Related provisions for LR 8.6.7B

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MAR 8.2.4GRP
The requirements in MAR 8.2.3 R apply, regardless of the place from which benchmark submissions are made. The FCA expects that a benchmark manager will be based in the United Kingdom.
MAR 8.2.9RRP
A benchmark submitter who suspects that any person(1) is manipulating, or has manipulated, a specified benchmark;(2) is attempting, or has attempted, to manipulate a specified benchmark; or(3) is colluding, or has colluded, in the manipulation or attempted manipulation of a specified benchmark;must notify the FCA without delay.
MAR 8.2.12RRP
A benchmark submitter must appoint an independent auditor to report to the FCA on the benchmark submitter's compliance with the requirements of this section on a regular basis.
MAR 8.2.13GRP
(1) The FCA expects the report required under MAR 8.2.12 R to be issued annually, although the FCA may agree a longer period depending on the benchmark submitter's particular circumstances, including the nature and scale of its engagement in the specified benchmark and the internal framework for monitoring compliance with the requirements of this chapter.(2) A benchmark submitter which proposes to appoint an auditor to report to the FCA under MAR 8.2.12 R on a less frequent than
FEES 8.1.1RRP
(1) 1A person who notifies the FCA of a desire to obtain interim permission in accordance with article 56 (Interim permission) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 must pay to the FCA, in full and without deduction, a fee of :(a) where the person is a sole trader:(i) if the notification is made on or before 30 November 2013, £105; or(ii) £150; (b) in any other case:(i) if the notification is made on or before 30 November
FEES 8.1.3RRP
(1) 2A local authority which notifies the FCA of a desire to obtain interim permission in accordance with article 56 (Interim permission) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 must pay to the FCA, in full and without deduction, a fee of £350.(2) The fee required by (1) must be paid by debit card (Maestro/Visa only), credit card (Visa/Mastercard only), bankers draft, cheque, or other payable order.(3) The fee required
FINMAR 2.6.1GRP
Pursuant to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Short Selling) Regulations 2012 (SI 2012/2554), the FCA will direct how notifications to use the market maker exemption or the authorised primary dealer exemption shall be made. Such directions will be published on the FCA website and listed in FINMAR 2 Annex 1 G.
FINMAR 2.6.2GRP
(1) If the FCA considers that a natural or legal person ('P') who has notified the FCA of his intention to use either the market maker exemption or the authorised primary dealer exemption does not satisfy the criteria to use the market maker exemption or the authorised primary dealer exemption, the FCA will send a letter to P setting out the reasons why it is minded to prohibit P from using the market maker exemption or the authorised primary dealer exemption.(2) P will be given
FINMAR 2.6.3GRP
If P is not satisfied with the FCA's decision to prohibit P's use of the market maker exemption or the authorised primary dealer exemption, P may seek a review of the decision. This will be conducted by a group of at least three senior FCA staff. None of the group conducting the review will have been connected with the earlier decision taken in respect of P's use of the market maker exemption or the authorised primary dealer exemption. The review may take place after the expiry
SUP 10A.12.2GRP

Table: FCA-approved persons forms

Form

Purpose

Handbook requirement

the relevant Form A

The relevant online form on the FCA and PRA'sonline notification and application system3 or the form in SUP 10A Annex 4D (See Note)

11

Application to perform controlled functions under the approved persons regime

SUP 10A.13.3 D

Form B

SUP 10A Annex 5R

Notice to withdraw an application to perform controlled functions under the approved persons regime

SUP 10A.13.19 R

Form C

SUP 10A Annex 6R

Notice of ceasing to perform controlled functions

SUP 10A.14.8 R

Form D

SUP 10A Annex 7R

Notification of changes in personal information or application details

SUP 10A.14.15 R

Form E

The relevant online form on the FCA and PRA'sonline notification and application system3 system or the form in SUP 10A Annex 8D (See Note)

11

Internal transfer of an approved person

SUP 10A.14.4 D

Note: The form in the SUP annex shown is to be used by credit unions, and by other firms only in the event of a failure of the information technology systems used by the FCA. See the relevant "Handbook requirement"

SUP 10A.12.5GRP
Forms B, C, D and E can only be submitted in respect of an FCA-approved person by the firm that submitted an FCA-approved person's original application (the relevant Form A).
SUP 10A.12.6GRP
Copies of Forms A, B, C, D and E may be obtained from the FCA website. Credit unions can obtain copies from the FCA's Contact Centre. To contact the FCA's2 Contact Centre for approved persons enquiries:22(1) telephone 0300 500 0597;2or2(2) e-mail firm.queries@fca.org.uk; or(3) fax 020 7066 0017; or(4) write to:Customer Contact CentreThe Financial Conduct Authority25 The North ColonnadeCanary WharfLONDON E14 5HS.
23Firms proposing to offer arrangements involving some form of minimum underpinning or 'guarantee' should discuss their proposals with the FCA and1 HM Revenue and Customs1 at the earliest possible opportunity (see DISP App 1.5.8 G). The FCA will need to be satisfied that these proposals provide complainants with redress which is at least commensurate with the standard approaches contained in this appendix.
23One of the reasons for introducing the guidance in this appendix is to seek a reduction in the number of complaints which are referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service. If a firm writes to the complainant proposing terms for settlement which are in accordance with this appendix, the letter may include a statement that the calculation of loss and redress accords with the FCAguidance, but should not imply that this extends to the assessment of whether or not the complaint should
23A statement under DISP App 1.5.11 G should not give the impression that the proposed terms of settlement have been expressly endorsed by either the FCA or the Financial Ombudsman Service.
23'Relevant benefits' are those benefits that fall outside what is required in order that policyholders' reasonable expectations at that point of sale can be fulfilled. (The phrase 'policyholders' reasonable expectations' has technically been superseded. However, the concept now resides within the obligations imposed upon firms by FCA Principle 6 ('...a firm must pay due regard to the interests of its customers and treat them fairly....') Additionally, most of these benefits would
IFPRU 11.5.7RRP
(1) The following must apply to their consolidating supervisor for approval of any proposed RRD group financial support agreement or of any amendment to that agreement:(a) a firm that is the EEA parent undertaking of an RRD group;(b) a qualifying parent undertaking that is the EEA parent undertaking of an RRD group; and(c) an IFPRU 730k firm that is a subsidiary of an EEA parent undertaking of an RRD group: (i) where the EEA parent undertaking is an EEA parent financial holding
IFPRU 11.5.8GRP
The FCA will not approve an RRD group financial support agreement unless:(1) in its opinion, none of the parties has infringed an RRD early intervention condition or is likely to infringe one of those conditions in the near future;(2) the agreement complies with the conditions for entering into an RRD group financial support agreement in IFPRU 11.5.9 R to IFPRU 11.5.12 R; and(3) the terms of the proposed agreement are consistent with the conditions for giving financial support
IFPRU 11.5.15GRP
The FCA may modify or waive the requirements of IFPRU 11.5.14R (8) if the conditions in section 138A (modification or waiver of rules) of the Act are met.[Note: article 23(1)(g) of RRD]
IFPRU 11.5.20RRP
An RRD group member may only give financial support using an RRD group financial support agreement if the FCA has:(1) agreed to the giving of the support with restrictions; or(2) agreed to the giving of the support without restrictions; or(3) not prohibited the support within five business days of receiving a notice of intention to give financial support.[Note: article 25(2) and (5) of RRD]
REC 2.16A.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 9A-9H3

1(1)

[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility3 must also operate a regulated market3.

(2)

[A UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility3 must comply with those requirements of-

(a)

Chapter I of Title II of [MiFID];3 and

(b)

any directly applicable EU legislation made under Chapter I;3

which are applicable to a market operator3 ... operating such a facility.

(3)

The requirements of this paragraph do not apply for the purposes of section 292(3)(a) of the Act (requirements for overseas investment exchanges and overseas clearing houses).

(4)3

A [UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility must provide the FCA with a detailed description of -

(a)

the functioning of the multilateral trading facility or organised trading facility;

(b)

any links to another trading venue owned by the same [UK RIE] or to a systematic internaliser owned by the same exchange; and

(c)

a list of the facility’s members, participants and users.

[Note:MiFID ITS 19 prescribes the content and format of the description of the functioning of a MTF or OTF to be provided to the FCA]3

(5)3

Any multilateral trading facility or an organised trading facility operated by the [UK RIE] must have at least three materially active members or users who each have the opportunity to interact with all the others in respect of price formation.

Paragraph 9B – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: execution of orders3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] must have non-discretionary rules for the execution of orders on a multilateral trading facility operated by it.

(2)3

A [UK RIE] must not on a multilateral trading facility operated by it -

(a)

execute any client orders against its proprietary capital; or

(b)

engage in matched principal trading.

Paragraph 9C – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: access to a facility3

The rules of the [UK RIE] about access to, or membership of, a multilateral trading facility regulated market operated by it must permit the [UK RIE] to give access to or admit to membership to (as the case may be) only -3

(a)

an investment firm authorised under Article 5 of the markets in financial instruments directive;

(b)

a credit institution authorised in accordance with the capital requirements directive; or

(c)

a person who –

(i)

is of sufficient good repute;

(ii)

has a sufficient level of trading ability, and competence and experience;

(iii)

where applicable, has adequate organisational arrangements; and

(iv)

has sufficient resources for the role it is to perform, taking account of the financial arrangements the [UK RIE] has established in order to guarantee the adequate settlement transactions.

Paragraph 9D – Specific requirements for multilateral trading facilities: disclosure3

(1)3

The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that where it, without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on a multilateral trading facility operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, the [UK RIE] may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

(2)3

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to provide sufficient publicly available information (or satisfy itself that sufficient information is publicly available) to enable users of a multilateral trading facility operated by it to form investment judgements, taking into account both the nature of the users and the types of instruments traded.

(3)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9E – SME growth markets3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] operating a multilateral trading facility which has registered that facility as an SME growth market in accordance with Article 33 of the markets in financial instruments directive (an “exchange-operated SME growth market”) must comply with rules made by the FCA for the purposes of this paragraph.

[Note:REC 2.16A.1D]4

(2)3

An exchange-operated SME growth market must not admit to trading a financial instrument which is already admitted to trading on another SME growth market unless the issuer of the instrument has been informed of the proposed admission to trading and has not objected.

(3)3

Where an exchange-operated SME growth market exchange admits a financial instrument to trading in the circumstances of paragraph (2), that exchange-operated SME growth market may not require the issuer of the financial instrument to demonstrate compliance with -

(a)

any obligation relating to corporate governance, or

(b)

the disclosure obligations.

(4)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9F – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: execution of orders3

(1)3

[A UK RIE] operating an organised trading facility must -

(a)

execute orders on that facility on a discretionary basis in accordance with sub-paragraph (4);

(b)

not execute any client orders on that facility against its proprietary capital or the proprietary capital of any entity that is part of the same group or legal person as the [UK RIE] unless in accordance with sub-paragraph (2);

(c)

not operate a systematic internaliser within the same legal entity;

(d)

ensure that the organised trading facility does not connect with a systematic internaliser in a way which enables orders in an organised trading facility and orders or quotes in a systematic internaliser to interact; and

(e)

ensure that the organised trading facility does not connect with another organised trading facility in a way which enables orders in different organised trading facilities to interact.

(2)3

A [UK RIE] may only engage in -

(a)

matched principal trading on an organised trading facility operated by it in respect of-

(i)

bonds,

(ii)

structured finance products,

(iii)

emission allowances,

(iv)

derivatives which have not been declared subject to the clearing obligation in accordance with Article 5 of the EMIR regulation,

where the client has consented to that; or

(b)

dealing on own account on an organised trading facility operated by it, otherwise than in accordance with sub-paragraph (a), in respect of sovereign debt instruments for which there is not a liquid market.

(3)3

If the [UK RIE] engages in matched principal trading in accordance with sub-paragraph (2)(a) it must establish arrangements to ensure compliance with the definition of matched principal trading in article 4.1.38 of the markets in financial instruments directive.

(4)3

The discretion which the [UK RIE] must exercise in executing a client order may only be the discretion mentioned in sub-paragraph (5) or in sub-paragraph (6) or both.

(5)3

The first discretion is whether to place or retract an order on the organised trading facility.

(6)3

The second discretion is whether to match a specific client order with other orders available on the organised trading facility at a given time, provided the exercise of such discretion is in compliance with specific instructions received from the client and in accordance with the [UK RIE’s] obligations under Article 27 of the markets in financial instruments directive.

(7)3

Where the organised trading facility crosses client orders the [UK RIE] may decide if, when and how much of two or more orders it wants to match within the system.

(8)3

Subject to the requirements of this paragraph, with regard to a system that arranges transactions in non-equities, the [UK RIE] may facilitate negotiation between clients so as to bring together two or more comparable potentially trading interests in a transaction.

(9)3

The [UK RIE] must comply with rules made by the FCA as to how Articles 24, 25, 27 and 28 of the markets in financial instruments directive apply to its operation of an organised trading facility.

(10)3

Nothing in this paragraph prevents a [UK RIE] from engaging an investment firm to carry out market making on an independent basis on an organised trading facility operated by the [UK RIE]provided the investment firm does not have close links with the [UK RIE].

(11)3

In this paragraph -

“close links” has the meaning given in Article 4.1.1 of the markets in financial instruments directive;

“investment firm” has the meaning given in Article 4.1.1 of the markets in financial instruments directive;

“non-equities” means bonds, structured finance products, emissions allowances and derivatives traded on a trading venue to which Article 8(1) of the markets in financial instrument regulation applies.

Paragraph 9G – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: disclosure3

(1)3

The rules of the [UK RIE] must provide that where it, without obtaining the consent of the issuer, admits to trading on an organised trading facility operated by it a transferable security which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, the [UK RIE] may not require the issuer of that security to demonstrate compliance with the disclosure obligations.

(2)3

The [UK RIE] must maintain arrangements to provide sufficient publicly available information (or satisfy itself that sufficient information is publicly available) to enable users of the organised trading facility operated by it to form investment judgements, taking into account both the nature of the users and the types of instruments traded.

(3)3

In this paragraph, “the disclosure obligations” has the same meaning as in paragraph 9ZB.

Paragraph 9H – Specific requirements for organised trading facilities: FCA request for information3

(1)3

A [UK RIE] must, when requested to do so, provide the FCA with a detailed explanation in respect of an organised trading facility operated by it, or such a facility it proposes to operate, of -

(a)

why the organised trading facility does not correspond to and cannot operate as a multilateral trading facility, a regulated market or a systematic internaliser;

(b)

how discretion will exercised in executing client orders, and in particular when an order to the organized trading facility may be retracted and when and how two or more client orders will be matched within the facility; and

(c)

its use of matched principal trading.

(2)3

Any information required under sub-paragraph (1) must be provided to the FCA in the manner which it considers appropriate.

REC 2.16A.1AGRP
3In determining whether there are satisfactory arrangements for securing the timely discharge of the rights and liabilities of the parties to transactions effected on its multilateral trading facility, the FCA may have regard to:(1) (in relation to transactions in derivatives which are to be cleared pursuant to article 4 of EMIR or otherwise agreed by the relevant transacting parties to be cleared) the UK recognised body’s ability to demonstrate that its multilateral trading facility
REC 2.16A.1CRRP
3In paragraphs 9H(1) and (2) of the Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations where the UK RIE must provide information in respect of an organised trading facility operated by it, such information must be provided to the FCA in writing and delivered by any one of the methods set out in REC 3.2.3R.
REC 2.16A.1DRRP
4For the purposes of complying with the requirement set out in paragraph 9E of the Schedule to the Recognition Requirement Regulations (SME Growth Markets), the rules set out by the FCA in MAR 5.10 (Operation of an SME growth market) apply to a UK RIE operating a multilateral trading facility as an SME growth market, as though it was an investment firm. [Note: article 33 of MiFID]
REC 2.16A.2GRP
1In determining whether a UK RIE operating a multilateral trading facility (including an SME growth market) or organised trading facility)3 complies with this chapter3, the FCA will have regard to the compliance of the UK RIE with equivalent recognition requirements. A UK RIE operating such facilities should also have regard to the guidance set out in MAR 5 (Multilateral trading facilities (MTFs)) and MAR 5A (Organised trading facilities (OTFs))3. 22
APER 4.1.2GRP
4In the opinion of the FCA3, conduct of the type described in APER 4.1.3G, APER 4.1.5G, APER 4.1.6G, APER 4.1.8G, APER 4.1.10G, APER 4.1.12G, APER 4.1.13G, APER 4.1.14G or APER 4.1.15G3 does not comply with Statement of Principle 1.
APER 4.1.3GRP
3Deliberately misleading (or attempting to mislead) by act or omission: (1) a client; or(2) his firm (or its auditors or an actuary appointed by his firm under SUP 4 (Actuaries) 1); or1(3) the FCA or the PRA;falls within APER 4.1.2G.
APER 4.1.4GRP
3Behaviour of the type referred to in APER 4.1.3G includes, but is not limited to, deliberately:(1) falsifying documents;(2) misleading a client about the risks of an investment;(3) misleading a client about the charges or surrender penalties of investment products;(4) misleading a client about the likely performance of investment products by providing inappropriate projections of future investment returns;(5) misleading a client by informing him that products require only a single
APER 4.1.6GRP
3Deliberately failing to inform, without reasonable cause:(1) a customer; or(2) his firm (or its auditors or an actuary appointed by his firm under SUP 4 (Actuaries)1); or1(3) the FCA or the PRA;66of the fact that their understanding of a material issue is incorrect, despite being aware of their misunderstanding, falls within APER 4.1.2G.
SUP 15.12.1RRP
A firm must notify the FCA, using the form in SUP 15 Annex 8R, where:(a) in any 12-month period, it has upheld three complaints about matters relating to activities carried out by any one employee when acting as a retail investment adviser; or(b) it has upheld a complaint about matters relating to activities carried out by any one employee when acting as a retail investment adviser, where the redress paid exceeds £50,000.(2) A notification made under (1)(a) must be made by the
SUP 15.12.2RRP
For the purpose of SUP 15.12.1R:(1) when calculating the number of complaints in SUP 15.12.1R(1)(a), the firm should exclude complaints previously notified to the FCA under this rule;(2) redress, under SUP 15.12.1R(1)(b), should be interpreted to include an amount paid, or cost borne, by the firm, where a cash value can be readily identified, and should include:(a) amounts paid for distress and inconvenience;(b) a free transfer out to another provider for which a transfer would
SUP 15.12.3RRP
Notifications under SUP 15.12.1R must be made electronically using a method of notification prescribed by the FCA.
SUP App 3.6.7GRP
In respect of banking services, the European Commission believes that "...to determine where the activity was carried on, the place of provision of what may be termed the 'characteristic performance' of the service i.e. the essential supply for which payment is due, must be determined" (Commission interpretative communication: Freedom to provide services and the interests of the general good in the Second Banking Directive (97/C 209/04)). In the view of the FCA5, this requires
SUP App 3.6.8GRP
The FCA is5 of the opinion that UK firms that are credit institutions and MiFID investment firms2 should apply the 'characteristic performance' test (as referred to in SUP App 3.6.7 G) when considering whether prior notification is required for services business. Firms should note that other EEA States may take a different view. Some EEA States may apply a solicitation test. This is a test as to whether it is the consumer or the provider that initiates the business relations
SUP App 3.6.15GRP
The FCA considers5 that, in order to comply with Principle 3:Management and control (see PRIN 2.1.1 R), a firm should have appropriate procedures to monitor the nature of the services provided to its customers. Where a UK firm has non-resident customers but has not notified the EEA State in which the customers are resident that it wishes to exercise its freedom to provide services, the FCA5 would expect the firm's systems to include appropriate controls. Such controls would
SUP App 3.6.27GRP
Firms should note that, in circumstances where the FCA5 take the view that a notification would not be required, other EEA States may take a different view.66
FEES 13.1.4GRP
Section 333T of the Act (Funding of action against illegal money lending) requires the Treasury to notify the FCA of the amount of the Treasury’s illegal money lending costs. The FCA must make rules requiring authorised persons, or any specified class of authorised person, to pay to the FCA the specified amounts or amounts calculated in a specified way, with a view to recovering the amounts notified to it by the Treasury.
FEES 13.1.6GRP
The amounts to be paid under the rules may include a component to recover the expenses of the FCA in collecting the payments.
FEES 13.1.7GRP
The FCA must pay to the Treasury the amounts that it receives under the IML levy apart from amounts in respect of its collection costs (which it may keep).
SYSC 6.3.5GRP
The FCA, when considering whether a breach of its rules on systems and controls against money laundering has occurred, will have regard to whether a firm has followed relevant provisions in the guidance for the United Kingdom financial sector issued by the Joint Money Laundering Steering Group.1
SYSC 6.3.9RRP
A firm (with the exception of a sole trader who has no employees)21 must:12(1) appoint an individual as MLRO, with responsibility for oversight of its compliance with the FCA'srules on systems and controls against money laundering; and(2) ensure that its MLRO has a level of authority and independence within the firm and access to resources and information sufficient to enable him to carry out that responsibility.
SYSC 6.3.10GRP
The job of the MLRO within a firm is to act as the focal point for all activity within the firm relating to anti-money laundering. The FCA expects that a firm'sMLRO will be based in the United Kingdom.
SYSC 6.3.11GRP
3The FCA provides guidance on steps that a firm can take to reduce the risk that it might be used to further financial crime in FC (Financial crime: a guide for firms).
SUP 7.3.1GRP
The FCA5 expects to maintain a close working relationship with certain types of firm and expects that routine supervisory matters arising can be resolved during the normal course of this relationship by, for example, issuing individual guidance where appropriate (see SUP 9.3). However, where the FCA deems it appropriate, it will exercise its own-initiative powers:55(1) in circumstances where it considers it appropriate for the firm to be subject to a formal requirement, breach
SUP 7.3.2GRP
The FCA 5 may also5 seek to exercise its own-initiative powers in certain situations,5 including the following:55(1) If the FCA5 determines that a firm's management, business or internal controls give rise to material risks that are not fully addressed by existing requirements, the FCA5may seek to use its own-initiative powers.555(2) If a firm becomes or is to become involved with new products or selling practices which present risks not adequately addressed by existing requirements,
SUP 7.3.3GRP
Pursuant to sections 55L, 55N, 55O, 55P and 55Q of the Act, within the scope of its functions and powers, the FCA5may seek to impose requirements which include but are not restricted to:55(1) requiring a firm to submit regular reports covering, for example, trading results, management accounts, customer complaints, connected party transactions;(2) where appropriate, 5requiring a firm to maintain prudential limits, for example on large exposures, foreign currency exposures or liquidity
SUP 7.3.4GRP
The FCA5 will seek to give a firm reasonable notice of an intent to vary its permission or impose a requirement5 and to agree with the firm an appropriate timescale. However, if the FCA5 considers that a delay may create a risk to any of the FCA's statutory objectives5,3 the FCA5 may need to act immediately using its powers under section 55J and/or 55L5 of the Act5 with immediate effect.5535555
SYSC 8.1.1RRP
1A common platform firm must:(1) when relying on a third party for the performance of operational functions which are critical for the performance of regulated activities, listed activities or ancillary services (in this chapter "relevant services and activities") on a continuous and satisfactory basis, ensure that it takes reasonable steps to avoid undue additional operational risk; and7(2) not undertake the outsourcing of important operational functions in such a way as to impair
SYSC 8.1.8RRP
A UCITS investment firm7 must in particular take the necessary steps to ensure that the following conditions are satisfied:(1) the service provider must have the ability, capacity, and any authorisation required by law to perform the outsourced functions, services or activities reliably and professionally;(2) the service provider must carry out the outsourced services effectively, and to this end the firm must establish methods for assessing the standard of performance of the
SYSC 8.1.11RRP
A firm (other than a common platform firm)7 must make available on request to the FCA7 and any other relevant competent authority all information necessary to enable the FCA7 and any other relevant competent authority to supervise the compliance of the performance of the outsourced activities with the requirements of the regulatory system.7
SYSC 8.1.12GRP
As SUP 15.3.8 G explains, a firm should notify the FCA7 when it intends to rely on a third party for the performance of operational functions which are critical or important for the performance of relevant services and activities on a continuous and satisfactory basis.[Note: recital 44 to7 the MiFID Org Regulation7]2
COCON 1.1.1GRP
Under section 64A of the Act, the FCA may make rules about the conduct of certain persons9 working in firms9.
COCON 1.1.2RRP

Table: To whom does COCON apply? 9

    9Persons to whom COCON applies

    Comments9

    (1) An SMF manager.9

    (2) An employee (“P”) of a relevant authorised person who:9

    (a) performs the function of an SMF manager;9

    (b) is not an approved person to perform the function in question; and9

    (c) is required to be an approved person at the time P performs that function.9

    (3) An employee of a relevant authorised person who would be an SMF manager but for SUP 10C.3.13R (The 12-week rule). 9

    (4) A certification employee employed by a relevant authorised person.9

    This applies even if the certification employee has not been notified that COCON applies to them or notified of the rules that apply to them.9

    (5) An employee of a relevant authorised person who would be a certification employee but for SYSC 5.2.27R(1) (Scope: emergency appointments) or SYSC 5.2.28AR (Scope: temporary UK role). 9

    (6) Any employee of a relevant authorised person not coming within another row of this table, except one listed in column (2). 9

    This row does not apply to an employee of a relevant authorised person who only performs functions falling within the scope of the following roles:9

    (a) receptionists;

    (b) switchboard operators;

    (c) post room staff;

    (d) reprographics/print room staff;

    (e) property/facilities management;

    (f) events management;

    (g) security guards;

    (h) invoice processing;

    (i) audio visual technicians;

    (j) vending machine staff;

    (k) medical staff;

    (l) archive records management;

    (m) drivers;

    (n) corporate social responsibility staff;

    (o) data controllers or processors under the data protection legislation;10

    (p) cleaners;

    (q) catering staff;

    (r) personal assistant or secretary;

    (s) information technology support (ie, helpdesk); and

    (t) human resources administrators /processors.

    (7) An FCA-approved person or PRA-approved person approved to perform a controlled function in a Solvency II firm or a small non-directive insurer. 9

    This row does not apply to approved persons approved to perform a controlled function in SUP 10A.1.15R to SUP 10A.1.16BR (appointed representatives).9

    (8) A standard non-executive director of:9

    (a) a relevant authorised person; 9

    (b) a Solvency II firm; or 9

    (c) a small non-directive insurer.99

    This row only applies to a UK domestic firm.9

    Note: In accordance with the Glossary, Solvency II firm includes a large non-directive insurer.9

COCON 1.1.11GRP
The FCA interprets the phrase ‘dealing with’ in COCON 1.1.10R as including having contact with customers and extending beyond ‘dealing’ as used in the phrase ‘dealing in investments’. ‘Dealing in’ is used in Schedule 2 to the Act to describe, in general terms, the regulated activities which are specified in Part II of the Regulated Activities Order.
COCON 1.1.11AGRP
6The FCA interprets the phrase ‘a client of the firm in the United Kingdom’ in COCON 1.1.10R as referring to:(1) for a client which is a body corporate, its office or branch in the United Kingdom; or(2) for a client who is an individual, a client who is in the United Kingdom at the time of the dealing.
FEES 10.1.2GRP
This chapter sets out rules governing the amounts payable by firms to the FCA to fund the Secretary of State for Work and Pensions’2 pensions guidance costs and the related FCA collection costs.
FEES 10.1.4GRP
(1) Section 333R(1) of the Act requires the Secretary of State2 to notify the FCA of the amount of the Secretary of State’s2 pensions guidance costs.(2) Section 333R(2) requires the FCA to make rules requiring authorised persons to pay amounts, or amounts calculated in a specified way, to the FCA with a view to recovering the amounts notified by the Secretary of State2.(3) Under subsection 3 such amounts may include a component to cover the expenses of the FCA in collecting the
FEES 10.1.6GRP
Under section 333R(8) of the Act, the FCA must pay to the Secretary of State2 the amounts that it receives under these rules, apart from amounts covering its collection costs (which it may keep).
FEES 10.1.7GRP
The total amount raised by the pensions guidance levy may vary from year to year depending on the amount notified to the FCA by the Secretary of State2.
IFPRU 11.7.2RRP
A firm or qualifying parent undertaking must notify the FCA immediately if its management body considers that any of the following have occurred:(1) the assets of the firm or qualifying parent undertaking have become less than its liabilities; or(2) the firm or qualifying parent undertaking is unable to pay its debts or other liabilities as they fall due; or(3) there are objective reasons to support a determination that (1) or (2) will occur in the near future; or(4) extraordinary
IFPRU 11.7.3RRP
A firm must also notify the FCA immediately if its management body considers that: (1) the firm is failing to satisfy any of the threshold conditions, including due to the firm having incurred, or being likely to incur, losses that will deplete all, or a significant amount of, its own funds; or(2) there are objective elements to support a determination that the firm will fail to satisfy any of the threshold conditions in the near future.[Note: article 81(1) of RRD]
IFPRU 11.7.4RRP
A firm or qualifying parent undertaking must notify the FCA by sending an e-mail to its usual supervisory contact.
PERG 1.5.1GRP
General guidance on the perimeter is also contained in various FCA documents (mainly fact sheets and frequently asked questions) that are available on the FCA website at www.fca.org.uk.These documents, and the URL on which they may be accessed, include:(1) [deleted]612446(2) [deleted]212(3) [deleted](4) [deleted]313(5) [deleted]313(6) [deleted]313(7) guidance about the position under the Insurance Mediation Directive and the Regulated Activities Order of the company appointed
PERG 1.5.2GRP
Any person who, having read relevant general guidance and, where appropriate, taken legal advice, remains uncertain about whether his activities amount to regulated activities or his communications will be subject to the restriction in section 21 of the Act, may seek individual guidance from the FCA. Requests for individual guidance should be made in line with SUP 9.
PERG 1.5.3GRP
In addition, the FCA has established a team to provide general assistance and guidance to persons generally about the scope of the Act. Enquiries of this kind may be made:(1) by authorised firms, to either the Contact Centre (email firm.queries@fca.org.uk, Tel 0300 500 05977) or their normal supervisory contact; or77(2) by individuals or non-authorised firms, to the Consumer Contact Centre (email ccc@fca.org.uk, Tel 0800 111 6768 ).8
PERG 1.5.4GRP
The FCA will review its general guidance from time to time and may need to amend or withdraw published or written guidance in the light of changing circumstances, developing business practices, or case law. For the status of guidance issued by the FCA, see PERG 1.3.1 G.
SUP 13A.5.3GRP
(1) Before an EEA firm (other than7 an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)3 exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. 1(2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's notice has been prescribed
SUP 13A.5.4-AGRP
6When the FCA receives a consent notice from the EEA firm'sHome State regulator in respect of a firm within paragraph 5(i) of Part I of Schedule 3 to the Act, it will, under paragraph 14(3ZA), use the information received from the EEA firm'sHome State regulator to enter the necessary information into the Financial Services Register.
SUP 13A.5.4AGRP
9Where the PRA receives a notice, it will give a copy to the FCA without delay and where the FCA receives a notice, it will give a copy to the PRA without delay, where relevant.
SUP 13A.5.5GRP
An EEA firm (other than an EEA UCITS management company)2 that has satisfied the service conditions in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act is entitled to start providing cross border services into the United Kingdom. In the case of an EEA UCITS management company, FCA9 approval must first be obtained, as explained in SUP 13A.5.3 G (see also SUP 13A.3.1C G).2 However, an EEA firm that wishes to start providing cross border services but has not yet received notification
DEPP 6A.3.1GRP
The FCA2 will consider all the relevant circumstances of a case when it determines the length of the period of suspension, restriction,4 condition or disciplinary prohibition4 (if any) that is appropriate for the breach concerned, and is also a sufficient deterrent. Set out below is a list of factors that may be relevant for this purpose. The list is not exhaustive: not all of these factors may be applicable in a particular case, and there may be other factors, not listed, that
DEPP 6A.3.2GRP
The following factors may be relevant to determining the appropriate length of the period of suspension, restriction,4 condition or disciplinary prohibition4 to be imposed on a person under the Act:3(1) DeterrenceWhen determining the appropriate length of the period of suspension, restriction,4 condition or disciplinary prohibition4 the FCA2 will have regard to the principal purpose for which it imposes sanctions, namely to promote high standards of regulatory and/or market conduct
DEPP 6A.3.3GRP
The FCA2 may delay the commencement of the period of suspension,4 restriction or disciplinary prohibition4. In deciding whether this is appropriate, the FCA2 will take into account all the circumstances of a case. Considerations that may be relevant in respect of an authorised person, sponsor or primary information provider2 include:22(1) the impact of the suspension or restriction on consumers;(2) any practical measures the authorised person, sponsor or primary information provider2
DEPP 6A.3.4GRP
1The FCA2 and the person on whom a suspension,4 restriction or disciplinary prohibition4 is to be imposed may seek to agree the length of the period of suspension,4 restriction or disciplinary prohibition4 and other terms. In recognition of the benefits of such agreements, DEPP 6.7 provides that the length of a period of suspension,4 restriction or disciplinary prohibition (other than a permanent disciplinary prohibition) 4 which might otherwise have been imposed will be reduced