (see SUP 14.4.1 G) and to its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed change;12(2) if the change arises from circumstances beyond the incoming EEA firm's control, that firm has, as soon as practicable, given to the appropriate UK regulator12 and to its Home State regulator the notice in (1).112
9Where the change arises from circumstances within the control of the incoming EEA firm, the relevant requirements in regulation 7B(4) are that: (1) the incoming EEA firm has given a notice to the FCA and its Home State regulator stating the details of the proposed changes; and (2) either: (a) the FCA has informed the incoming EEA firm that it may make the change; or(b) a period of one month has elapsed beginning with the day on which the incoming EEA firm gave the notice under
64A recognised body may also have obligations to pay fees to the FCA under other rules arising from legislation other than the Act. For example a recognised body may have an obligation to pay a fee as an approved operator of a relevant system under the Uncertificated Securities Regulations 1995 (SI 1995/3272).
The FCA34 will not refund periodic fees if, after the start of the period to which they relate:(1) a fee payer ceases to have the status set out in column (1) of the table in FEES 4.2.11 R34; or65(2) a firm reduces its permission or payment services activities 9so that it then falls out of the fee-block previously applied to it;99(but see FEES 2.3 (Relieving Provisions) and FEES 4.3.13 R (Firms Applying to Cancel or Vary Permission Before Start of Period)).
A person need not pay a periodic fee on the date on which it is due under the relevant provision in FEES 4.2.1 R, if:(1) that date falls during a period during which circumstances of the sort set out in GEN 1.3.2 R (Emergencies) exist, and that person has reasonable grounds to believe that those circumstances impair its ability to pay the fee, in which case he must pay it on or before the fifth business day after the end of that period; or(2) unless FEES 4.3.6R (3), 9FEES 4.3.6R
Table of periodic fees payable to the FCA65
651 Fee payer |
2 Fee payable |
3 Due date |
4 Events occurring during the period leading to modified periodic fee |
Any firm (except an AIFM qualifier,25ICVC or a UCITS qualifier) |
(1) Unless (2) applies, as37 specified in FEES 4.3.1 R in relation to FEES 4 Annex 2AR and FEES 4 Annex 11 R65.37 (2) Where a firm is paying a ring-fencing implementation fee, as specified in FEES 4 Annex 2BR.37 |
(1) Unless (2) or (3) apply7, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.12 (2) Unless (3) applies, if 7an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year,64 30 days after the occurrence of that event, or if later the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.7 (3) Where the permission is for operating a multilateral trading facility or operating an organised trading facility41, the date specified in FEES 4 Annex 10FEES 4 Annex 10R41 (Periodic fees for MTF and OTF41 operators). 7764 |
Firm receives permission, or becomes authorised or registered under the Payment Services Regulations, article 8 of the MCD Order32, the DRS Regulations41 or the Electronic Money Regulations12;9 or firm9extends permission or its payment service activities916 679 |
Persons who hold a certificate issued by the FCA64 under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order (Advice given in newspapers etc.) 64 |
£1,09540 3131 |
(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice23 (2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year,64 30 days after the occurrence of that event 2364 |
Certificate issued to person by FCA64 under article 4054 RAO 64 |
| 23 | In relation to each unit trust the amount specified in part 1 of 25FEES 4 Annex 4 |
Authorisation order is made in relation to the relevant scheme24 |
|
24Any authorised fund manager of an authorised contractual scheme; |
In relation to each authorised contractual scheme the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4 |
||
In relation to each ICVC,25 the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4 |
|||
Persons who, under the constitution or founding arrangements of a recognised scheme, are 33responsible for the management of the property held for or within the scheme; |
In relation to each recognised scheme the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4 |
The relevant scheme becomes a recognised scheme25 |
|
Not applicable |
|||
In relation to each ELTIF the amount specified in part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 433 |
(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33 (2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event.33 |
The ELTIF is authorised by the FCA under the ELTIF regulation33 |
|
On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23 23 |
Not applicable |
||
FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1 for a UK RIE ; and FEES 4 Annex 6 R, part 1A for a UK RIE that is also an RAP13 65 |
(1) On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23 (2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event 2364 |
Recognition order is made. The modified1166 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6 R, Part 1and (in the case of an RAP) Part 1A.131166 1166116611661166 |
|
| 65 | FEES 4 Annex 6, part 2 |
(1) On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23 (2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event. 2364 |
Recognition order is made. The modified1166 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6, Part 2.1166 1166116611661166 |
A listed issuer35 (in LR) of shares and certificates representing certain securities35. 33 |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice |
Listedissuer3 (in LR) becomes subject to listing rules 3 |
|
| 3110122323311210231 | Within 30 days of the date of the invoice |
141414 | |
All non-listed issuers (in DTR) of shares and certificates representing certain securities35. 66 |
29 | Within 30 days of the date of the invoice |
Non-listed issuer (in DTR) becomes subject to disclosure requirements36 and transparency rules629 |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice |
A person is approved as a primary information provider |
||
6All firms reporting transactions in securities derivatives10to the FCA64 in accordance with SUP 17, and market operators who provide facilities for trading in securities derivatives.10 6410 |
Within 30 days of the date of the invoice |
Not applicable |
|
15Any issuer of a regulated covered bond. |
(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R (2) If an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event or, if later, the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R 64 |
A person becomes registered as an issuer of a regulated covered bond |
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26(i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) which has notified the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation and which has not ceased to market that AIF in the UK as at 1 April of the current fee year. (ii) An AIFM which has notified the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation and which has not ceased to market that AIF in the UK as at 1 April of the current fee year. |
For each notification made by the AIFM of the kind specified in part 2 of FEES 4 Annex 4, the amount specified in part 2 of FEES 4 Annex 4 |
(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August, or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice (2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event |
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The basic fee contained in part 3 of FEES 4 Annex 4 |
The AIFM is registered by the FCA under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation. |
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| 30 | [deleted]41 |
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The tariff specified in FEES 4 Annex 15R |
Payable in accordance with FEES 4.3.6R |
Not applicable |
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The tariff specified in FEES 4 Annex 15R |
Payable in accordance with FEES 4.3.6R |
Not applicable |
Note:Sponsors on the list of approved sponsors as at 1 April each year will be liable for the full year's annual fee unless FEES 4.3.13 R applies.2
The Act (section
1L) requires the FCA to "maintain
arrangements for supervising authorised persons". Section 1K of the Act also requires the FCA to
provide general guidance about
how it intends to advance its operational objectives in discharging its general
functions in relation to different categories of authorised
person or regulated activity.
One purpose of this guidance is
to discharge the duties of the FCA set
out in sections 1L and 1K of the Act.
The FCA's approach to
The design of these arrangements
is shaped by the FCA'sstatutory objectives in relation to the
conduct supervision of financial services firms as
well as the prudential supervision of firms not
supervised by the PRA. These
objectives are set out in Chapter 1 of the Act.
The FCA has one strategic objective: ensuring that the relevant
markets function well. In discharging its general functions, the FCA must, so far as is reasonably possible,
act in a way which is compatible with
(1) In designing its approach to supervision,
the FCA has regard to the regulatory
principles set out in section 3B of the Act.
In particular, the FCA's regulatory
approach aims to focus and reinforce the responsibility of the senior management
of each firm (section 3B(1)(d)
of the Act) to ensure that it
takes reasonable care to organise and control the affairs of the firm responsibly and effectively, and develops
and maintains adequate risk management systems. It is the responsibility
(1) Notwithstanding CASS 1A.2.2 R, provided that the conditions in (2) are satisfied a firm may elect to be treated:(a) as a CASS medium firm, in the case of a firm that is classed by the application of the limits in CASS 1A.2.7 R as a CASS small firm; and (b) as a CASS large firm, in the case of a firm that is classed by the application of the limits in CASS 1A.2.7 R as a CASS medium firm.(2) The conditions to which (1) refers are that in either case:(a) the election is notified4
Once every calendar year a firm must notify to the FCA in writing the information specified in (1), (2) or (3) as applicable, and the information specified in (4), in each case no later than the day specified in (1) to (4):44(1) if it held client money or safe custody assets in the previous calendar year, the highest total amount of client money and the highest total value of safe custody assets held during the previous calendar year, notification of which must be made no later
4A firm's 'CASS firm type' and any change to it takes effect:(1) if the firm notifies the FCA in accordance with CASS 1A.2.9 R (1) or CASS 1A.2.9 R (2), on 1 February following the notification; or(2) if the firm notifies the FCA in accordance with CASS 1A.2.9 R (3), on the day it begins to hold client money or safe custody assets; or(3) if the firm makes an election under CASS 1A.2.5 R (1), and provided the conditions in CASS 1A.2.5 R (2) are satisfied, on the day the notification
2The FCA will make its assessment of whether the accounting and other standards applicable to an investment exchange or multilateral trading facility as a result of securities being admitted to trading are appropriate for the purpose of LR 13.5.27R (1)(b) having regard to at least the following matters in relation to the legal and regulatory framework applying to the target by virtue of its admission to that market:(1) the quality of auditing standards compared with International
2Where a listed company proposes to rely on LR 13.5.27R (1)(b), its sponsor must submit to the FCA an assessment of the appropriateness of the standards applicable to an investment exchange or multilateral trading facility against the factors set out in LR 13.5.27AG (1) to (7) and any other matters that it considers should be noted. The assessment must be submitted before or at the time the listed company submits the draft class 1 circular.
2The FCA may modify LR 13.5.30BR (1)(b) and (c) where it is not possible for the listed company to provide a meaningful allocation of its costs in the target's audited consolidated income statements. The class 1 circular should contain a statement to this effect where this modification has been granted. The FCA would not normally expect to grant such modifications except in respect of non-operating costs such as finance costs and tax.
2For the purposes of LR 13.5.33R (1) a significant part of the listed company or target is any part that represents over 75% of the listed company's group or the target respectively. For these purposes the FCA will take into account factors such as the assets, profitability and market capitalisation of the business.
Persons subject to enforcement action may be prepared to agree the amount of any financial penalty, or the length of any period of suspension, restriction, condition,5 limitation or disciplinary prohibition5 (see DEPP 6A)4, and other conditions which the FCA seeks to impose by way of such action. These4 conditions might include, for example, the amount or mechanism for the payment of compensation to consumers. The FCA recognises the benefits of such agreements, as4 they offer
In appropriate cases the FCA's3 approach will be to negotiate with the person concerned to agree in principle the amount of a financial penalty having regard to the FCA's3statement of policy as set out in DEPP 6.5 to DEPP 6.5D and DEPP 6.6.1 (This starting figure will take no account of the existence of the settlement discount scheme described in this section.) Such amount ("A") will then be reduced by a percentage of A according to the scheme set out in DEPP 6.7.3G to DEPP 6.7.3CG6.
- (1)
Subject to DEPP 6.7.3G(4) a settlement discount is available only in cases where a settlement agreement (which may be a focused resolution agreement) is reached during the period from commencement of an investigation until the FCA has:6
33 - (2)
The communication of the FCA's3 assessment of the appropriate penalty for the purposes of DEPP 6.7.3G(1)(b)6 need not be in a prescribed form but will include an indication of the breaches alleged by the FCA3. It may include the provision of a draft warning notice.
33 - (3)
Subject to DEPP 6.7.3.G(4), in relation to any settlement agreement other than a focused resolution agreement the reduction in penalty will be as follows:6
- (4)
Where stage 1 has been started but no settlement agreement has been agreed before 1 March 2017:6
- (a)
if any agreement is reached to settle the case between the period from the end of stage 1 until the expiry of the period for making representations, or, if sooner, the date on which the representations are sent in response to the giving of a warning notice, there will be a reduction of 20% in the penalty; and6
- (b)
if any agreement is reached to settle the case between the expiry of the period of making representations, or, if sooner, the date on which representations are sent in response to the giving of a warning notice and the giving of a decision notice, there will be a reduction of 10% in the penalty.6
- (a)
(1) Any settlement agreement6 between the FCA3 and the person concerned will therefore need to include a statement as to the appropriate penalty discount in accordance with this procedure.3(2) In certain circumstances the person concerned may consider that it would have been possible to reach a settlement at an earlier stage in the action, and argue that it should be entitled to a greater percentage reduction in penalty than is suggested by the table at DEPP 6.7.3G (3). It may
2The settlement discount scheme which applies to the amount of a financial penalty, described in DEPP 6.7.2 G to DEPP 6.7.5 G, also applies to the length of the period of a suspension, restriction,5 condition or disciplinary prohibition (other than a permanent disciplinary prohibition)5, having regard to the FCA's3 statement of policy as set out in DEPP 6A.3. No settlement discount is available with respect to a permanent disciplinary prohibition.5 The settlement discount scheme