Related provisions for GENPRU 2.2.168
421 - 440 of 449 items.
The key distinction in relation to temporary activities is whether a firm should make its notification under the freedom of establishment in a Host State, or whether it should notify under the freedom to provide services into a Host State. It would be inappropriate to discuss such a complex issue in guidance of this nature. It is recommended that, where a firm is unclear on the distinction, it should seek appropriate advice. In either case, where a firm is carrying on activities
Persons who carry on a business which is not a regulated activity will need to be particularly careful in making communications which may amount to financial promotions (because they seek to persuade or incite persons to engage in investment activity (see PERG 8.4)). For example, where a company makes financial promotions to its employees, they may well be made in the course of business. Examples of these include financial promotions concerning employee share schemes, group wide
The FCA5 expects to maintain a close working relationship with certain
types of firm and expects that
routine supervisory matters arising can be resolved during the normal course
of this relationship by, for example, issuing individual guidance where
appropriate (see SUP 9.3). However,
where the FCA deems it appropriate,
it will exercise its own-initiative powers:55(1) in
circumstances where it considers it appropriate for the firm to
be subject to a formal requirement,
breach
There is power in the Act for the Treasury to change the meaning of the business element by including or excluding certain things. They have exercised this power (see the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Carrying on Regulated Activities by Way of Business) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1177), as amended from time to time)12. The result is that the business element differs depending on the activity in question. This in part reflects certain differences in the nature of the activities:35553(1)
(1) The diagram in COLL 4.3.3 G explains how an authorised fund manager should treat changes it is proposing to a scheme and provides an overview of the rules and guidance in this section.(2) Regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations (The Authority's approval for certain changes in respect of a company), section 261Q of the Act (Alteration of contractual schemes and changes of operator or depositary)5 and section 251 of the Act (Alteration of schemes and changes of manager or trustee)
(1) Guidance on what constitutes a branch is given in SUP App 3.18(2) (a) Where a UK MiFID investment firm is seeking to use a tied agent established in another EEA State in which a branch is already established, the tied agent will be assimilated into the branch.18(b) If a UK MiFID investment firm is seeking to use a tied agent established in another EEA State in which no branch is already established, the rules in SUP 13 will apply as if that firm were seeking to establish a
8Regulated activities covered by a limited permission (see the "relevant credit activities" set out in paragraph 2G of Schedule 6 to the Act) do not fall within the scope of articles 5 and 6 of the Consumer Credit Directive, therefore GEN 4.3.7 R and the guidance related to it are not relevant to those activities.
The guidance in BIPRU 3.3 (Recognition of ratings agencies) applies for the purposes of BIPRU 9 as it does to exposurerisk weighting in BIPRU 3, save that the reference in BIPRU 3.3 to the regulation 221 of the Capital Requirements Regulations 20061 should be read as a reference to regulation 231 of the Capital Requirements Regulations 20061 for the purposes of BIPRU 9.
The appropriate regulator is likely to regard a simplified ILAS BIPRU firm whose liquid assets buffer accords with the simplified buffer requirement as having an adequate buffer of assets and a prudent funding profile for the purpose of BIPRU 12.2.8R. However, the simplified ILAS approach does not relieve a simplified ILAS BIPRU firm from the obligation to hold liquidity resources which are adequate for the purpose of meeting the overall liquidity adequacy rule or from the obligation
In assessing whether a matter should be notified to the appropriate regulator9 under SUP 11.8.1 R (1), SUP 11.8.1 R (2) or SUP 11.8.1 R (3), a firm should have regard to the guidance on satisfying the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2E and 3D of Schedule 6 to the Act9 contained in COND 2.5.99
The following guidance provides an example of BIPRU 7.4.10R. In January, a firm agrees to buy 100 tonnes of copper for the average spot price prevailing during the 20 business days in February, and will settle on 30 June. After entering into this agreement, the firm faces the risk that the average price for February increases relative to that for 30 June. Therefore, as highlighted in the table below:(1) the short positions reflect the fact that this could occur because any one
4Firms are reminded of:(1) the guidance in CONC 3.3.10G(6) to (8) in relation to debt solutions; and(2) the rule in CONC 8.2.4R which requires firms to notify the customer that free debt counselling, debt adjusting and providing of credit information services is available and that the customer can find out more by contacting the Money Advice Service.
Under section 115 of the Act, the appropriate regulator3 has the power to give a certificate confirming that a firm possesses any necessary margin of solvency,1 to facilitate an insurance business transfer to the firm under overseas legislation from a firm authorised in another EEA State or from a Swiss general insurance company. This section provides guidance on how the appropriate regulator3 would exercise this power and on related matters.313
This chapter (the custody rules) applies to a firm:21(1) [deleted]22(a) [deleted]22(b) [deleted]22(1A) 2when it holds financial instruments belonging to a client in the course of its MiFID business;7(1B) 2when it is safeguarding and administering investments, in the course of business that is not MiFID business;7(1C) when it is acting as trustee or depositary of an AIF;
79(1D) when it is acting as trustee or depositary of a UCITS; and97(1E) in respect of any arrangement for a
DEPP9gives guidance on the FCA's27 decision making procedures including the procedures it will follow if it proposes to refuse an application for variation of Part 4A permission or for imposition or variation of a requirement27 either in whole or in part (for example, an application granted by the FCA27 but subject to limitations or requirements not applied for).92727