Related provisions for CONC 8.7.7
221 - 240 of 616 items.
Business and internal control risks vary from firm to firm, according to the nature and complexity of the business. The FCA's assessment of these risks is reflected in how its rules apply to different categories of firm as well as in the use of its other regulatory tools. One of the tools the FCA has available is to give a firm individual guidance on the application of the requirements or standards under the regulatory system in the firm's particular circumstances.
The FCA6 may give individual guidance to a firm on its own initiative if it considers it appropriate to do so. For example:6(1) the FCA6 may consider that general guidance in the Handbook does not appropriately fit a firm's particular circumstances (which may be permanent or temporary) and therefore decide to give additional individual guidance to the firm;6(2) some of the FCA's6 requirements are expressed in general terms; however, there may be times when the FCA6 will wish to
(1) To improve consumer awareness and to help respondents compare their performance against their peers, the FCA may publish: (a) complaints data about the payment services and electronic money sector as a whole; and(b) respondent level complaints data and information giving context to the complaints data for those respondents that provide appropriate consent in the electronic money and payment services complaints return form at DISP 1 Annex 1AD. (2) Although the complaints data
The firm should also satisfy itself that:(1) the appointed representative is making and retaining records in accordance with the relevant record keeping rules in the Handbook or, in relation to CBTL business, the record keeping requirements in or under Part 3 of the MCD Order, 3if these records are not maintained by the firm;3(2) the appointed representative (other than an introducer appointed representative) is making and retaining records sufficient to disclose with reasonable
Firms are reminded that they should make and retain records in relation to any person who falls within the scope of the rules in TC or who performs a controlled function under an arrangement entered into by a firm or by an appointed representative. See SUP 10A, SUP 10C4and TC for the applicable record keeping rules.
(1) This chapter applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager of an AUT, ACS3 or an ICVC;(b) any other director of an ICVC;(c) a depositary of an AUT, ACS3 or an ICVC; and(d) an ICVC,which is a qualified investor scheme.(2) Where this chapter refers to rules in any other chapter of this sourcebook, those rules and any relevant guidance should be applied as if they referred to qualified investor schemes.
(1) Qualified investor schemes are authorised funds which are intended only for professional clients and for retail clients who are2 sophisticated investors. For this reason, qualified investor schemes are subject to a restriction on promotion under COBS 4.12.3 R. See also COBS 4.12.13 G.22123211(1A) 3The authorised contractual scheme manager of a qualified investor scheme which is4 an ACS must take reasonable care to ensure that subscription in relation to the units of this type
Table: What positions need a reference
Position |
When to obtain reference |
Comments |
(A) Permitting or appointing someone to perform an FCA controlled function or a PRA controlled function. |
One month before the end of the application period Where a request for a reference would require: (a) the firm requesting the reference; (b) the employer giving the reference; or (c) any other person; to make a mandatory disclosure prior to P disclosing to its current employer that such application has been made, the date is the end of the application period. |
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(B) Issuing a certificate under section 63F of the Act (Certification of employees by relevant authorised persons). |
Before the certificate is issued |
This includes renewing an existing certificate. |
(C) Appointing someone to any of the following positions (as defined in the PRA Rulebook): (a) a notified non-executive director; (b) a credit union non-executive director; or (c) a key function holder. |
Not applicable |
SYSC 22.2.1R (obligation to obtain a reference) does not apply to a firm appointing someone to the position in column (1). However SYSC 22.2.2R does apply to a firm asked to give a reference to a firm appointing someone to the position in column (1). |
Note 1: Mandatory disclosure means an obligation in any applicable laws, regulations or rules to declare or disclose information to the public. |
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Note 2: P refers to the employee or ex-employee about whom the reference is given as defined in more detail in SYSC 22.2.1R and SYSC 22.2.2R. |
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Note 3: The application period means the period for consideration referred to in section 61 of the Act (Determination of application). |
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This rule sets out time limits about the obligation to update a reference in SYSC 22.2.4R. (1) If B still employs P, SYSC 22.2.4R applies throughout the period B remains employed.(2) If B no longer employs P, the obligation to update ends six years after P ceased to be employed by B.(3) If B no longer employs P and the matters or circumstances are not serious misconduct by P, B does not have to disclose something if it did not occur or exist in the six year period ending on the
The following provisions of CONC continue to apply where a firm operates a telephone line in respect of the relevant credit-related regulated activities but the call charges rule does not apply (for example, where a telephone line is operated for the purpose of enabling a consumer to contact the firm before a contract has been entered into):(1) CONC 2.5.8R and CONC 2.5.9G (unfair business practices: credit broking);(2) CONC 2.6.3R and CONC 2.6.4G (unfair business practices: debt
A firm must ensure that its written contract with each of its appointed representatives:4(1) complies with the requirements prescribed in regulation 3 of the Appointed Representatives Regulations (see SUP 12.5.2 G);4(2) requires the appointed representative to comply, and to ensure that any persons who provide services to the appointed representative under a contract of services or a contract for service comply, with the relevant requirements in or under the Act (including the
(1) If the appointed representative is appointed to give advice on investments to retail clients7 concerning packaged products, the firm should also satisfy itself that the contract requires compliance with the rules in COBS 6 or COBS 6.1ZA18 (Information about the firm, its services and remuneration).979(2) The contractual requirements in SUP 12.5.5 R should extend to:(a) the activities of the appointed representative, if the appointed representative is an individual; and3(b)
4(1) The effect of SUP 12.5.6A R (1)(a) is that, in relation to designated investment business with retail clients7, appointed representatives are restricted to one principal.47(1A) The effect of SUP 12.5.6A R (1A) is that tied agents are restricted to one principal when acting as such. A tied agent who has a MiFID investment firm or a third country investment firm as a principal may have other principals who are not MiFID investment firms or third country investment firms.8(2)
Section 21 precludes the promotion by unauthorised persons of unregulated collective investment schemes unless the financial promotion is approved by an authorised person or is exempt. Section 238 then precludes the promotion of an unregulated collective investment scheme by authorised persons except where:(1) there is an exemption in an order made by the Treasury under section 238(6); or(2) the financial promotion is permitted under rules made by the FCA under section 238(5)
The FCA has made rules under section 238(5) which allow authorisedfirms to communicate or approve a financial promotion for an unregulated collective investment scheme in certain specified circumstances. These circumstances are set out in COBS 4.12.4 R3 To date, the Treasury has not made an order exempting single property schemes under section 239.23
(1) [deleted]31(2) For a Solvency II firm and a small non-directive insurer3 only, SUP 10A.11.12R disapplies the FCA governing functions for a person who is approved to perform a PRA controlled function, subject to the conditions in SUP 10A.11.12R.1(3) The FCA functions disapplied in accordance with the FCA2governing functions overlap rule for Solvency II firms and small non-directive insurers3 (SUP 10A.11.12R) are absorbed into the relevant PRA controlled function by virtue
1A person (referred to as “A” in this rule) is not performing an FCA governing function (referred to as the ‘particular’ FCA governing function in this rule) in relation to a Solvency II firm or a small non-directive insurer3 (referred to as “B” in this rule), at a particular time, if:(1) A has been approved by the PRA to perform any PRA controlled function in relation to B;(2) throughout the whole of the period between the time of the PRA approval in (1) and the time in question,
(1) This rule applies to a firm that is unable to comply with the Remuneration Code because of an obligation it owes to a Remuneration Code staffmember under a provision of an agreement made on or before 29 July 2010 (the "provision").(2) A firm must take reasonable steps to amend or terminate the provision referred to in (1) in a way that enables it to comply with the Remuneration Code at the earliest opportunity.(3) Until the provision referred to in (1) ceases to prevent the
(1) 7In addition to the notification requirements in the Remuneration Code7 general circumstances in which the FCA7 expects to be notified by firms of matters relating to their compliance with requirements under the regulatory system are set out in SUP 15.3 (General notification requirements). (2) In particular, in relation to remuneration matters such circumstances should take into account unregulated activities as well as regulated activities and the activities of other members
When considering entering into a first charge regulated mortgage contract2 or varying a first charge regulated mortgage contract2 or home purchase plan, a firm need not apply the rules in MCOB 11.6.2 R to MCOB 11.6.18 R inclusive (as modified by MCOB 11.6.25 R to MCOB 11.6.31 R and MCOB 11.6.33 R to MCOB 11.6.38 R, where applicable) if it has established, acting reasonably, that the following conditions are satisfied:2(1) the customer has: (a) an existing first charge regulated
(1) When considering entering into a first charge regulated mortgage contract which is an interest-only mortgage2 or varying a first charge regulated mortgage contract which is2 an interest-only mortgage, a mortgage lender need not apply the rules in MCOB 11.6.41R (1), MCOB 11.6.49 R, MCOB 11.6.50 R and MCOB 11.6.60R (3) if the conditions in MCOB 11.7.1 R) are satisfied, and if it has established, acting reasonably, that the existing regulated mortgage contract in MCOB 11.7.1R
(1) This rule applies when a premium will be paid using a credit agreement other than a revolving credit agreement. (2) A firm must provide price information in a way calculated to enable the customer to understand the additional repayments that relate to the purchase of the policy, and the total cost of the policy.(3) Price information must reflect any difference between the duration of the policy and that of the credit agreement.(4) A firm must explain to a customer, as applicable,
(1) When explaining the implications of a change, a firm should explain any changes to the benefits and significant or unusual exclusions arising from the change.(2) Firms will need to consider whether mid-term changes are compatible with the original policy, in particular whether it reserves the right to vary premiums, charges or other terms. Firms also need to ensure that any terms which reserve the right to make variations are not themselves unfair under the Unfair Terms Regulations
1The Money Laundering Regulations add to the range of options available to the FCA for dealing with anti-money laundering and anti-terrorist financing 2 failures. These options include2:• to prosecute a relevant person, including but not limited to an 2authorised firm, an 2Annex I financial institution or an auction platform, as well as any responsible officer2;2• to fine or censure a relevant person, including but not limited to an2 authorised firm, an2 Annex I financial institution
1This means that there will be situations in which the FCA has powers to investigate and take action under both the Act and the Money Laundering Regulations. The FCA will consider all the circumstances of the case when deciding what action to take and, if it is appropriate to notify the subject about the investigation, will in doing so inform them about the basis upon which the investigation is being conducted and what powers it is using. The FCA will adopt the approach outlined
(1) A firm must use Form E (SUP 10C Annex 3D) where an approved person is both ceasing to perform one or more controlled functions and needs to be approved in relation to one or more FCA-designated senior management function within the same firm or group. (2) A firm must not use Form E if the approved person has never before been approved to perform for any firm:(a) an FCA controlled function that is a significant influence function;(b) an FCA-designated senior management function;
Under section 60A of the Act, before a firm makes an application for approval, it should be satisfied that the candidate is a fit and proper person to perform the function to which the application relates. In deciding that question, the firm should have particular regard to whether the candidate, or any person who may perform a function on the candidate's behalf:(1) has obtained a qualification; (2) has undergone, or is undergoing, training; (3) possesses a level of competence;
If the firm undertook a tracing exercise for the purposes of CASS 6.2.10R(4) (Allocated but unclaimed safe custody assets) before its failure but had not made the charity payment under that rule by the time of its failure then the findings of that exercise may be relied on for the purposes of CASS 6.7.4E(1)(a).
(1) This rule applies where, instead of returning a safe custody asset to a client, a firm (Firm A) is able to transfer the safe custody asset to another person (Firm B) for safekeeping on behalf of the client.(2) Firm A may only effect such a transfer if, in advance of the transfer, it has obtained a contractual undertaking from Firm B that:(a) where regulation 10C(3) of the IBSA Regulations does not apply, Firm B will return the safe custody asset to the client at the client’s
(1) Subject to (3), a4firm must submit a completed CMAR to the FCA10 within 15 business days of the end of each month.410(2) In this rule month means a calendar month and SUP 16.3.13 R (4) does not apply.(3) 4A firm which changes its 'CASS firm type' and notifies the FCA10 that it is a CASS medium firm or a CASS large firm in accordance with CASS 1A.2.9 R is not required to submit a CMAR in respect of the month in which the change to its 'CASS firm type' takes effect in accordance
(1) This rule applies to a transfer of the listing of equity shares with a premium listing2 into or out of the category of premium listing (investment company) or a transfer of the listing of equity shares2 out of the category of premium listing (commercial company).(2) The issuer must:(a) send a circular to the holders of the equity shares2;(b) notify a RIS, at the same time as the circular is despatched to the relevant holders of the equity shares2, of the intended transfer
Any specific rule or piece of guidance in CONC is without prejudice to the application of PRIN, any other rules in the Handbooks, the CCA and secondary legislation made and things done under it, the Consumer Protection from Unfair Trading Regulations 2008, the Consumer Rights Act 20152, Part 8 of the Enterprise Act 2002 and any other applicable consumer protection legislation.
(1) 3A firm must not enter into an agreement with a customer under which a charge is, or may become, payable for an optional additional product unless the customer has actively elected to obtain that specific product. (2) A firm must not impose a charge on a customer for an optional additional product under an agreement entered into on or after 1 April 2016 unless the customer actively elected to obtain that specific product before becoming bound to pay the charge.(3) A firm must
(1) This section applies to a motor vehicle liability insurer.(2) The rules in this section relating to the appointment of claims representatives apply:22(a) in relation to claims by injured parties resulting from accidents occurring in an EEA State other than the injured party'sEEA State of residence which are caused by the use of vehicles insured through an establishment in, and normally based in, an EEA State other than the injured party'sEEA State of residence; and2(b) in
(1) If the firm, or its claims representative, does not make an offer as required by this section, the firm must pay simple interest on the amount of compensation offered by it or awarded by the court to the injured party, unless interest is awarded by any tribunal.(2) The interest calculation period begins when the offer should have been made and ends when the compensation is paid to the injured party, or his authorised representative.(3) The interest rate is the Bank of England's
(1) This section helps in achieving the statutory objective of securing an appropriate degree of protection for consumers. In accordance with Principle 6, this section is also concerned with ensuring the authorised fund manager pays due regard to its clients' interests and treats them fairly.(2) An authorised fund manager of an AUT, ACS or ICVC7 is responsible for arranging for the issue and the cancellation of units for the authorised fund. An authorised fund manager of an AUT,
(1) The authorised fund manager may require, on agreement with the depositary, or may permit, on the request of the investor, direct issues and cancellations of units by an ICVC or by the depositary of an AUT or ACS7.7(2) If (1) applies:(a) the instrument constituting the fund8 must provide for this; and(b) the prospectus must provide details of the procedure to be followed which must be consistent with the rules in this section.8
(1) On cancellingunits the authorised fund manager must, before the expiry of the fourth business day following the cancellation of the units or, if later, as soon as practicable after delivery to the depositary of the AUT or ACS7 or the ICVC of such evidence of title to the units as it may reasonably require, require the depositary to pay:27(a) 2in the case of a single-priced authorised fund, the price of the units (less any deduction required under 9COLL 6.3.8 R); or(b) 2in