Related provisions for DISP 1.2.4

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LR 1.4.1RRP
(1) If it appears to the FCA that there is, or there may be, a breach of the listing rules or the disclosure requirements6 and transparency rules4 by an issuer with a premium listing4, the FCA may in writing require the issuer to appoint a sponsor to advise the issuer on the application of the listing rules, the disclosure requirements6 and the transparency rules4.4(2) If required to do so under (1), an issuer must, as soon as practicable, appoint a sponsor to advise it on the
LR 1.4.12RRP
5Where a listing rule requires an issuer who is not subject to DTR 6.3.1 R to use the services of an RIS, the issuer must comply with the provisions of DTR 6.3, except in relation to information which is required to be disclosed under the Transparency Directive, articles 17 and 196 of the Market Abuse Regulation6 or the DTR.6
DTR 6.1.9RRP
An issuer of shares must without delay disclose to the public any change in the rights attaching to its various classes of shares, including changes in the rights attaching to derivativesecurities issued by the issuer giving access to the shares of that issuer. [Note: article 16(1) of the TD]
DTR 6.1.10RRP
An issuer of securities other than shares admitted to trading on a regulated market must disclose to the public without delay any changes in the rights of holders of securities other than shares, including changes in the terms and conditions of such securities which could indirectly affect those rights, resulting in particular from a change in loan terms or in interest rates.[Note article 16(2) of the TD]
LR 4.2.1GRP
Section 80 (1) of the Act (general duty of disclosure in listing particulars) requires listing particulars submitted to the FCA to contain all such information as investors and their professional advisers would reasonably require, and reasonably expect to find there, for the purpose of making an informed assessment of:(1) the assets and liabilities, financial position, profits and losses, and prospects of the issuer of the securities; and(2) the rights attaching to the securi
LR 4.2.9GRP
Under section 82 of the Act (exemptions from disclosure) the FCA may authorise the omission from listing particulars of information on specified grounds.
ICOBS 4.2.3GRP
If a firm provides elements of status disclosure information orally as part of an interactive dialogue, it should do so for all elements of the information. In the case of telephone selling, the information may be given in accordance with the distance marketing disclosure rules (see ICOBS 3.1.14 R).
ICOBS 4.2.5RRP
(1) Prior to the conclusion of an initial contract and, if necessary, on its amendment or renewal, an insurer must disclose to the customer at least:(a) the statutory status disclosure statement (see GEN 4);(b) whose policies it offers; and(c) whether it is providing a personal recommendation or information.(2) If this is done orally, the disclosure must be provided in writing or any other durable medium no later than immediately after the conclusion of the contract.
LR 13.5.5GRP
Accounting policies include accounting standards and accounting disclosures.
LR 13.5.21RRP
Unless LR 13.5.3A R, LR 13.5.3B R or LR 13.5.27 R applies, a financial information table must disclose how the accounting policies used conform with LR 13.5.4 R and be accompanied by an accountant’s opinion as set out in LR 13.5.22 R.22
LR 13.5.27AGRP
2The FCA will make its assessment of whether the accounting and other standards applicable to an investment exchange or multilateral trading facility as a result of securities being admitted to trading are appropriate for the purpose of LR 13.5.27R (1)(b) having regard to at least the following matters in relation to the legal and regulatory framework applying to the target by virtue of its admission to that market:(1) the quality of auditing standards compared with International
DEPP 7.2.2GRP
Where the FCA3 appoints an investigator in response to a request from an overseas regulator or EEA regulator2 it may, under section 169(7) or section 131FA2 of the Act, direct him to permit a representative of that regulator to attend and take part in any interviews conducted for the purposes of the investigation. The FCA3 may only give a direction under section 169(7) or section 131FA2 if it is satisfied that any information obtained by an overseas regulator or EEA regulator2
DEPP 7.2.3GRP
Part XXIII of the Act contains restrictions on the disclosure of confidential information. The restrictions are subject to exceptions contained in regulations made by the Treasury under section 349.
SUP 5.3.4GRP
The FCA5 will have regard to circumstances relating to the firm, for example:66(1) attitude of the firm: whether the firm is being cooperative;(2) history of similar issues: whether similar issues have arisen in the past and, if so, whether timely corrective action was taken;(3) quality of a firm's systems and records: whether the FCA5 has confidence that the firm has the ability to provide the required information;66(4) objectivity: whether the FCA5 has confidence in the firm's
SUP 5.3.5GRP
The FCA5 will have regard to alternative tools that may be available, including for example:66(1) obtaining what is required without using specific statutory powers (for example, by a visit by staff5 of the FCA5 or a request for information on an informal basis); 66(2) requiring information from firms and others, including authorising an agent to require information, under section 165 of the Act (Power6 to require information);6(3) appointing investigators to carry out general
CONC 8.8.1RRP
A firm in relation to a customer with whom it has entered into a debt management plan must: (1) maintain contact with the customer; [Note: paragraph 3.44 of DMG](2) regularly monitor and review the financial position and circumstances of the customer; [Note: paragraph 3.44 of DMG](3) adapt the debt management plan to take into account relevant changes in the financial position and circumstances of the customer;[Note: paragraph 3.44 of DMG](4) inform the customer without delay
CONC 8.8.2GRP
(1) Evidence that there may have been a material change in a customer's financial circumstances is likely to include where a customer who has not previously missed payments under a debt management plan misses such payments. [Note: paragraph 3.45ci of DMG](2) Where the firm informs a customer of the outcome of a review of a debt management plan, it should seek to discuss with the customer any changes to the plan or to the firm's service at the earliest reasonably opportunity. [Note:
LR 7.2.2GRP
Listing Principle 13 is intended to ensure that listed companies have adequate procedures, systems and controls to enable them to comply with their obligations under the listing rules, disclosure requirements4, transparency rules and corporate governance rules.3 In particular, the FCA considers that listed companies should place particular emphasis on ensuring that they have adequate procedures, systems and controls in relation to, where applicable:333(1) identifying whether any
LR 7.2.3GRP
Timely and accurate disclosure of information to the market is a key obligation of listed companies. For the purposes of Listing Principle 13, a listed company should have adequate systems and controls to be able to:3313(1) ensure that it can properly identify information which requires disclosure under the listing rules, disclosure requirements4, transparency rules or corporate governance rules3 in a timely manner; and3(2) ensure that any information identified under (1) is properly
CONC 4.1.3RRP
(1) When a firm provides a quotation to a customer in connection with a prospective credit agreement which would or might be secured on the customer's home, the firm must include (or cause to be included) in the quotation a statement that such security would or might be required. [Note: regulation 3a of SI 1999/2725](2) When a firm provides a quotation to a customer (C) in connection with a prospective credit agreement which would or might be secured on C’s home under which, while
CONC 4.1.4RRP
(1) When a firm provides a quotation to a customer in connection with a prospective credit agreement which would or might be secured on the customer's home, the firm must include (or cause to be included) in the quotation a statement that such security would or might be required.[Note: regulation 6 of SI 1999/2725](2) When a firm provides a quotation to a customer (C) in connection with a prospective credit agreement which would or might be secured on C’s home under which, while
BIPRU 11.2.6GRP
A firm which is included within comparable disclosures provided on a consolidated basis by a parent undertaking whose head office is not in an EEA State may apply for a waiver from the relevant disclosure requirements in BIPRU 11.2.2 R - BIPRU 11.2.5 R. The appropriate regulator's approach to granting waivers is set out in the Supervision manual (see SUP 8).[Note: BCD Article 72(3)]
BIPRU 11.2.7GRP
A firm applying for a waiver from one or more of the disclosure requirements in BIPRU 11.2.2 R - BIPRU 11.2.5 R will need to:(1) satisfy the appropriate regulator that it is included within comparable disclosures provided on a consolidated basis by a parent undertaking whose head office is not in an EEA State; and(2) notify the appropriate regulator of the location where the comparable disclosures are provided.
APER 4.1.6GRP
3Deliberately failing to inform, without reasonable cause:(1) a customer; or(2) his firm (or its auditors or an actuary appointed by his firm under SUP 4 (Actuaries)1); or1(3) the FCA or the PRA;66of the fact that their understanding of a material issue is incorrect, despite being aware of their misunderstanding, falls within APER 4.1.2G.
APER 4.1.13GRP
3Deliberately failing to disclose the existence of a conflict of interest in connection with dealings with a client falls within APER 4.1.2 G.
COLL 6.4.3GRP
(1) (a) 3This section deals with matters relating to the register of unitholders of units in an AUT or ACS including its establishment and contents.(b) 3The authorised fund manager or depositary may be responsible for the register.(c) 3In any event, the person responsible for the register must be stated in the trust deed or contractual scheme deed and this section details what his duties are.(d) 3The provisions relating to documents evidencing title to units3are dependent on the
COLL 6.4.4RRP
(1) Either:11(a) the manager or the trustee (as nominated in the trust deed); or1(b) the authorised contractual scheme manager or the depositary of the ACS (as nominated in the contractual scheme deed);1must establish and maintain a register of unitholders as a document in accordance with this section.1(2) The manager or trustee or the authorised fund manager or depositary1 in accordance with their duties under (1) must exercise all due diligence and take all reasonable steps
GEN 4.2.2GRP
There are other pre-contract information requirements outside this chapter, including:(1) for financial promotions, inthe financial promotion rules;55(2) for designated investment business, inCOBS 8 and COBS 8A14 (Client agreements), COBS 5 (Distance Communications), COBS 6 (Information about the firm, its services and remuneration), COBS 13 and 14 (which relate to product information)5 and CASS (Client assets);5(2A) for PRIIPs, a requirement under the PRIIPs Regulation to provide
COCON 4.2.16GRP
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct that would be in breach of rule SC2.(1) Failing to take reasonable steps to implement (either personally or through a compliance department or other departments) adequate and appropriate systems of control to comply with the relevant requirements and standards of the regulatory system for the activities of the firm.(2) Failing to take reasonable steps to monitor (either personally or through a compliance department
COCON 4.2.26GRP
SC4 applies to senior conduct rules staff members in addition to rule 3 in COCON 2.1.3R. Although, the rules have some overlap, they are different. Rule 3 normally relates to responses from individuals to requests from the regulator, whereas rule SC4 imposes a duty on a senior conduct rules staff member to disclose appropriately any information of which the appropriate regulator would reasonably expect, including making a disclosure in the absence of any request or enquiry from
COCON 4.2.28GRP
(1) If a senior conduct rules staff member comes across a piece of information that is something of3 which they think the FCA or PRA could reasonably expect notice, they should determine whether that information falls within the scope of their responsibilities:2(a) (for an SMF manager)2 by virtue of that person’sstatement of responsibilities; or2(b) (for an approved person performing a significant influence function in a Solvency II firm or a small non-directive insurer3) including
GEN 4.5.6AGRP
4As well as potentially breaching the requirements in this section, misleading statements by a firm may involve a breach of Principle 7 (Communications with clients) or section Part 7 (Offences relating to financial services) of the Financial Services Act 2012, as well as giving rise to private law actions for misrepresentation.
SUP 18.3.2GRP
Under cooperation agreements between EEA regulators, if it has serious concerns about the proposed transferee, the appropriate regulator3 should inform the regulatory body of the transferor within 3 months of the original request from that regulatory body. The appropriate regulator3 is not obliged to reply, but if it does not, its opinion is taken to be favourable3. Although the protocol does not apply to Switzerland, the appropriate regulator3 is required to cooperate with the
SUP 18.3.3GRP
The information that the regulatory body of the transferor is required to supply will normally be sufficient for the appropriate regulator3 to determine whether the transfer is likely to have a material effect on the transferee.3
COBS 4.9.5RRP
A financial promotion for an overseas long-term insurer, which has no establishment in the United Kingdom, must include:(1) the full name of the overseas long-term insurer, the country where it is registered, and, if different, the country where its head office is situated;(2) a prominent statement that 'holders of policies issued by the company will not be protected by the Financial Services Compensation Scheme if the company becomes unable to meet its liabilities to them'; and(3)
COBS 4.9.6RRP
A financial promotion for an overseas long-term insurer which is authorised to carry on long-term insurance business in any country or territory listed in paragraph (c) of the Glossary definition of overseas long-term insurer must also include:(1) the full name of any trustee of property of any description which is retained by the overseas long-term insurer in respect of the promoted contracts;(2) an indication whether the investment of such property (or any part of it) is managed
SUP 16.20.4RRP

A firm or qualifying parent undertaking must send the information required for a resolution plan to the FCA within three months of the reporting reference dates specified in the table below:

Type of firm or qualifying parent undertaking

First reporting reference date

Ongoing reporting reference date

firm or qualifying parent undertaking in an RRD group that includes an IFPRU 730k firm that is a significant IFPRU firm or does not include an IFPRU 730k firm

30 June 2015

Every two years on the same date as the first reporting reference date.

significant IFPRU firm

30 June 2015

Every two years on the same date as the first reporting reference date.

firm or qualifying parent undertaking in an RRD group that includes an IFPRU 730k firm that is not a significant IFPRU firm (but does not include an IFPRU 730k firm that is a significant IFPRU firm)

31 December 2015

Every three years on the same date as the first reporting reference date.

non-significant IFPRU firm

31 December 2015

Every three years on the same date as the first reporting reference date.

[Note:articles 4(1)(b), 11(1) and 13(1) of RRD]

SUP 16.20.6RRP
2A firm must submit its recovery plan and the information required for its resolution plan to the FCA online through the appropriate systems accessible from the FCA’s website, using the forms specified in SUP 16 Annex 40R.
COLL 6.3.4RRP
(1) An authorised fund must not have fewer than two regular valuation points in any month and if there are only two valuation points in any month, the regular valuation points must be at least two weeks apart.(2) The prospectus of a scheme must contain information about its regular valuation points for the purposes of dealing in units in accordance with COLL 4.2.5R (16) (Table: contents of the prospectus).(3) Where a scheme operates limited redemption arrangements, (1) does not
COLL 6.3.6GRP

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1

1

3(2A)

Schemes investing in approved money-market instruments5should value such instruments on an amortised cost basis on condition that:5

55

[Note:CESR's UCITS eligible assets guidelines with respect to article 4(2) of the UCITS eligible assets Directive]

(2B)

Short-term money market funds may value approved money-market instruments on an amortised cost basis.7

[Note: paragraph 21 of CESR's guidelines on a common definition of European money market funds]7

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should, in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,2 be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, any such payments should be added to the issue basis of the valuation, or subtracted from the cancellation basis of the valuation, as appropriate. Alternatively, the prospectus of a dual-priced authorised fund may prescribe any other method of calculating unitprices that ensures an equivalent treatment of the effect of these payments.2

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

  • no recent trade in the security concerned; or
  • the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.
In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

4(7A)

Where the authorised fund manager, the depositary or the standing independent valuer have reasonable grounds to believe that the most recent valuation of an immovable does not reflect the current value of that immovable, the authorised fund manager should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable value for the immovable.

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

  • asset prices are accurate and up to date;
  • investment 1transactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
  • the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue1), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
  • the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
  • compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
  • dividends are accounted for as soon as securities1 are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
  • fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point1;
  • tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
  • reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated;5
  • the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy5; and5
  • the valuation of OTC derivatives is accurate and up to date and in compliance with the methods agreed with the depositary.5

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to one or more third parties5.

5

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of OTC derivatives,5unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FCA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FCA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FCA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FCA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3R(3)(c)10(Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FCA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.

COLL 6.3.12GRP
(1) In determining the appropriate manner of making prices public, the authorised fund manager should ensure that:(a) a unitholder or potential unitholder can obtain the prices at a reasonable cost;(b) prices are available at reasonable times;(c) publication is consistent with the manner and frequency at which the units are dealt in1;(d) the manner of publication is disclosed in the prospectus; and(e) prices are published in a consistent manner.(2) Examples of what might be deemed