Related provisions for PERG 7.4.13

PERG 4.16.2G01/07/2005

The government's intention behind the regulatory regime for mortgages was "to ensure that, at any one time, it would be possible for each mortgage to be linked to one and only one authorised firm (with mortgage permission) to have the ongoing regulatory responsibility towards consumers" (HM Treasury, Regulating Mortgages, February 2002, paragraph 47). In other words, it should be possible to arrange a securitisation transaction so that the SPV and other third parties do not carry

PERG 4.16.3G21/03/2016

A SPV does not carry on the regulated activity of entering into a regulated mortgage contract (or agreeing to do so), merely by acquiring the legal or beneficial interest in the contract from the original lender, or by providing funding to the original lender. If the contract is subsequently varied, a SPV should take care to avoid the original contract being replaced with a new regulated mortgage contract (see PERG 4.4.4 G). The original lender is, of course, likely to require

PERG 4.16.4G01/07/2005

If an unauthorised SPV arranges for an authorised person with permission to administer a regulated mortgage contract to administer its regulated mortgage contracts, it can avoid carrying on the regulated activities of:(1) administering a regulated mortgage contract, because of the exclusion in article 62 of the Regulated Activities Order (described in PERG 4.8.4 G);(2) arranging (bringing about) or making arrangements with a view to regulated mortgage contracts, because any arrangements

SUP 13A.5.2G07/03/2016

An EEA firm3(other than7 an EEA firm that received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)31should note that the requirement under the Single Market Directives to give a notice of intention to provide cross border services applies whether or not:(1) it has established a branch in the United Kingdom; or(2) those cross border services are regulated activities.

SUP 13A.5.3G07/03/2016

(1) Before an EEA firm (other than7 an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)3 exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. 1(2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's notice has been prescribed

SUP 13A.5.4G07/03/2016

(1) Unless the EEA firm3(other than7 an EEA firm that received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)331is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive, if the appropriate UK regulator9 receives a regulator's notice or, where no notice is required , is informed of the EEA firm's intention to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the appropriate UK regulator9 will, under paragraphs 14(2) and 14(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify

SUP 13A.5.5G01/04/2013

An EEA firm (other than an EEA UCITS management company)2 that has satisfied the service conditions in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act is entitled to start providing cross border services into the United Kingdom. In the case of an EEA UCITS management company, FCA9 approval must first be obtained, as explained in SUP 13A.5.3 G (see also SUP 13A.3.1C G).2 However, an EEA firm that wishes to start providing cross border services but has not yet received notification

PERG 2.7.3G01/07/2005

The activities of effecting a contract of insurance or carrying out a contract of insurance are separate regulated activities, each requiring authorisation. But this only applies where they are carried on by a person who is acting as principal. This means that the activities of agents, such as loss adjusters, will not constitute this regulated activity. The activities of some agents may, however, be regulated as insurance mediation activities (see PERG 5 (Guidance on insurance

PERG 2.7.6BG03/01/2018

11The RAO and the auction regulation together generate three broad categories of person in relation to bidding for emission allowances26 on an auction platform:(1) The first category consists of an investment firm to which MiFID applies, a CRD credit institution and a third country credit institution where the 26 firm is bidding on behalf of its clients or on its own account for emissions auction products26. For these purposes a third country credit institution refers to a credit

PERG 2.7.6CG03/01/2018

11A person may fall into both the first and the second category. For example, a person might be both exempt from MiFID under article 2(1)(j)26 (within the first category) and be a group entity of an operator (within the second category). In this case, that person does not require permission for activities that cause that person to fall into the second category because those activities are excluded from the activity of bidding in emissions auctions.

PERG 2.7.13FG28/02/2014

16An open-ended investment company will, once it is authorised under regulations made under section 262 of the Act, become an authorised person in its own right under Schedule 5 to the Act (Persons concerned in Collective Investment Schemes). Under ordinary principles, a company operates itself and an authorisedopen-ended investment company will be operating the collective investment scheme constituted by the company. It is not required to go through a separate process of authorisation

PERG 2.7.20LG01/04/2014

(1) 15Furnishing of persons with information relevant to the financial standing of individuals is a regulated activity if the person has collected the information for that purpose.(2) A person requires authorisation for this activity only if its business primarily consists of the activities in (1). (3) This activity does not include an activity in so far as it is operating an electronic system in relation to lending.

PERG 2.7.21G03/01/2018

Agreeing to carry on most regulated activities is itself a regulated activity. But this is not the case if the underlying activities to which the agreement relates are those of accepting deposits, issuing electronic money,10effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance, operating a multilateral trading facility, operating an organised trading facility26, managing dormant account funds, the meeting of repayment claims75, managing a UCITS, acting as trustee or depositary of a

FEES 3.2.3R01/04/2014

(1) Unless (2), (3)10 or (4)23 applies, the sum payable under FEES 3.2.1 R must be paid by bankers draft, cheque or other payable order.23(2) 15The FCA does not specify a method of payment for a person seeking to:(a) become a recognised body or a designated professional body; or15(b) be added to the list of designated investment exchanges or accredited bodies.15(3) The sum payable under FEES 3.2.1 R by a firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission which is not an application

FEES 3.2.7R13/01/2018

Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32

31

31Part 1: Application, notification and vetting fees
31(1) Fee payer	(2) Fee payable (£)37	Due date
(a) Any applicant for Part 4A permission (including an incoming firm applying for top-up permission) whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26	(1) Unless (2),41 (3) or (4)41 applies, in1 respect of a particular application, the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 11 which apply to that application. When both (A) and (B) apply, 50% of the tariff payable under (1):34 (2) 50% of the tariff payable under (1) is payable when either (a) or (b) apply: (a) the application is one referred to in paragraph p; or (b) the application is a limited permission case under . (A) the application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 part 6; and34 (B) the application is:34 (i) a straightforward case under paragraph 2(d) or 3(g) of FEES 3 Annex 1; (ii) a moderately complex case under paragraph 2(e) or 3(h) of FEES 3 Annex 1; or (iii) a limited permission case under paragraph 3(i) of FEES 3 Annex 1. (3) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as applying for a Part 4A permission, the fee payable is the higher of: 80 (i) the fee otherwise payable in (1) or (2); and 80 (ii) the fee payable in FEES 3 Annex 10AR. 80 (4) No fee is payable if the applicant satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(a).41 1 80 34 34 34 34	On or before the application is made
(aa) A person who makes an application under section 24A of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 31 (Applications for a standard licence where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant application”)30	As (a) above less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant application.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
(b) Any Treaty firm that wishes to exercise a Treaty right to qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 to the Act (Treaty rights) in respect of regulated activities for which it does not have an EEA right, except for a firm providing cross border services only4	(1) Where no certificate has been issued under paragraph 3(4) of Schedule 4 to the Act the fee payable is, in respect of a particular exercise, set out in FEES 3 Annex 1, part 4 (2) Where a certificate in (i) has been issued no fee is payable	On or before the notice of exercise is given
(c) Any applicant for a certificate under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order	2,000	On or before the application is made
(d) Applicants for an authorisation order for, or recognition under section 272 of the Act 27 of, a collective investment scheme	FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 227 27	On or before the application is made
(da) Applicants for the authorisation of an AIF as a UK ELTIF 36	FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 2A36	On or before the date the application is made36
(e) The management company 27 of a scheme making a notification under section 264 of the Act 27 27	FEES 3 Annex 2R, part 327 27	On or before the date the application is made28
28(ea) (i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation (ii) An AIFM notifying the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation	FEES 3 Annex 2 R, part 4	On or before the date the notification is made
28(eb) An applicant for registration on the register of small registered UK AIFM which the FCA is required to maintain under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation	£750	On or before the date the application is made
(f) Any person seeking an order under section 326(1) of the Act to become a designated professional body.	10,000	30 days after the order is granted
(g) Any applicant for recognition as a UK recognised body:17 (i) under section 287 of the Act; or17 (ii) under regulation 2(1) of the RAP regulations 17 78	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1	On or before the date the application is made26
26(ga) Any applicant for: (i) a Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark; or35 administering a specified benchmark for one or more specified benchmarks or;35 (ii) varying its Part 4A permission to carry out the regulated activity of administering a specified benchmark for one or more specified benchmarks 35	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 1	On or before the date the application is made
(h) Any applicant for recognition as an ROIE 78 under section 287 or section 292 of the Act 78 78	FEES 3 Annex 3, part 2	On or before the date the application is made
(i) [deleted]35 35	35	35
(j) [deleted]38	38	38
(k) [deleted]35 35	35	35
(l) [deleted]38	38 7 2	38
(m) [deleted]38	38 7 2	38
(n) Applicants to be added to the list of designated investment exchanges	50,000	On or before the date the application is made
2(o) In relation to a BIPRU firm, either:29 (i) a firm applying to the FCA 29 for permission to use one of the advanced prudential calculation approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6 R (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the FCA 29 as EEA consolidated supervisor under the (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EU CRR 29)) any firm making such an application ;5 or (ii) in the case of an application to 5a Home State regulator other than the FCA 29 5for the use of the Internal Ratings Based approach and the Home State regulator requesting the FCA's 29 assistance in accordance with the Capital Requirements Regulations 2006 (transposing parts of the BCD and CAD, as applicable under article 95(2) of the EU CRR 29), any firm to which the FCA 29 would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach.5 1 1 2 29 5 78 29 5 78 29 5 78 29 78 29 78 29	(1) Unless5 (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6.5 (2) (a) Unless5 (b) applies a1 firm submitting a second application for the permission or5 guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6, but only in respect of that second application (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission5 based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements.1 (c) No fee is payable where the Home State regulator has requested the assistance described in paragraph (o)(ii) of column 1 except in the cases specified in 5FEES 3 Annex 6.2 5 2 5 1 2 5 5 5 78 5 78 5	Where the firm has made an application directly to the FCA 29, on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the FCA 29 notifies the firm that its EEA parent's Home State regulator has requested assistance.2 29 2 78 29 78 29 78
29(oa) Either: (i) a firm applying to the 37 FCA for permission to use one of the internal approaches listed in FEES 3 Annex 6A (or guidance on its availability), including any future proposed amendments to those approaches or (in the case of any application being made for such permission to the 37 FCA as consolidating supervisor under the EU CRR) any firm making such an application; or (ii) in the case of an application to the consolidating supervisor other than the 37 FCA for the use of the IRB approach and the consolidating supervisor requesting the 37 FCA's assistance in accordance with the EU CRR, any firm to which the 37 FCA would have to apply any decision to permit the use of that approach. 37 37 37 37 37	(1) Unless (2) applies, FEES 3 Annex 6A. (2) (a) Unless (b) applies a firm submitting a second application for the permission or guidance described in column (1) within 12 months of the first application (where the fee was paid in accordance with (1)) must pay 50% of the fee applicable to it under FEES 3 Annex 6A, but only in respect of that second application. (b) No fee is payable by a firm in relation to a successful application for a permission based on a minded to grant decision in respect of the same matter following a complete application for guidance in accordance with prescribed submission requirements. (c) No fee is payable where the consolidating supervisor has requested the assistance described in paragraph (oa)(ii) of column 1. 37	Where the firm has made an application directly to the 37 FCA , on or before the date the application is made, otherwise within 30 days after the 37 FCA notifies the firm that its EEA parent's consolidating supervisor has requested assistance. 37 37
(p) A firm applying for a variation of its Part 4A permission whose fee is not payable pursuant to sub- paragraph (ga) of this table26	(1) Unless (2), (2A), (3), (3A), (3B), (3C), (3D) or 3(E)44 applies, if the proposed new1 business of the firm would1 fall within one or more activity groups specified in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR not applicable before the application1, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application. (2) Subject to (2A) below, if the firm's application includes an application for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 that would be payable under (1) above or, if higher, 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 that would be payable in relation to the new credit-related regulated activity 30.37 (2A) If an applicant which already has a Part 4A permission to carry on a credit-related regulated activity exclusively applies for a Part 4A permission to carry on a new credit-related regulated activity, that is specified in Part 3 of FEES 3 Annex 1R37 in the straightforward category (or if it exclusively applies for a number of such permissions), the fee is £25030.37 (3) If the firm is in the A.1 fee-block at the date of the application and the variation involves adding any of the regulated activities of meeting of repayment claims or managing dormant account funds (including the investment of such funds), the fee is 50% of the fee in FEES 3 Annex 1 R that applies to that application11 (3A) If the applicant had a limited permission prior to the application to vary its Part 4A permission, 100% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 1R37 which apply to that application30.37 (3B) If the applicant has a limited permission and its application exclusively relates to another limited permission, the fee is 030 (3C) If the applicant applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order at the same time as it applies for a variation of its Part 4A permission, the fee is the highest of the fees set out in FEES 3 Annex 10AR and the amount otherwise payable in (1), (2), (2A), (3), (3A) or (3B), or (4).80 (3D) No fee is payable if the applicant satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(a).41 (4) 11 In all other cases, other than applications by credit unions, the fee payable is 250 for firms which are not, or are not seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person, and 125 for firms which are, or are seeking to become, a PRA-authorised person,78 unless the variation involves only the reduction (and no other increases) in the scope of a Part 4A permission in which case no fee is payable.1 (3E) The fee is 12,500 if the firm applying:44 (i) is an MTF operator and the proposed new business of the firm is to be an OTF operator; or44 (ii) is an OTF operator and the proposed new business of the firm is to be an MTF operator.44 30 80 41 30 80 80 1 78 78 37 78 37 80 80 37 1 37 30 30 23 37 37 37 11 37	On or before the date the application is made
30(pa) A person who makes an application under section 30(1) of the Consumer Credit Act 1974 which meets the conditions of article 33 (Variations at request of licensee where no determination made before 1 April 2014) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) (Amendment) (No 2) Order 2013 (the “relevant variation application”)	As (a) or 31(p) above, less any amount paid to the Office of Fair Trading in relation to the relevant variation application.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
2(q) [deleted]38 7 7 13 79 13 79 7 7 22 22 7	38	38 3 3 3
2(r) [deleted]46	6 6	5 6 6
5(s) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme, a transferor. Note - for the purpose of this paragraph an insurance business transfer scheme consists of a single transferor and a single transferee. Where however such a scheme is part of a single larger scheme, that larger scheme is treated as a single insurance business transfer scheme. If an insurance business transfer scheme includes more than one transferor in accordance with this paragraph, the transferors are liable to pay the fee under column (2) jointly.	Either (1) or (2) as set out below: (1) In the case of an insurance business transfer scheme involving long term insurance business, 9,25037; or (2) in the case of an insurance business transfer scheme not involving long term insurance business, 5,000. 77 77 37 77 77 37 77 37	On or before any application is made for the appointment of a person as an independent expert. 37
6(t) [deleted]46 20
(u) [deleted]34 34	34	34
(v) [deleted]38 22 22	38	38
[deleted]35 35	35	35
(x)[deleted]38	38	38 8
8(y) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised payment institution under regulation 5 of the Payment Services Regulations	The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8 which apply to that application. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.47	On or before the date the application is made.
47(ya) An applicant for registration as an account information service provider under regulation 17 of the Payment Services Regulations.	47FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (2)(i). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.	47On or before the date the application is made.
(z) An application by a small payment institution for authorisation as an authorised payment institution because regulation 16 47 of the Payment Services Regulations applies	The highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application.	On or before the date the application is made.
(za) An applicant for registration as a small payment institution under regulation 13 47 of the Payment Services Regulations	FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 8R.	On or before the date the application is made.
(zb) An authorised payment institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 5 47 of the Payment Services Regulations.	(1) If50 prior to the variation the authorised payment institution is authorised to carry on any one or more of the payment services falling50 within paragraph (f), 47 (g) or (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and the authorised payment institution is applying to extend its authorisation to include any one or more of the payment services in (a) to (e)50, the fee is 50% of the highest of the tariffs set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R which apply to that application. (2) Where the authorised payment institution 50 already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (e) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or more other services in (a) to (f);50 the fee payable is £47250 irrespective of the number of agents it has. 50(3) Where the authorised payment institution already has authorisation to provide payment services within any one or more of paragraphs (a) to (f) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations and wishes to add one or both of the services in (g) and (h) the fee payable is £750, irrespective of the number of agents it has. (4)50 In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable. 47 47 47 47 47	On or before the date the application is made.
(zc) A small payment institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 13 47 of the Payment Services Regulations	(1)The 47 fee is 50% of the tariff 47set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R, paragraph (1). 47 (2) 47 In cases where the variation involves only the reduction (and no increases) of the types of payment services to be carried on after the variation, no fee is payable. 47 47	On or before the date the application is made.
(zd) 47	47	[deleted]47
(ze) Any person to which the Special Project Fee for restructuring applies under FEES 3 Annex 9.12 12	Special Project Fee for restructuring in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 9 .	30 days of the date of the invoice.9
(zf) [deleted]78 78	78	9 16 78
16(zg) An applicant for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution under regulation 5 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zh) An applicant for registration as a small electronic money institution under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. Where an application only involves a simple change of legal status as set out in FEES 3 Annex 1 R Part 6, the fee payable is 50% of the tariff that would otherwise be payable in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zi) An application by a small electronic money institution for authorisation as an authorised electronic money institution 14because regulation 16 of the Electronic Money Regulations applies.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zj) An authorised electronic money institution applying to vary its authorisation under regulation 8 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	50(1) Subject to (2) below, the fee is 50% of the tariff for an electronic money institution authorisation application set out in FEES 3 Annex 10R. 50(2) Where the authorised electronic money institution applies to vary its permission so as to be able to provide one or both of the payment services in paragraphs (g) and (h) of Part 1 of Schedule 1 to the Payment Services Regulations the fee payable is £750.	On or before the date the application is made.
16(zk) A small electronic money institution applying to vary its registration under regulation 12 of the Electronic Money Regulations.	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R.	On or before the date the application is made.
15(zl) An applicant for recognition as an accredited body.	2,500	On or before the date the application is made.18
18(zm) An issuer applying for registration of a regulated covered bond.	(1) Unless (2) or (3)41 applies, 45,000. (2) In the case of a proposed covered bond or programme where the assets in the asset pool will consist primarily of UK residential mortgages, 25,000. (3) No fee is payable if the issuer satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(b).41	On or before the date the application is made.
18(zn) An issuer who proposes to make a material change to the contractual terms of a regulated covered bond under RCB 3.5.4 D.	(1) Unless (2) applies 6,500.41 (2) No fee is payable if the issuer satisfies the criteria set out in FEES 4 Annex 2BR(5)(c).41	On or before the date the notification under RCB 3.5.4 D is made.21
21(zo) In the case of persons in respect of which the FCA has given notice of its intention to take, or appoint a competent person to take, any steps under CONRED 2.5.12R, either: (i) a Firm (as defined in CONRED 2.1.1R(1); or (ii) a person falling within CONRED 2.1.2R(1).	An amount equal to: (1) a sum determined by the number of hours, or part of an hour, taken by the FCA in relation to work conducted in taking steps under recorded on the FCA's systems, multiplied by the rate in FEES 3 Annex 9 (11)R; or (2) any amount invoiced to the FCA by a competent person in relation to any work carried out by that competent person in connection with its appointment by the FCA under CONRED 2.5.12R.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
78(zp) A person in respect of which the FCA 37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to provide it with a report pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act and SUP 5.2. 37	Any amount invoiced to the FCA 37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166(3)(b) of the Act. 37	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
78(zq) A person in respect of which the FCA 37 has given notice of its intention to itself appoint a skilled person to collect or update information pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act . 37	Any amount invoiced to the FCA 37 by a skilled person in relation to any work carried out by that skilled person in connection with its appointment by the FCA 37 pursuant to section 166A(2)(b) of the Act. 37 37	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33
33(zr) [deleted]38	38	38
30(zs) Applicant for FCA permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) and/or money paid or property transferred under and agreement to be retained under 3128A(3)(b) of the Act	(1) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act and for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act, the fee is 31£3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.30 (2) If the application is for permission for an agreement to be enforced under section 28A(3)(a) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31 (3) If the application is for permission for money paid or property transferred under an agreement to be retained under section 28A(3)(b) of the Act only, the fee is £3,500 per type of agreement specified in the application.31 Where there are a number of agreements of the same type, only one fee is payable in respect of those agreements. A number of agreements are of the same type when those agreements are entered into on the same terms and conditions.	On or before the date the application is made.
(zt) An applicant for registration in the Financial Services Register under article 8(1) of the MCD Order. 80	Unless (1), or (2) applies, the fee as set out in FEES 3 Annex 10A. 80 (1) If the applicant is applying for a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (a), column (2) paragraph (3) of this Table. 80 (2) If the applicant is applying for a variation of a Part 4A permission at the same time as it applies for registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, the fee payable in row (p), column 2 paragraph (3)(c) of this Table. 80	On or before the application is made.80
(zu)40 Any person to which the Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee applies under FEES 3 Annex 10B. 39	Designated Credit Reference Agencies and Finance Platform42 Fee in accordance with FEES 3 Annex 10B.	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
43(zv) Any firm that meets the test in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1)R(1) (PPI campaign fees).	The amount set out in FEES 3 Annex 10C(1) R(2).	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
45(zw) An applicant for authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations, or the operator of a trading venue seeking verification of their compliance with Title V of MiFID 49 under regulation 8 of the DRS Regulations or an applicant for variation of an authorisation under regulation 12 of the DRS Regulations.	Either (1), (2), or (3) applies as set out below: (1) If the applicant is applying for permission to operate one data reporting service, 5,000. (2) If the applicant is applying for permission to operate more than one data reporting services, 50% of the fee at (1) for each additional service plus the fee at (1). (3) If the applicant is applying for variation of an authorisation, 50% of the fee at (1) for each additional service.	On the date the application is made.
46(zx) (1) Unless (2) applies any person applying to connect to the market data processor system to make transaction reports directly to the FCA under MiFIR. (2) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zx)(1) above and has been connected then no further fee is payable for any further such applications.	1) Unless (2) applies, 20,000. (2) Any incoming data reporting services provider will pay 80% of the fee at (1).	On the date the application is made
46(zy) (1) Subject to (2) and (3) below, any person applying to connect to the market data processor system to provide markets data (other than transaction reports) under MiFID 49 and MiFIR. (2) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zy)(1) above and has been connected then no further fee is payable for any further such applications in relation to reporting the same data. (3) If a person has previously applied as stated in (zy)(1) above and makes a further application in relation to the provision of different data then a separate fee is payable for such application.	(1) Unless (2) applies, 10,000. (2) Any incoming data reporting services provider authorised by another EEA State will pay 80% of the fee at (1).	On the date the application is made.
51(zz) an applicant for registration under regulation 14 of the Risk Transformation Regulations as a protected cell company.	500	On or before the date the application is made.
32Part 2: UKLA38 fees
(1) Fee payer	(2) Fee payable	(3) Due date
(a) (i) An issuer which has not made public its annual financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.1.3 R. (ii) An issuer which has not made public its half-yearly financial report before the latest time specified in DTR 4.2.2 R (2).	FEES 3 Annex 12R38	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice.
38(b) An applicant for approval as a sponsor.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date the application is made.
38(c) For the purposes of48 the listing rules:48 (i)48 an issuer requesting approval of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction; or48 48(ii) an issuer or person applying for eligibility for listing of its securities.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(d) Under the prospectus rules, Prospectus Rules or the Prospectus Regulation, an issuer or a person requesting approval or review of a document arising in relation to a specific event or transaction, which is not a significant transaction or a super transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(e) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a super transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(f) An issuer requesting the approval or review of a document in connection with a significant transaction.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(g) A person who requests the FCA’s approval of a document that includes a mineral expert’s report and who is a fee payer under one or more of the categories (c), (d), (e), and (f) above must additionally pay a fee under this category.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date that relevant document is first submitted to the FCA.
38(h) An applicant for approval as a primary information provider.	FEES 3 Annex 12R	On or before the date the application is made.

[Note:Guidance on how a firm liable to pay a fee under both rows (s) and (ze) of this table for the same transaction should expect to be treated is set out in FEES 3 Annex 11 G.]19

FEES 3.1.6AG01/05/2009

4Application fees for authorisation or registration under the Payment Services Regulations are set out in FEES 3 Annex 8R . The fee depends on the type of payment services a firm wishes to provide and whether it will be a small payment institution or an authorised payment institution. The fee may also depend on the number of agents it has.

FEES 3.1.6BG10/02/2011

6Application fees for authorisation or registration under the Electronic Money Regulations are set out in FEES 3 Annex 10 R. The fee depends on whether the firm is an authorised electronic money institution or a small electronic money institution.

FEES 3.1.6EG03/01/2018

(1) 12Application fees for authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations, and for operators of trading venues seeking verification of their compliance with Title V of MiFID14 under regulation 8 of the DRS Regulations and for variation of an authorisation under regulation 12 of the DRS Regulations are set out in the table at FEES 3.2.7R.(2) The fee depends on the number of data reporting services for which the firm is making an application.

FEES 4.4.9D01/04/2013

3To the extent that a firm4 has provided the information required by FEES 4.4.7 D to the FCA as part of its compliance with another provision of the Handbook, it is deemed to have complied with the provisions of that direction.444

SUP 13A.1.1G07/03/2016

(1) 1This chapter applies to an EEA firm that wishes to exercise an entitlement to establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, the United Kingdom under a Single Market Directive or the auction regulation7. (The Act refers to such an entitlement as an EEA right and its exercise is referred to in the Handbook as "passporting".) (See SUP App 3 (Guidance on passporting issues) for further guidance on passporting.)The chapter does not, apart from in SUP 13A.6G (rules

SUP 13A.1.2G16/07/2016

This chapter does not apply to:(1) an EEA firm that wishes to carry on in the United Kingdom activities which are outside the scope of its EEA right and the scope of a permission granted under Schedule 4 to the Act; in this case the EEA firm requires a "top-up permission" under Part 4A16 of the Act (see the appropriate UK regulator's website www.fca.org.uk/firms/authorisation/apply-authorisation for the FCA and www.bankofengland.co.uk/pra/Pages/authorisations/newfirm/default.aspx

SUP 13A.1.4G01/02/2006

(1) This chapter explains how an EEA firm and a Treaty firm can qualify for authorisation under Schedules 3 and 4 to the Act and how a UCITS qualifier is authorised under Schedule 5 to the Act. (2) This chapter also provides guidance on Schedule 3 to the Act for an incoming EEA firm that wishes to establish a branch in the United Kingdom instead of, or in addition to, providing cross border services into the United Kingdom or vice versa.

PERG 5.2.2G06/10/2007

Any person who carries on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom by way of business must either be an authorised person or exempt from the need for authorisation. Otherwise, the person commits a criminal offence and certain agreements may be unenforceable. PERG 2.2 (Authorisation and regulated activities) has further guidance on these consequences.2

PERG 5.2.3G16/07/2016

A person who is concerned to know whether his proposed insurance mediation activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form, in the flow chart in PERG 5.15.2 G (Flow chart: regulated activities related to insurance mediation – do you need authorisation?):(1) will the activities relate to contracts of insurance (see PERG 5.3(Contracts

PERG 5.2.9G01/07/2005

It is the scope of the Regulated Activities Order rather than the IMD which will determine whether a person requires authorisation or exemption. However, the scope of the IMD is relevant to the application of certain exclusions under the Regulated Activities Order (see, for example, the commentary on article 67 in PERG 5.11.9 G (Activities carried on in the course of a profession or non-investment business)).

GEN 2.2.18R06/07/2006

(1) If a firm, which is a partnership7 or unincorporated association, is dissolved, but its authorisation continues to have effect under section 32 of the Act (Partnerships and unincorporated associations) in relation to any partnership or unincorporated association7 which succeeds to the business of the dissolved firm, the successor partnership or unincorporated association7 is to be regarded as the same firm for the purposes of the Handbook unless the context otherwise requires7.77(2)

GEN 2.2.19G06/02/2008

In principle, it is possible to view a change of partners7 in a partnership7, or a change in the membership of the unincorporated association, as the formation of a new partnership7 or association. GEN 2.2.18 R reflects section 32 of the Act (Partnerships and unincorporated associations), which provides for the continuing authorisation of partnerships7 and unincorporated associations following a change in partners7 or members if certain conditions are satisfied. GEN 2.2.18 R

GEN 2.2.22BG03/01/2018

(1) 21The purpose of GEN 2.2.22AR is to ensure consistency with the principle referred to in recital 109 to MiFID that a third country investment firm should not be treated in a more favourable way than an EEA firm. A third country investment firm does not, however, benefit from passporting rights in the manner envisaged for EEA firms and its authorisation requires consideration of other issues, including the nature and extent of regulation provided by its Home State regulator.(2)

GEN 2.2.25G26/01/2017

An example of a rule20 being interpreted as cut back by GEN 2.2.23R is SYSC 6.1.1R, which requires a firm to maintain adequate policies and procedures to ensure compliance with its obligations under the regulatory system; SYSC 6.1.1R should be interpreted as applied by the FCA in respect of a PRA-authorised person’s compliance with regulatory obligations that are the responsibility of the FCA (for example, in respect of a bank maintaining policies and procedures to ensure compliance

PERG 2.10.7G01/07/2005

Various named persons are exempted by Order made by the Treasury under section 38 of the Act from the need to obtain authorisation (the Exemption Order). Some of the exemptions are subject to restrictions as to the circumstances in which they apply. For example, a person is only exempt when acting in a particular capacity or for particular purposes.

PERG 2.10.9G01/07/2005

Several activities carried on in connection with business at Lloyds are regulated activities in respect of which authorisation must be obtained. These include the regulated activities of advising on syndicate participation at Lloyd's or managing the underwriting capacity of Lloyd's syndicate as a managing agent at Lloyd's or arranging (bringing about) deals in investments or making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments for another in relation to such participation

PERG 2.10.14G28/02/2014

The regulated activities that may be carried on in this way are restricted by an Order made by the Treasury under section 327(6) of the Act (Exemption from the general prohibition) (the Non-Exempt Activities Order). Accordingly, under that section, a person may not by way of business carry on any of the following activities without authorisation:(1) accepting deposits;(2) effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance;(3) dealing in investments as principal;(3A) 4bidding in

SUP 6.1.1G01/04/2013

This chapter applies to every firm with a Part 4A permission7 which wishes to:7(1) vary its Part 4A permission;7 or7(2) cancel its Part 4A permission7 and end its authorisation;777(3) have a new requirement imposed on it;7(4) vary a requirement imposed on it; or7(5) cancel a requirement imposed on it.7

SUP 6.1.4G01/04/2013

This chapter explains:(1) how a firm with a Part 4A permission7 can apply to the relevant regulator7 to vary that permission;77(2) how a firm which has ceased to carry on any of the regulated activities for which it has a Part 4A permission,7 or which expects to do so in the short term (normally less than six months), should apply to the relevant regulator7 to cancel that permission completely; 77(2A) how a firm with a Part 4A permission can apply to the relevant regulator to:7(a)

SUP 6.1.5G01/04/2013

This chapter also outlines the relevant regulator's powers to withdraw authorisation from a firm whose Part 4A permission7 has been cancelled at the firm's request.727

PERG 5.13.1G01/04/2014

Section 39 of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives) exempts appointed representatives from the need to obtain authorisation (or, in relation to an appointed representative with a limited permission, provides that sections 20(1) and (1A) and 23(1A) of the Act do not apply in relation to the carrying on of the regulated activity which is comprised in the business for which his principal has accepted responsibility and for which he does not have limited permission)1. An

PERG 5.13.5G01/04/2013

A person who is not already an appointed representative may wish to become one in relation to the regulated activitiesspecified in the Appointed Representatives Regulations (see table in PERG 5.13.4 G). If so, he must be appointed under a written contract by an authorised person, who has permission to carry on those regulated activities and who accepts responsibility for the appointed representative's actions when acting for him. SUP 12.4 (What must a firm do when it appoints

PERG 5.13.6G01/04/2014

Where a person is already an appointed representative and he proposes to carry on any insurance mediation activities, he will need to consider the following matters.(1) He must become authorised if his proposed insurance mediation activities include activities that do not fall within the table in PERG 5.13.4 G (for example, dealing as agent in pure protection contracts) and he wishes to carry on these activities. The Act does not permit any person to be exempt for some activities

PERG 8.15.1G01/07/2005

Article 55 of the Financial Promotion Order contains a specific exemption for professional firms allowing them to make solicited or unsolicited real time financial promotions. This is provided the financial promotion is made:(1) by a person who carries on a regulated activity without needing authorisation under the Part XX exemption; and(2) to someone who has already (that is, before the financial promotion is made) engaged the person making the financial promotion to provide

PERG 8.15.5G01/10/2005

Article 55A of the Financial Promotion Order exempts non-real time financial promotions where the financial promotion:1(1) is made by a person who carries on a regulated activity without needing authorisation under the Part XX exemption (referred to in PERG 8.15.6 G and PERG 8.15.7 G as ‘Part XX activities’); and(2) contains a specified statement and is limited in its content to the matters referred to in PERG 8.15.6 G.

PERG 8.15.6G01/04/2014

A financial promotion made under article 55A must contain a statement in the following terms: “The [firm/company] is not authorised under the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 but we are able in certain circumstances to offer a limited range of investment and consumer credit-related2 services to clients because we are members of [relevant designated professional body]. We can provide these investment and consumer credit-related2 services if they are an incidental part

PERG 5.14.1G01/04/2013

Professional firms (broadly firms of solicitors, accountants and actuaries) may carry on insurance mediation activities in the course of their professional activities. Exempt professional firms carrying on insurance mediation activities may continue to be able to use the Part XX exemption to avoid any need for authorisation. PROF 2 (Status of exempt professional firm) contains guidance on the Part XX exemption. They will, however, need to be shown on the Financial Services Register

PERG 5.14.2G01/07/2005

Professional firms with practices that involve acting for claimants in litigation against insurance undertakings are likely to be carrying on the regulated activity of assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance. Exempt professional firms whose practices contain a material element of such activity should consider whether they can continue to take advantage of the Part XX exemption to avoid any need for authorisation, having regard to the relevant

PERG 5.14.5G01/04/2014

In addition to certain named persons exempted by the Exemption Order from the need to obtain authorisation, the following bodies are exempt in relation to insurance mediation activities that do not relate to life policies:(1) [deleted]22(2) registered social landlords in England and Wales within the meaning of Part I of the Housing Act 1996 but not their subsidiaries;(3) registered social landlords in Scotland within the meaning of the Housing (Scotland) Act 2001 but not their

SYSC 8.1.4R03/01/2018

For the purposes of this chapter an operational function is regarded as critical or important if a defect or failure in its performance would materially impair the continuing compliance of a firm (other than a common platform firm)7 with the conditions and obligations of its authorisation or its other obligations under the regulatory system, or its financial performance, or the soundness or the continuity of its relevant services and activities.7

SYSC 8.1.6R03/01/2018

If a firm (other than a common platform firm)7 outsources critical or important operational functions or any relevant services and activities, it remains fully responsible for discharging all of its obligations under the regulatory system and must comply, in particular, with the following conditions:2(1) the outsourcing must not result in the delegation by senior personnel of their responsibility;(2) the relationship and obligations of the firm towards its clients under the regulatory system

SYSC 8.1.8R03/01/2018

A UCITS investment firm7 must in particular take the necessary steps to ensure that the following conditions are satisfied:(1) the service provider must have the ability, capacity, and any authorisation required by law to perform the outsourced functions, services or activities reliably and professionally;(2) the service provider must carry out the outsourced services effectively, and to this end the firm must establish methods for assessing the standard of performance of the

FEES 4.2.7ER24/02/2017

(1) (a) 42A firm (other than an AIFM qualifier, an ICVC, a UCITS qualifier, or an issuer of regulated covered bonds) which becomes authorised or registered, or whose permission and/or activities is extended, during the course of the fee year must pay a fee based on its projected valuation for the first twelve months of its new business.(b) This is the valuation provided by the firm in the course of its application.(2) The calculation for the first year of authorisation or registration

FEES 4.2.7KR01/04/2018

42Where the measure is not cumulative (e.g. the number of traders for fee-block A10), the firm must use the figure relating to its annual reporting date (e.g. 31 December for A10) or, if that is not available, the projected figure used when it was authorised. Table A sets out the reporting requirements for the key fee-blocks when actual data is not available:

Table A: calculating tariff data for second and subsequent years of authorisation when full trading figures are not available

Fee-block	Tariff base	Calculation where trading data are not available
A1. Deposit acceptors	Average MELS for October - December	Use data available at 31 December or, if trading has not commenced by 31 December, use the projection submitted as part of the application process.
A2. Home finance providers and administrators	Number of relevant contracts entered into or being administered in the twelve months up to 31 December	Apply the formula (A÷B) x 12 to arrive at an annualised figure.
A3. Insurers - general	Gross written premium for fees purposes (GWP) 43for the financial year ended in the calendar year ending 31 December and best estimate liabilities for fees purposes (BEL) 43 valued at the end of the financial year	GWP 43 – apply the formula (A÷B) x 12 to arrive at an annualised figure. BEL – use 43 data at valuation date or, if trading has not commenced by then, use projections provided at authorisation.
A4. Insurers - life	Gross written premium for fees purposes (GWP) 43 for the financial year ended in the calendar year ending 31 December and best estimate liabilities for fees purposes (BEL) 43 valued at the end of the financial year
A5. Managing agents at Lloyd’s	Active capacity in respect of the underwriting year at the beginning of the period to which the fee relates	Not applicable.
A6. The Society of Lloyd’s	Bespoke fee	Not applicable.
A7. Portfolio managers	Funds under management valued at 31 December	Use data as at 31 December or, if trading has not commenced by 31 December, use the projection submitted as part of the application process.
A9. Managers and depositaries of investment funds, and operators of collective investment schemes or pension schemes	Annual gross income for the financial year ended in the calendar year ending 31 December	Apply the formula (A÷B) x 12 to arrive at an annualised figure.
A10. Firms dealing as principal	Number of traders as at 31 December	Use data as at 31 December or, if trading has not commenced by 31 December, use the projection submitted as part of the application process
A13. Advisors, arrangers, dealers or brokers	Annual income for the financial year ended in the calendar year ending 31 December	Apply the formula (A÷B) x 12 to arrive at the annualised figure
A14. Corporate finance advisers
A18. Home finance providers, advisers and arrangers
A19. General insurance mediation
A21. Firms holding client money or assets, or both	The highest amount of client money and the highest amount of custody assets held over the 12 months ending 31 December	The highest amount of client money and/or custody assets over the period between the date of authorisation and 31 December or, if trading has not started, use the projection submitted as part of the application process.
B. Market operators,41 MTF operators and OTF operators41	Flat fee	Not applicable.
B. Service companies	Annual income for the financial year ended in the calendar year ending 31 December	Apply the formula (A÷B) x 12 to arrive at the annualised figure.
B. Benchmark administrators	Annual income for the financial year ended in the calendar year ending 31 December39	Apply the formula (A÷B) x 12 to arrive at the annualised figure.39
B. Recognised investment exchanges	Annual income for the financial year ended in the calendar year ending 31 December39	Apply the formula (A÷B) x 12 to arrive at the annualised figure.39
B. Recognised auction platforms	Flat fee	Not applicable.
B. Recognised overseas investment exchanges	Flat fee	Not applicable.
CC1. Credit-related regulated activities with limited permission	Annual income for the financial year ended in the calendar year ending 31 December	Apply the formula (A÷B) x 12 to arrive at an annualised figure.
CC2. Credit related regulated activities
40	40	40
G.2 Payment services institutions – deposit acceptors	See A1 deposit acceptors
G.3. Large payment services institutions	Relevant income	Apply the formula (A÷B) x 12 to arrive at an annualised figure.
G.4 Small payment institutions	Flat fee	Not applicable.
G.5 Other payment institutions	Relevant income	Apply the formula (A÷B) x 12 to arrive at an annualised figure.
G.10 Large electronic money institutions	Average outstanding e-money over 12 months ending 31 December	Average over the period from authorisation to 31 December.
G.11 Small electronic money institutions	Flat fee	Not applicable.
G.15 Issuer of regulated covered bonds	Value as at 31 December	Not applicable.
G.20 Consumer buy-to-let (CBTL) lender	Flat fee	Not applicable.
G.21 CBTL adviser and arranger	Flat fee	Not applicable.

FEES 4.2.11R31/03/2018

Table of periodic fees payable to the FCA 65

65

1 Fee payer	2 Fee payable	3 Due date	4 Events occurring during the period leading to modified periodic fee
Any firm (except an AIFM qualifier,25 ICVC or a UCITS qualifier)	(1) Unless (2) applies, as37 specified in FEES 4.3.1 R in relation to FEES 4 Annex 2AR and FEES 4 Annex 11 R65.37 (2) Where a firm is paying a ring-fencing implementation fee, as specified in FEES 4 Annex 2BR.37	(1) Unless (2) or (3) apply7, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.12 (2) Unless (3) applies, if 7an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year,64 30 days after the occurrence of that event, or if later the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.7 (3) Where the permission is for operating a multilateral trading facility or operating an organised trading facility 41, the date specified in FEES 4 Annex 10FEES 4 Annex 10R41 (Periodic fees for MTF and OTF41 operators). 7 7 64	Firm receives permission, or becomes authorised or registered under the Payment Services Regulations, article 8 of the MCD Order 32, the DRS Regulations 41 or the Electronic Money Regulations 12;9 or firm 9extends permission or its payment service activities9 16 67 9
Persons who hold a certificate issued by the FCA 64 under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order (Advice given in newspapers etc.) 64	£1,09540 31 31	(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice23 (2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year,64 30 days after the occurrence of that event 23 64	Certificate issued to person by FCA 64 under article 4054 RAO 64
Any manager of an AUT 23; 23	In relation to each unit trust the amount specified in part 1 of 25FEES 4 Annex 4		Authorisation order is made in relation to the relevant scheme 24
24Any authorised fund manager of an authorised contractual scheme;	In relation to each authorised contractual scheme the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4
Any ACD of an ICVC; and	In relation to each ICVC,25 the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4
Persons who, under the constitution or founding arrangements of a recognised scheme, are 33responsible for the management of the property held for or within the scheme;	In relation to each recognised scheme the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4	The relevant scheme becomes a recognised scheme 25
		The relevant scheme becomes a recognised scheme 25	Not applicable
AIFM of a UK ELTIF 33	In relation to each ELTIF the amount specified in part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 433	(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33 (2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event.33	The ELTIF is authorised by the FCA under the ELTIF regulation 33
Designated professional body	FEES 4 Annex 5	On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23 23	Not applicable
UK recognised body	FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1 for a UK RIE ; and FEES 4 Annex 6 R, part 1A for a UK RIE that is also an RAP 13 65	(1) On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23 (2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year 64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event 23 64	Recognition order is made. The modified11 66 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6 R, Part 1and (in the case of an RAP) Part 1A.13 11 66 11 66 11 66 11 66 11 66
ROIE 65 65	FEES 4 Annex 6, part 2	(1) On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23 (2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year 64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event. 23 64	Recognition order is made. The modified11 66 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6, Part 2.11 66 11 66 11 66 11 66 11 66
A listed issuer 35 (in LR) of shares and certificates representing certain securities 35. 3 3	FEES 4 Annex 14R35	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice	Listed issuer 3 (in LR) becomes subject to listing rules 3
A sponsor 35	FEES 4 Annex 14R35 31 10 12 23 23 31 12 10 2 31	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice	35Approval of a35 sponsor 35 14 14 14
All non-listed issuers (in DTR) of shares and certificates representing certain securities 35. 6 6	FEES 4 Annex 14R35 29	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice	Non-listed issuer (in DTR) becomes subject to disclosure requirements 36 and transparency rules 6 29
29Any primary information provider	FEES 4 Annex 14R35	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice	A person is approved as a primary information provider
6All firms reporting transactions in securities derivatives 10to the FCA 64 in accordance with SUP 17, and market operators who provide facilities for trading in securities derivatives.10 64 10	FEES 4 Annex 9 R	Within 30 days of the date of the invoice	Not applicable
15Any issuer of a regulated covered bond.	FEES 4 Annex 11R	(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R (2) If an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year 64, 30 days after the occurrence of that event or, if later, the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R 64	A person becomes registered as an issuer of a regulated covered bond
26(i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) which has notified the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation and which has not ceased to market that AIF in the UK as at 1 April of the current fee year. (ii) An AIFM which has notified the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation and which has not ceased to market that AIF in the UK as at 1 April of the current fee year.	For each notification made by the AIFM of the kind specified in part 2 of FEES 4 Annex 4, the amount specified in part 2 of FEES 4 Annex 4	(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August, or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice (2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event	The FCA receives a notification to market in the UK
26A small registered UK AIFM	The basic fee contained in part 3 of FEES 4 Annex 4		The AIFM is registered by the FCA under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation.
30			[deleted]41

Note:Sponsors on the list of approved sponsors as at 1 April each year will be liable for the full year's annual fee unless FEES 4.3.13 R applies.2

CONC 7.11.7G01/04/2014

Examples of where a firm is likely to contravene CONC 7.11.6 R include where a firm or a person acting on its behalf:(1) states or implies that bankruptcy or sequestration proceedings may be initiated when the balance of the outstanding debt is too low to qualify for such proceedings;(2) states or implies that steps will be taken to enforce a debt where the customer is making payments under a Debt Payment Programme Arrangement agreed under the Debt Arrangement and Attachment (Scotland)

CONC 7.11.8R01/04/2014

A firm must1 not suggest or state that it will commence proceedings for a warrant of execution or an attachment of earnings order when a court judgment has not been obtained, or that it will take any other enforcement action before it is possible to know whether such action will be permissible.[Note: paragraph 3.5c of DCG]

SUP 16.23.2R31/12/2016

Unless a firm is listed in the table below, this section does not apply to it where both of the following conditions are satisfied:

(1)
the firm has reported total revenue of less than £5 million as at its last accounting reference date; and
(2)
the firm only has permission to carry on one or more of the following activities:
1. (a)
  advising on investments;
2. (b)
  dealing in investments as agent;
3. (c)
  dealing in investments as principal;
4. (d)
  arranging (bringing about deals) in investments;
5. (e)
  making arrangements with a view to transactions in investments;
6. (f)
  assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance in relation to non-investment insurance contracts;
7. (g)
  agreeing to carry on a regulated activity;
8. (h)
  advising on pension transfers and pension opt-outs;
9. (i)
  credit-related regulated activity;
10. (j)
  home finance mediation activity;
11. (k)
  managing investments;
12. (l)
  establishing, operating or winding up a collective investment scheme;
13. (m)
  establishing, operating or winding up a personal pension scheme;
14. (n)
  establishing, operating or winding up a stakeholder pension scheme;
15. (o)
  managing a UCITS;
16. (p)
  managing an AIF;
17. (q)
  safeguarding and administering investments;
18. (r)
  acting as trustee or depositary of a UCITS;
19. (s)
  acting as trustee or depositary of an AIF; and/or
20. (t)
  operating a multilateral trading facility.

Table: Firms to which the exclusion in SUP 16.23.2R does not apply

a UK bank;
a building society;
a EEA bank;
a non-EEA bank;
a mortgage lender;
a mortgage administrator; or
a firm offering life and annuity insurance products.

PERG 5.4.1G01/07/2005

A person will only need authorisation or exemption if he is carrying on a regulated activity 'by way of business' (see section 22 of the Act (Regulated Activities)).

PERG 5.4.7G01/04/2013

PERG 5.4.8 G contains a table that summarises the main issues surrounding the business test as applied to insurance mediation activities and that may assist persons to determine whether they will need authorisation or exemption. The approach taken in the table involves identifying factors that, in the FCA's view, are likely to play a part in the analysis. Indicators are then given as to the significance of each factor to the person's circumstances. By analysing the indicators

Related provisions for PERG 7.4.13

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Table of application, notification, vetting and other fees payable to the FCA32