Related provisions for PERG 6.1.1
121 - 140 of 640 items.
This guidance is issued under section 139A of the Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance and the circumstances contemplated by it, then the FCA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates.
Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance given by the FCA. This guidance represents the FCA's view, and does not bind the courts, for example, in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of the general prohibition on carrying on a regulated activity in the United Kingdom without authorisation (see sections 26 to 29 of the Act (Enforceability of Agreements)).
1The FCA will also take into account the potentially more serious consequences that a disapplication of an exemption will have for the member concerned compared with the consequences of a prohibition of a particular individual engaged in exempt regulated activities. However, the FCA may consider it appropriate in some cases to disapply an exemption where it decides that the member concerned is not fit and proper to carry out exempt regulated activities in accordance with section
1When it decides whether to exercise its power to disapply an exemption from the general prohibition in relation to a member, the FCA will take into account all relevant circumstances which may include, but are not limited to, the following factors: (1) Disciplinary or other action taken by the relevant designated professional body, where that action relates to the fitness and propriety of the member concerned: where the FCA considers that its concerns in relation to the fitness
1Where the FCA is considering making a disapplication order against a member as a result of a breach of rules made by the FCA under section 323(1) of the Act, it will take into account any proposed application by the member concerned for authorisation under the Act. The FCA may refrain from making a disapplication order pending its consideration of the application for authorisation.
A decision to: (1) revoke a recognition order under section 297 of the Act (Revoking recognition) or (for RAPs) regulation 4 of the RAP regulations; or3(2) make a direction under section 296 (FCA's4powers to give directions) or (for RAPs) regulation 3 of the RAP regulations; or34(3) refuse to make a recognition order under section 290 (Recognition orders) or 290A (Refusal of recognition on ground of excessive regulatory provision) or (for RAPs) regulation 2 of the RAP regulations32;is
In considering whether it would be appropriate to exercise the powers under section 296 or section 297 of the Act or (for RAPs) regulation 3 or 4 of the RAP regulations,3 the FCA4 will have regard to all relevant information and factors including:4(1) its guidance to recognised bodies;(2) the results of its routine supervision of the body concerned;(3) the extent to which the failure or likely failure to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements31may affect the statutory
Before exercising its powers under section 296 or section 297 of the Act or (for RAPs) regulation 3 or 4 of the RAP regulations3, the FCA4 will usually discuss its intention, and the basis for this, with the members of the management body5 or other appropriate representatives of the recognised body. It will usually discuss its intention not to make a recognition order with appropriate representatives of the applicant.4
For a person (P) who is an approved person, COCON applies to the conduct of P in relation to the performance by P of functions relating to the carrying on of activities (whether or not regulated activities) by the firm on whose application approval was given to P.[Note:sections 64A(4) and (5)(a) of the Act (Rules of conduct)]
For a person (P) subject to COCON who is not an approved person, COCON applies to the conduct of P in relation to the performance by P of functions relating to the carrying on of activities (whether or not regulated activities) by:9(1) (in the case of a board director of a firm) that firm; or9(2) (in any other case) P’s employer.9[Note: sections 64A(4), (5)(ab) 9and (5)(b) of the Act (Rules of conduct)]
The FCA interprets the phrase ‘dealing with’ in COCON 1.1.10R as including having contact with customers and extending beyond ‘dealing’ as used in the phrase ‘dealing in investments’. ‘Dealing in’ is used in Schedule 2 to the Act to describe, in general terms, the regulated activities which are specified in Part II of the Regulated Activities Order.
Under section 23 of the Act (Contravention of the general prohibition or section 20 (1) or (1A)5), a person commits a criminal offence if he carries on activities in breach of the general prohibition in section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) . An authorised person also commits a criminal offence if he carries on a credit-related regulated activity in the UK, or purports to do so, otherwise than in accordance with his permission (unless the person is an appointed representative
Another consequence of a breach of the general prohibition is that certain agreements could be unenforceable (see sections 26 to 29 of the Act). This applies to agreements entered into by persons who are in breach of the general prohibition. It also applies to any agreement entered into by an authorised person if the agreement is made as a result of the activities of a person who is in breach of the general prohibition.
Any person who is concerned that his proposed activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form in the decision tree in PERG 2 Annex 1 G):(1) Will I be carrying on my activities by way of business (see PERG 2.3)?(2) Will I be managing the assets of an occupational pension scheme (see PERG 2.3.2G (3))?(3) If the answer is 'Yes' to (1)
The Act (section
1L) requires the FCA to "maintain
arrangements for supervising authorised persons". Section 1K of the Act also requires the FCA to
provide general guidance about
how it intends to advance its operational objectives in discharging its general
functions in relation to different categories of authorised
person or regulated activity.
One purpose of this guidance is
to discharge the duties of the FCA set
out in sections 1L and 1K of the Act.
The FCA's approach to
The design of these arrangements
is shaped by the FCA'sstatutory objectives in relation to the
conduct supervision of financial services firms as
well as the prudential supervision of firms not
supervised by the PRA. These
objectives are set out in Chapter 1 of the Act.
The FCA has one strategic objective: ensuring that the relevant
markets function well. In discharging its general functions, the FCA must, so far as is reasonably possible,
act in a way which is compatible with
(1) In designing its approach to supervision,
the FCA has regard to the regulatory
principles set out in section 3B of the Act.
In particular, the FCA's regulatory
approach aims to focus and reinforce the responsibility of the senior management
of each firm (section 3B(1)(d)
of the Act) to ensure that it
takes reasonable care to organise and control the affairs of the firm responsibly and effectively, and develops
and maintains adequate risk management systems. It is the responsibility
1Section 87A(2A) of the Act provides that information about certain guarantors may be omitted from a prospectus:
87A |
(2A) |
If, in the case of transferable securities to which section 87 applies, the prospectus states that the guarantor is a specified EEA State, the prospectus is not required to include other information about the guarantor. |
Section 87B(1) of the Act sets out when the FCA may authorise the omission of information from a prospectus:
(1) |
The [FCA] may authorise the omission from a prospectus of any information, the inclusion of which would otherwise be required, on the ground – |
|
(a) |
that its disclosure would be contrary to the public interest; |
|
(b) |
that its disclosure would be seriously detrimental to the issuer, provided that the omission would be unlikely to mislead the public with regard to any facts or circumstances which are essential for an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2); or |
|
(c) |
that the information is only of minor importance for a specific offer to the public or admission to trading on a regulated market and unlikely to influence an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2). |
|
2Article 2(2) of Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/301 sets out requirements regarding the submission of requests to omit information from a prospectus. The FCA considers that a reasoned request for this purpose would: (1) be in writing from the applicant;(2) identify the specific information concerned and the specific reasons for its omission; and(3) state why in the applicant's opinion one or more of the grounds in section 87B(1) of the Act applies.2[Note: Extracts
(1) The following enable the FCA to charge fees to cover its costs and expenses in carrying out its functions:13(a) paragraph 23 of Schedule 1ZA of the Act;13(b) regulation 92 of the Payment Services Regulations;13(c) regulation 59 of the Electronic Money Regulations;13(d) article 25(a) of the MCD Order;1513(e) regulation 21 of the Small and Medium Sized Businesses (Credit Information) Regulations. 13(f) regulation 18 of the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms)
3Regulation 92 of the Payment Services Regulations and regulation 59 of the Electronic Money Regulations each provide7 that the functions of the FCA18 under the respective7 regulations are treated for the purposes of paragraph 23 of Schedule 1ZA18 to the Act as functions conferred on the FCA18 under the Act. Paragraph 23(7) 22 however, has not been included 22.7This is 22the FCA's187 obligation to ensure that the amount of penalties received or expected to be received are not
(1) 13The FCA also has a fee-raising power as a result of:14(a) regulation 21 of the Small and Medium Sized Business (Credit Information) Regulations;1514(b) regulation 18 of the Small and Medium Sized Business (Finance Platforms) Regulations;1514(c) regulation 40 of the DRS Regulations; and15(d) paragraph 25 of the Schedule 1 to the MiFI Regulations.15(2) The FCA’s functions under these regulations are treated as functions conferred on the FCA under the Act for the purposes of
This guidance is issued under section 139A of the Act (Guidance). It is designed to throw light on particular aspects of regulatory requirements, not to be an exhaustive description of a person's obligations. If a person acts in line with the guidance in the circumstances it contemplates, the FCA will proceed on the footing that the person has complied with aspects of the requirement to which the guidance relates. Rights conferred on third parties cannot be affected by guidance
Open-ended investment companies constituted in other EEA States which are seeking to exercise rights conferred by the UCITS Directive should refer to COLL 9 (Recognised schemes) for guidance on the requirements of section 264 of the Act (Schemes constituted in other EEA States). Those seeking to exercise rights under AIFMD should refer to FUND 10 (Operating on a cross-border basis).42
The Secretary of State’s2 pensions guidance costs are defined in subsection 10 of section 333R (Funding of the Secretary of State’s2 pensions guidance costs) of the Act as the expenses incurred, or expected to be incurred, by the Secretary of State2: (1) in giving pensions guidance or arranging for it to be given by designated guidance providers;(2) in meeting the expenses of designated guidance providers incurred in connection with the giving of the guidance (whether by means
(1) Section 333R(1) of the Act requires the Secretary of State2 to notify the FCA of the amount of the Secretary of State’s2 pensions guidance costs.(2) Section 333R(2) requires the FCA to make rules requiring authorised persons to pay amounts, or amounts calculated in a specified way, to the FCA with a view to recovering the amounts notified by the Secretary of State2.(3) Under subsection 3 such amounts may include a component to cover the expenses of the FCA in collecting the
(1) Guidance on what constitutes a branch is given in SUP App 3.18(2) (a) Where a UK MiFID investment firm is seeking to use a tied agent established in another EEA State in which a branch is already established, the tied agent will be assimilated into the branch.18(b) If a UK MiFID investment firm is seeking to use a tied agent established in another EEA State in which no branch is already established, the rules in SUP 13 will apply as if that firm were seeking to establish a
A UK firm17 cannot establish a branch in another EEA State for the first time under an EEA right unless the relevant13 conditions in paragraphs 19(2), (4) and (5)12 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act are satisfied. It is an offence for a UK firm which is not an authorised person to contravene this prohibition (paragraph 21 of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act). These conditions are that:913121213(1) the UKfirm has given the appropriate UK regulator,20 in accordance with the
20Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give a consent notice, except where paragraph 19(7A) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act applies. Where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give a consent notice in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
(1) If the appropriate UK regulator20 proposes to refuse to give a consent notice, then paragraph 19(8) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the appropriate UK regulator20 to give the UK firm a warning notice.2020(2) If the appropriate UK regulator20 decides to refuse to give a consent notice, then paragraph 19(12) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the appropriate UK regulator20 to give the UK firm a decision notice within three months8 of the date on which
Rights under an agreement for qualifying credit are a controlled investment.Qualifying credit is defined in paragraph 10 of Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order (Controlled activities) as credit provided pursuant to an agreement under which:(1) the lender is a person who carries on the regulated activity of entering into a regulated mortgage contract (whether or not he is an authorised or exempt person under the Act); and(2) the obligation of the borrower to repay is secured
Arranging qualifying credit is a controlled activity under paragraph 10A of Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order; that is, making arrangements:(1) for another person to enter as borrower into an agreement for qualifying credit; or(2) for a borrower under a regulated mortgage contract entered into on or after 31 October 2004 or a borrower under a legacy CCA mortgage contract7 to vary the terms of that contract in such a way as to vary that person’s7 obligations under that
Advising on qualifying credit is8 a controlled activity under paragraph 10B of Schedule 1 to the Financial Promotion Order; that is, advising a person if the advice is:8(1) given to the person in his capacity as a borrower or potential borrower; and(2) advice on the merits of that person’s7 doing any of the following:(a) entering into an agreement for qualifying credit; or(b) varying the terms of a regulated mortgage contract entered into by that person’s7 on or after 31 October
Article 28B (Real time communications: introductions) exempts a real time financial promotion that relates to one or more of the controlled activities about regulated mortgage contracts, as well as home reversion plans, home purchase plans,4regulated sale and rent back agreements3, certain consumer hire agreements and relevant credit agreements4. The exemption is subject to the following conditions being satisfied:224(1) the financial promotion must be made for the purpose of,
The arrangements which grant rights under alternative debentures are similar to the tax definition of arrangements relating to alternative finance investment bonds at section 48A of the Finance Act 2005 (see www.opsi.gov.uk/acts/acts2007/ukpga_20070011_en_5#pt3-pb9-l1g53). However the purposes of the two provisions are not the same. One of the objectives of the FCA under the Act is consumer protection. Accordingly, secondary legislation made under the Act, like article 77A
As these arrangements might amount to a collective investment scheme (see PERG 9.4.2 GG for a broad description) a consequential amendment to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Collective Investment Scheme) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1062) has been made so that, like conventional bonds, alternative debentures are excluded from the definition of collective investment scheme.
The specified investment category of units in a collective investment scheme includes units in a unit trust scheme or authorised contractual scheme10, shares in open-ended investment companies and rights in respect of most limited partnerships and all limited partnership schemes10. Shares in or securities of an open-ended investment company are treated differently from shares in other companies. They are excluded from the specified investment category of shares. This does not
There are no exclusions in the Regulated Activities Order for this specified investment category. This is because 'collective investment scheme' is defined in section 235 of the Act (Collective investment schemes) for the purposes of the Act generally. But there is a separate power to provide for exemptions from that definition and the Treasury have exercised it (see the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Collective Investment Schemes) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1062). The result
4All contracts in this category are cash-settled instruments (as opposed to being settled by way of delivering something other than cash). Many would be unenforceable as gaming contracts were it not for section 412 of the Act (Gaming contracts). Examples of instruments that count as specified investments under this category are spread bets and interest rate swaps.
In order to make an unsolicited real time financial promotion, an overseas communicator must rely on either article 32 or article 33. Article 32 provides an exemption for unsolicited real time financial promotions made by an overseas communicator to persons who were previously overseas and were a customer of his then. This is subject to certain conditions, including that, in broad terms, the customer would reasonably expect to be contacted about the subject matter of the financial
11A local authority (in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) is exempt from the financial promotion restriction (that is, the restriction in section 21 of the Act) for a communication which is a non-real time financial promotion or a solicited real time financial promotion. However, this exemption does not apply to a communication which relates to a regulated credit agreement, where entering into the agreement or exercising, or having the right to exercise, the lender’s rights and
This exemption disapplies the restriction in section 21 of the Act from non-real time financial promotions or solicited real time financial promotions which are made to a person who the communicator believes on reasonable grounds to be a certified high net worth individual and which relate to certain investments. These investments must be either:7(1) shares in or debentures or alternative debentures7 of an unlisted company; or(2) warrants,certificates representing certain securities,
The second exemption in article 50A disapplies the restriction in section 21 of the Act from any financial promotions4 which are made to a person who the communicator believes on reasonable grounds to be a self-certified sophisticated investor and which relate to one or more of the specified investments in PERG 8.14.21G (1) to (3) (Certified high net worth individuals (article 484)).44
11The financial promotion restriction (that is, the restriction in section 21 of the Act) does not apply to a communication which is a non-real time financial promotion or a solicited real time financial promotion by an insolvency practitioner who acts in that capacity (see the definition of “acting as an insolvency practitioner” in article 3 of the Regulated Activities Order). The exemption only applies where the communication is made in the course of carrying on an activity
6The exemptions described in PERG 8.14.40A G to PERG 8.14.40AEA G9 should enable employers (and their contracted service providers) to promote employee benefits packages that include any pension schemes, work-related insurance schemes,9staff mortgages and certain staff loans9 to employees without undue concern that they may be breaching the restriction in section 21 of the Act. PERG 8.14.34 G (Communications by employers and contracted service providers to employees) has further
Information is needed to support the FCA's1 risk based approach to the supervision of all regulated entities. Risk based supervision is intended to ensure that the allocation of supervisory resources and the supervisory process are compatible with the regulatory objectives and the FCA's1 general duties under the Act. The central element of the process of risk based supervision is a systematic assessment by the FCA1 (a risk assessment) of the main supervisory risks and concerns
For each UK recognised body, the FCA1 will conduct a periodic risk assessment. This assessment will take into account relevant considerations including the special position of recognised bodies under the Act, the nature of the UK recognised body's members, the position of other users of its facilities and the business environment more generally.1
1When it decides whether to make an application for an order against debt avoidance pursuant to section 375 of the Act, the FCA will consider all relevant factors, including the following: (1) the extent to which the relevant transactions involved dealings in consumers' funds;
(2) whether it would be appropriate to petition for a winding up order, bankruptcy order, or sequestration award, in relation to the debtor and the extent to which the transaction could
1Paragraphs 13.12.2 to 13.13.1 contain information for insolvency practitioners and others about sending copies of petitions, notices and other documents to the FCA, and about making reports to the FCA. Insolvency practitioners and others have duties to give that information and those documents to the FCA under various sections in Part XXIV of the Act (Insolvency). Paragraphs 13.12.2 identifies the relevant sections of the Act that explain some of the duties.
The FCA’s pensions guidance costs are defined in section 333Q(4) (Funding of FCA’s pensions guidance costs) of the Act as the expenses incurred, or expected to be incurred, by the FCA in connection with carrying out the functions conferred on it in Part 20A of the Act (other than the functions specified in 333R of the Act).
(1) Section 333Q(1) of the Act requires the FCA to make rules requiring designated guidance providers, or any specified class of designated guidance provider to pay to the FCA specified amounts or amounts calculated in a specified way.(2) Section 333Q(3) of the Act sets out that such amounts may include a component to cover the expenses of the FCA in collecting the payments and to enable the FCA to maintain an adequate reserve.
1The FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed investigators to carry out an investigation under the CCA Order and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to result in the investigation being frustrated. The FCA expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement process in most cases. The FCA's
policy in civil investigations under the CCA Order is to use powers to compel information in the same
2Under sections 176 and 122D1 of the Act, the FCA has the power to apply to a justice of the peace for a warrant to enter premises where documents or information is held. The circumstances under which the FCA may apply for a search warrant include: (1) where a person on whom an information requirement has been imposed fails (wholly or in part) to comply with it; or (2) where there are reasonable grounds for believing that if an information requirement were to be imposed, it would
2A warrant obtained pursuant to sections 176 and 122D1 of the Act authorises a police constable or an FCA investigator in the company, and under the supervision of, a police constable, to do the following, amongst other things: to enter and search the premises specified in the warrant and take possession of any documents or information appearing to be documents or information of a kind in respect of which the warrant was issued or to take, in relation to any such documents or