Related provisions for PERG 6.1.1

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PERG 4.3.3GRP
A person will only need authorisation or exemption if he is carrying on a regulated activity 'by way of business' (see section 22 of the Act (Regulated activities)). There are, in fact, three different forms of business test applied to the regulated mortgage activities. In the FCA's view, however, the difference in the business tests should have little practical effect.
PERG 4.3.4GRP
There is power in the Act for the Treasury to change the meaning of the business test by including or excluding certain things. The Business Order has been made using this power (partly reflecting differences in the nature of the different activities). The result (which is summarised in PERG 4.3.5 G) is that:(1) the 'by way of business' test in section 22 of the Act applies unchanged in relation to the activity of entering into a regulated mortgage contract;(2) the 'by way of
PERG 4.3.6GRP
The 'carrying on the business' test in the Business Order is a narrower test than that of carrying on regulated activities 'by way of business' in section 22 of the Act as it requires the regulated activities to represent the carrying on of a business in their own right. Whether or not the business test is satisfied in any particular case is ultimately a question of judgement that takes account of a number of factors (none of which is likely to be conclusive). The nature of the
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FCA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 1502 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount);

3

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 100,0003 euros (or equivalent amounts);

33

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered in the EEA states3 cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); or3

3

3(f)

the offer falls within subsection (1A).

3(1A)

An offer (“the current offer”) falls within this subsection where transferable securities are resold or placed through a financial intermediary where:

3(a)

the transferable securities have previously been the subject of one or more offers to the public;

3(b)

in respect of one or more of those previous offers, any of paragraphs (a) to (e) of subsection (1) applied;

3(c)

a prospectus is available for the securities which has been approved by the FCA and meets either of the conditions in subsection (1B);4 and

4

3(d)

the issuer or other person who was responsible for drawing up the prospectus has given written consent to the use of the prospectus for the purpose of the current offer.4

4(1B)

The conditions referred to in subsection (1A)(c) are:

(a)

that the prospectus was approved by the FCA no earlier than 12 months before the date the current offer is made, and is supplemented by every supplementary prospectus which was required to be submitted under section 87G; or

(b)

in the case of non-equity transferable securities falling within article 5(4)(b) of the prospectus directive, that the securities concerned have not ceased to be issued in a continuous or repeated manner.

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within point (1) of Section 1 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive3 to act as his agent; and

3

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor",6 in relation to an offer of transferable securities,3 means –

(a)

a person described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to that directive and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with that relevant firm (or each of those relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(c)

a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of that directive and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of that directive;3

3

3(d)

a person whom –6

6(i)

any relevant firm was6 authorised to continue to treat as a professional client immediately before 3 January 2018 by virtue of article 71.6 (transitional provisions) of Directive 2004/39/EC on markets in financial instruments; and6

6(ii)

the firm may continue to treat as a professional client from 3 January 2018 by virtue of Section II.2 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive.

3(8)

In subsection (7) “relevant firm” means an investment firm or credit institution acting in connection with the offer.

3(9)

Investment firms and credit institutions must communicate their classification of their clients as being or not being qualified investors on request to an issuer, subject to complying with the Data Protection Act 1998 or any directly applicable EU legislation relating to data protection.

3(10)

In subsections (8) and (9) -

“credit institution” means -

(a) a credit institution authorised under the banking consolidation directive; or

(b) an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its registered office (or if it does not have one, its head office) in an EEA State.
PR 1.2.2RRP
In accordance with section 85(5)(b) of the Act, section 85(1) of the Act does not apply to offers of the following types of transferable securities:(1) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already issued, if the issue of the new shares does not involve any increase in the issued capital;(2) transferable securities offered in connection with a takeover by means of an exchange offer, if a document is available containing information which is regarded by the
PR 1.2.3RRP
In accordance with section 85(6)(b) of the Act, section 85(2) of the Act does not apply to the admission to trading of the following types of transferable securities:(1) transferable securities referred to in article 1(5)(a) of the Prospectus Regulation5;(2) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market, if the issue of the shares does not involve any increase in the issued capital;(3) transferable securities
COLL 7.4A.1GRP
(1) 1This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an ACS is to be wound up or a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme is to be terminated otherwise than by the court as an unregistered company under the Insolvency Act 1986 or the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (further rules regarding schemes of arrangement are found in COLL 7.6 (Schemes of arrangement)).(2) An ACS may be wound up under this section only if it is solvent. Under section 261W of the Act (Requests
COLL 7.4A.3GRP

This table belongs to COLL 7.4A.1G (5) (Explanation of COLL 7.4A)

Summary of the main steps in winding up an ACS or terminating a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme under FCArules

Notes: N = Notice to be given to the FCA under section 261Q of the Act in a section 261Q case.

R = Request to wind up the scheme under section 261W of the Act in a section 261W case.

E = commencement of winding up or termination

W/U = winding up

FAP = final accounting period

Step number

Explanation

When

COLLrule, (unless stated otherwise)

1

Commence preparation of solvency statement

N-28 days or R-28 days

7.4A.5R(2)

2

Send audited solvency statement to the FCA with copy to depositary.

By N + 21 days or by R + 21 days

7.4A.5R(4) and (5)

3

In a section 261Q case:

- the authorised contractual scheme manager receiving FCA approval;

- or one month having passed after submitting the requisite notice under section 261Q of the Act without the authorised contractual scheme manager or depositary having received from the FCA a warning notice under section 261R in respect of the proposal.

In a section 261W case, the authorised contractual scheme manager or depositary receives an indication from the FCA that, subject to there being no change in any relevant factor, on the conclusion of the winding up of the ACS, the FCA will agree to the request to wind up the ACS.

N + one month or R + one month

Section 261Q of the Act (in a section 261Q case)

7.4A.4R(3)(c) to (e) (in a section 261W case)

4

Normal business ceases; notify unitholders

E

7.4A.4R

5

Depositary to realise and distribute proceeds

ASAP after E

7.4A.6R(1)-(5)

6

Send annual long report of authorised contractual scheme manager, depositary and auditor to the FCA

Within 4 months of FAP

7.4A.9R(7)

7

Request FCA to revoke relevant authorisation order

On completion of W/U

7.4A.6R(6)
COLL 7.4A.4RRP
(1) Upon the happening of any of the matters or dates referred to in (3), and subject to the requirement of (4) being satisfied, and not otherwise:(a) COLL 6.2 (Dealing), COLL 6.3(Valuation and pricing) and COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers) cease to apply to the ACS or to the units and scheme property in the case of a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme; (b) the depositary must cease to issue and cancelunits, except in respect of the final cancellation under COLL 7.4A.6R
COLL 7.4A.5RRP
(1) Either before notice is given under section 261Q of the Act or before a request is made under section 261W of the Act in relation to the proposals referred to in COLL 7.4A.4R (4), the authorised contractual scheme manager must make a full inquiry into the ACS's (or, in the case of the termination of a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme, the sub-fund's) affairs, business and property to establish whether the ACS or the sub-fund will be able to meet all its liabilities.(2) The
SUP 5.4.1GRP
Where the FCA1 requires a report by a skilled person under section 166 of the Act1 (Reports by skilled persons), the FCA1 will send a notice in writing requiring the person in SUP 5.2.1 G to provide a report by a skilled person, or notifying the person in SUP 5.2.1 G in writing of the FCA's1 appointment of a skilled person to provide a report,2 on any matter if it is reasonably required in connection with the exercise of its functions conferred by or under the Act. The FCA1
SUP 5.4.1AGRP
2Where the FCA1 requires the updating or collection of information by a skilled person under section 166A of the Act (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information), the FCA1 will send a notice in writing requiring the firm to appoint a skilled person, or notifying the firm of the FCA's1 appointment of a skilled person, to collect or update the relevant information.
SUP 5.4.6GRP
Where the2skilled person is appointed by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G, the appropriate regulator2 will normally seek to agree in advance with the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G2 the skilled person who will make the report or collect or update the relevant information.2 The Act requires that such2skilled person be nominated or approved by the appropriate regulator:22222(1) if the appropriate regulator2 decides to nominate the skilled person who is to make the
COND 2.2.1BGRP
5Paragraph 2B of Schedule 6 to the Act sets out the location of offices threshold condition for firms carrying on, or seeking to carry on, regulated activities which do not include a PRA-regulated activity.
COND 2.2.2GRP
6Paragraph 2B(1) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 7(1)(d) of the UCITS Directive, paragraphs 2B(1) to 2B(23) of Schedule 6 to the Act implement article 5(4) of MiFID, paragraph 2B(4) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 2.9 of the Insurance Mediation Directive and paragraph 2B(7) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 8(1)(e) of AIFMD, although the Act extends the threshold condition set out in paragraph 2B of Schedule 6 of the Act to authorised persons
COND 2.2.3GRP
Neither the UCITS Directive6, MiFID,3 the Insurance Mediation Directive, AIFMD6 nor the Act define what is meant by a firm's 'head office'. This is not necessarily the firm's place of incorporation or the place where its business is wholly or mainly carried on. Although the FCA5 will judge each application on a case-by-case basis, the key issue in identifying the head office of a firm is the location of its central management and control, that is, the location of: 16(1) the directors
LR 8.7.2BGRP
10Situations when the FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a sponsor can provide include (but are not limited to) where it appears to the FCA that: (1) the sponsor has no or limited relevant experience and expertise of providing certain types of sponsor services or of providing sponsor services to certain types of company; or(2) the sponsor does not have systems and controls in place which are appropriate for the nature of the sponsor services which the sponsor
LR 8.7.20GRP
EG3 sets out the FCA's policy on when and how it will use its disciplinary powers, including 3 in relation to a sponsor.A statutory notice may be required under section 88B of the Act. Where this is the case, the procedure for giving a statutory notice is set out in DEPP.1031010
LR 8.7.27GRP
10The FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a sponsor can provide or suspend a sponsor's approval under section 88E of the Act if the FCA considers it desirable to do so in order to advance one or more of its operational objectives.[Note: A statutory notice may be required under section 88F of the Act. Where this is the case, the procedure for giving a statutory notice is set out in DEPP.]
SUP 7.3.2GRP
The FCA 5 may also5 seek to exercise its own-initiative powers in certain situations,5 including the following:55(1) If the FCA5 determines that a firm's management, business or internal controls give rise to material risks that are not fully addressed by existing requirements, the FCA5may seek to use its own-initiative powers.555(2) If a firm becomes or is to become involved with new products or selling practices which present risks not adequately addressed by existing requirements,
SUP 7.3.3GRP
Pursuant to sections 55L, 55N, 55O, 55P and 55Q of the Act, within the scope of its functions and powers, the FCA5may seek to impose requirements which include but are not restricted to:55(1) requiring a firm to submit regular reports covering, for example, trading results, management accounts, customer complaints, connected party transactions;(2) where appropriate, 5requiring a firm to maintain prudential limits, for example on large exposures, foreign currency exposures or liquidity
SUP 7.3.4GRP
The FCA5 will seek to give a firm reasonable notice of an intent to vary its permission or impose a requirement5 and to agree with the firm an appropriate timescale. However, if the FCA5 considers that a delay may create a risk to any of the FCA's statutory objectives5,3 the FCA5 may need to act immediately using its powers under section 55J and/or 55L5 of the Act5 with immediate effect.5535555
PERG 1.5.1GRP
General guidance on the perimeter is also contained in various FCA documents (mainly fact sheets and frequently asked questions) that are available on the FCA website at www.fca.org.uk.These documents, and the URL on which they may be accessed, include:(1) [deleted]612446(2) [deleted]212(3) [deleted](4) [deleted]313(5) [deleted]313(6) [deleted]313(7) guidance about the position under the Insurance Mediation Directive and the Regulated Activities Order of the company appointed
PERG 1.5.2GRP
Any person who, having read relevant general guidance and, where appropriate, taken legal advice, remains uncertain about whether his activities amount to regulated activities or his communications will be subject to the restriction in section 21 of the Act, may seek individual guidance from the FCA. Requests for individual guidance should be made in line with SUP 9.
PERG 1.5.3GRP
In addition, the FCA has established a team to provide general assistance and guidance to persons generally about the scope of the Act. Enquiries of this kind may be made:(1) by authorised firms, to either the Contact Centre (email firm.queries@fca.org.uk, Tel 0300 500 05977) or their normal supervisory contact; or77(2) by individuals or non-authorised firms, to the Consumer Contact Centre (email ccc@fca.org.uk, Tel 0800 111 6768 ).8
SUP 13A.5.3GRP
(1) Before an EEA firm (other than7 an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)3 exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. 1(2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's notice has been prescribed
SUP 13A.5.4GRP
(1) Unless the EEA firm3(other than7 an EEA firm that received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)331is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive, if the appropriate UK regulator9 receives a regulator's notice or, where no notice is required , is informed of the EEA firm's intention to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the appropriate UK regulator9 will, under paragraphs 14(2) and 14(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify
SUP 13A.5.4-AGRP
6When the FCA receives a consent notice from the EEA firm'sHome State regulator in respect of a firm within paragraph 5(i) of Part I of Schedule 3 to the Act, it will, under paragraph 14(3ZA), use the information received from the EEA firm'sHome State regulator to enter the necessary information into the Financial Services Register.
PERG 2.7.6BGRP
11The RAO and the auction regulation together generate three broad categories of person in relation to bidding for emission allowances26 on an auction platform:(1) The first category consists of an investment firm to which MiFID applies, a CRD credit institution and a third country credit institution where the 26 firm is bidding on behalf of its clients or on its own account for emissions auction products26. For these purposes a third country credit institution refers to a credit
PERG 2.7.13EGRP
16Most collective investment schemes will also be either a UCITS or an AIF (although not all AIFs are collective investment schemes). As a result, there is a potential overlap between the activity of establishing, operating and winding up a collective investment scheme and the activities of managing a UCITS and managing an AIF. However, there are exclusions in the RAO which considerably reduce the overlap (see PERG 2.8.10G (2) and PERG 16.5).
PERG 2.7.13FGRP
16An open-ended investment company will, once it is authorised under regulations made under section 262 of the Act, become an authorised person in its own right under Schedule 5 to the Act (Persons concerned in Collective Investment Schemes). Under ordinary principles, a company operates itself and an authorisedopen-ended investment company will be operating the collective investment scheme constituted by the company. It is not required to go through a separate process of authorisation
PERG 2.7.13GGRP
16Operators, trustees or depositaries of UCITS established in other EEA States are also authorised persons under Schedule 5 of the Act if those schemes are recognised schemes for the purposes of section 264 of the Act.
COLL 5.2.10EGRP
(1) 7In addition to instruments admitted to or dealt in on an eligible market, a UCITS scheme may also with the express consent of the FCA (which takes the form of a waiver under sections 138A and 138B of the Act as applied by section 250 of the Act or regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations) invest in an approved money-market instrument provided:(a) the issue or issuer is itself regulated for the purpose of protecting investors and savings in accordance with COLL 5.2.10AR (2);(b)
COLL 5.2.13RRP
A UCITS scheme must not invest in units in a collective investment scheme ("second scheme") unless the second scheme satisfies all of the following conditions, and provided that no more than 30% of the value of the UCITS scheme is invested in second schemes within (1)(b) to (e):88(1) the second scheme must:(a) satisfy the conditions necessary for it to enjoy the rights conferred by the UCITS Directive; or(b) be a recognised scheme18 under the provisions of section 27218 of the
COLL 5.2.14GRP
(1) COLL 9.3 gives further detail as to the recognition of a scheme under section 27218of the Act.18(2) Article 5013 of the UCITS Directive sets out the general investment limits. So, a scheme18 which has the power to invest in gold or immovables would not meet the criteria set out in COLL 5.2.13R (1).18131818(3) 8In determining whether a scheme (other than a UCITS)18 meets the requirements of article 50(1)(e)13 of the UCITS Directive for the purposes ofCOLL 5.2.13R (1),18 the
COLL 5.2.34GRP
(1) 21Authorised fund managers of UCITS schemes or EEA UCITS schemes should bear in mind that where a UCITS scheme, or an EEA UCITS scheme that is a recognised scheme under section 264 of the Act, employs particular investment strategies such as those in (2)21, COBS 4.13.2R (Marketing communications relating to UCITS schemes or EEA UCITS schemes) and COBS 4.13.3R (Marketing communications relating to a feeder UCITS) contain additional disclosure requirements in relation to marketing
SUP 1A.3.1GRP
The FCA will adopt a pre-emptive approach which will be based on making forward-looking judgments about firms' business models, product strategy and how they run their businesses, to enable the FCA to identify and intervene earlier to prevent problems crystallising. The FCA's approach to supervising firms will contribute to its delivery against its objective to protect and enhance the integrity of the UK financial system (as set out in the Act). Where the FCA has responsibilities
SUP 1A.3.8GRP
While respecting each regulator's different statutory objectives and mandates, in undertaking its supervisory activity the FCA will co-ordinate and co-operate with the PRA as required and necessary in the interests of the effective and efficient supervision of regulated firms and individuals. Both regulators will coordinate with each other as required under the Act, including on the exchange of information relevant to each regulator's individual objectives. However, the FCA and
REC 1.1.1GRP
(1) The rules and guidance in this sourcebook apply to recognised bodies and to applicants for recognition as RIEs under Part XVIII of the Act (Recognised Investment Exchanges and Clearing Houses) and (as RAPs) under the RAP regulations. 5(2) The recognition requirements and guidance in REC 2 relate primarily to UK RIEs which are recognised, or applying to be recognised, to operate a regulated market in the United Kingdom.5(3) While some recognition requirements in REC 2 apply
REC 1.1.2GRP
(1) UK RIEs4 are exempt persons under section 285 of the Act (Exemption for recognised investment exchanges and clearing houses).4(2) UK RIEs4 must satisfy recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury (in certain cases with the approval of the Secretary of State) in the Recognition Requirements Regulations. UK RIEs must also satisfy the MIFID/MiFIR requirements5.2RAPs must satisfy the recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury in the RAP regulations, under the
PERG 5.4.1GRP
A person will only need authorisation or exemption if he is carrying on a regulated activity 'by way of business' (see section 22 of the Act (Regulated Activities)).
PERG 5.4.2GRP
There is power in the Act for the Treasury to specify the circumstances in which a person is or is not to be regarded as carrying on regulated activities by way of business. The Business Order has been made using this power (partly reflecting differences in the nature of the different activities). As such, the business test for insurance mediation activity is distinguished from the standard test for 'investment business' in article 3 of the Business Order. Under article 3(4) of
SUP 13A.7.1GRP
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part 4A permission from the appropriate UK regulator3 to do so (see the appropriate UK regulator's website: www.fca.org.uk/firms/authorisation/apply-authorisation for the FCA and
SUP 13A.7.4GRP
For guidance on how to apply for Part 4A permission3 under the Act, see the appropriate UK regulator's website: http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation/getting-authorised for the FCA and www.bankofengland.co.uk/pra/Pages/authorisations/newfirm/default.aspx for the PRA.31 If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part
SUP 10C.9.4GRP
The FCA is under a duty, under section 59A of the Act (Specifying functions as controlled functions: supplementary), to exercise the power to specify any senior management function as an FCA controlled function in a way that it considers will minimise the likelihood that approvals need to be given by both the FCA and the PRA for the performance by a person of senior management functions in relation to the same PRA-authorised person.
SUP 10C.9.12GRP
Under section 59B of the Act (Role of FCA in relation to PRA decisions), the FCA may arrange with the PRA that, in agreed cases, the PRA may give approval without obtaining the consent of the FCA. No such arrangements are currently in force.
PERG 9.2.1GRP
The nature of many bodies corporate means that they will, in most if not all circumstances, come within the definition of collective investment scheme in section 235(1) to (3) of the Act (Collective investment schemes). The property concerned will generally be managed as a whole under the control of the directors of the body corporate or some other person for the purpose of running its business. The idea underlying the investment is that the investors will participate in or receive
PERG 9.2.2GRP
However, there are a number of exclusions that apply to prevent certain arrangements from being a collective investment scheme. These are in the Schedule to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Collective Investment Schemes) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1062) (Arrangements not amounting to a collective investment scheme). The exclusion in paragraph 21 of the Schedule to that Order is of particular significance for bodies corporate. It excludes from being a collective investment
PERG 4.2.3GRP
A person who is concerned to know whether his proposed activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form, in the flowchart in PERG 4.18):(1) will I be carrying on my activities by way of business (see PERG 4.3.3 G (The business test))?(2) if so, will my activities relate to regulated mortgage contracts (see PERG 4.4 (What is a regulated
PERG 4.2.5GRP
An unauthorised person who intends to carry on activities connected with mortgages will also need to comply with section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion). This guidance does not cover financial promotions that relate to mortgages. Persons should refer to the general guidance on financial promotion in Appendix 1 to the Authorisation manual, PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities)) and, in particular, to PERG 8.17 (Financial promotions concerning agreements
EG 13.4.1RP
1Where the FCA believes that a company or partnership to which sections 359(1) and 367(1) of the Act applies is, or is likely to become, unable to pay its debts, the FCA will consider whether it is appropriate to seek an administration order or a compulsory winding up order from the court. The FCA's approach will be in two stages: the first is to consider whether it is appropriate to seek any insolvency order; the second is to consider which insolvency order will meet, or is likely
EG 13.4.2RP
1In determining whether it is appropriate to seek an insolvency order on this basis, the FCA will consider the facts of each case including, where relevant: (1) whether the company or partnership has taken or is taking steps to deal with its insolvency, including petitioning for its own administration, placing itself in voluntary winding up or proposing to enter into a company voluntary arrangement, and the effectiveness of those steps; (2) whether any consumer or other creditor