Related provisions for BIPRU 7.8.29

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SUP 5.6.4GRP
2A firm may provide information that would otherwise be subject to a contractual or other requirement to keep it in confidence if it is provided for the purposes of anything required to be done in respect of the skilled person's collection or updating of information under section 166A (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information) of the Act.
MCOB 13.4.3GRP
(1) A firm may provide the information in MCOB 13.4.1 R (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) orally, for example by telephone, but must provide the information in a durable medium with a copy of the Money Advice Service3 information sheet “Problems3 paying your mortgage” 23within 15 business days of becoming aware of the customer's account falling into arrears.23(2) Where a firm provides the information in MCOB 13.4.1 R when a payment shortfall4 occurs but before the customer's account
SYSC 19D.1.8GRP
The FCA's policy on individual guidance is set out in SUP 9. Firms should particularly note the policy on what the FCA considers to be a reasonable request for guidance (see SUP 9.2.5G). For example, where a firm is seeking guidance on a proposed remuneration structure, the FCA will expect the firm to provide a detailed analysis of how the structure complies with the dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code, including the general requirement for remuneration policies, procedures
DISP 2.3.1BGRP
17For the purposes of DISP 2.3.1AR, the Ombudsman can consider a complaint about an act carried out by a MiFID investment firm that is preparatory to the provision of an investment service or ancillary service which is an integral part of such a service. This includes, for example, generic advice given by a MiFID investment firm to a client prior to, or in the course of, the provision of investment advice or another investment service or ancillary service. [Note: recitals 15 and
SUP 10C.9.9GRP

Table: Examples of how the need for dual FCA and PRA approval in relation to PRA-authorised persons is reduced

1Example

Whether FCA approval required

Whether PRA approval required

Comments

(1) A is appointed as chief risk officer and an executive director.

No. He is not treated as performing the executive director function.

Yes

Chief risk officer is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA-designated senior management function. To avoid the need for FCA approval, A’s appointment as director should not take effect before PRA approval for the chief risk officer role.

(2) Same as example (1), except that A will take up the role as an executive director slightly later because the approval is needed from the firm's shareholders or governing body.

No

Yes

The answer for (1) applies. The arrangements in this section apply if the application to the PRA says that A will start to perform the potential FCA governing function around the time of the PRA approval as well as at that time.

(3) Same as example (1) but the application to the PRA does not mention that it is also intended that A is to be an executive director.

Yes, to perform the executive director function.

Yes

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply if the application for PRA approval does not say that A will also be performing what would otherwise be an FCA governing function.

(4) A is to be appointed as chief executive and an executive director.

No. A is not treated as performing the executive director function.

Yes

Being a chief executive is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function.

(5) A is appointed as chief risk officer. Later, A is appointed as an executive director while carrying on as chief risk officer.

Yes, when A takes up the director role. The executive director function applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because, when the firm applied for approval for A to perform the PRA chief risk officer designated senior management function, there was no plan for A also to perform the executive director function.

(6) A is appointed as an executive director. Later, A takes on the chief risk officer function and remains as an executive director.

Yes, when A is appointed as director. The executive director function applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

When A is appointed as chief risk officer, A is still treated as carrying on the executive director function. A retains the status of an FCA-approved person.

(7) A is appointed as chief risk officer. A then stops performing that role and for a while does not perform any controlled function for that firm. Later, A is appointed as an executive director with the same firm.

Yes, when A is appointed as an executive director. The executive director function applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because there is no current PRA approval when A is being appointed as a director.

(8) A is appointed as an executive director and chief risk officer at the same time. Later, A gives up the role as chief risk officer but remains as an executive director.

No, on A’s first appointment (see example (1)). But when A gives up the role as chief risk officer, FCA approval is needed to perform the executive director function.

Form E should be used. The application should state that it is being made as a result of A ceasing to perform a PRA-designated senior management function.

Form A should be used if there have been changes in A’s fitness (SUP 10C.10.9D(4))

Yes, on A’s first appointment.

When A stops being a chief risk officer, A stops performing a PRA-designated senior management function. However, being an executive director requires FCA approval. A does not have that approval because A did not need it when A was first appointed.

The combined effect of SUP 10C.9.8R and the relevant PRA rules is that the firm has three months to secure approval by the FCA. During that interim period, A keeps the status of a PRA approved person performing the director element of the PRA chief risk designated senior management function - which is included in that function under relevant PRA rules. The relevant PRA rules say that, during this transitional period, A is still treated as performing the PRA chief risk designated senior management function and SUP 10C.9.8R says that, for as long as A is performing a PRA-designated senior management function, A does not perform the executive director function.

(9) A is appointed as the chief finance officer and an executive director at the same time. Later, A switches to being chief risk officer while remaining as an executive director.

No

Yes

The arrangements in SUP 10C.9.8R continue to apply, even though A switches between PRA-designated senior management function after the PRA's first approval.

(10) A is appointed chief risk officer and an executive director. A goes on temporary sick leave. A takes up his old job when he comes back.

No, neither on A’s first appointment nor when A comes back from sick leave.

Yes

SUP 10C.9.8R still applies on A’s return because A does not stop performing either the PRA's chief risk function or what would otherwise have been the executive director function just because A goes on temporary sick leave.

(11) A is appointed to be chairman of the governing body and chairman of the nomination committee at the same time.

No. A does not need approval to perform the chair of the nomination committee function.

Yes, on first appointment.

Being chairman of the governing body is a PRA-designated senior management function. Therefore, the answer for example (1) applies.

2(12) ‘A’ is to be appointed to perform the Head of Overseas Branch PRA-designated senior management function (SMF19) for a third-country relevant authorised person. A is also an executive director of that firm’sUKbranch.

No. A is not treated as performing the executive3director function.

Yes

A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function.

Note: The relevant PRA rules can be found in Chapter 2 of the part of the PRA rulebook called ‘Senior Management Functions’

CONC 7.12.3GRP
(1) CONC 1.2.2 R requires a firm to ensure its employees and agents comply with CONC and that it takes reasonable steps to ensure other persons who act on its behalf do so. This rule would apply where a debt collector acts as agent or on behalf of a lender.(2) Situations where it may be justified for a firm to refuse to deal with a person acting on behalf of a customer may include, for example, refusing to deal with that person where the firm is able to show that the person has
SUP 6.4.17GRP
If a firm is transferring its business, the relevant regulator24 may require a professional opinion in respect of certain aspects of the transfer. For example, the relevant regulator24 may require a legal opinion on the validity of arrangements to transfer regulated activities, client money, client deposits, custody assets or any other property belonging to clients, to another authorised person. Alternatively, an auditor or reporting accountant may be requested to verify that
COLL 7.7.15GRP
(1) An authorised fund manager may add other information to that which is required by COLL 7.7.10 R2 to COLL 7.7.14 R if it considers that it is relevant in the context of the proposed UCITS merger. For example, it may be appropriate for the information provided in accordance with COLL 7.7.13 R (3)(a) to contain a recommendation by the respective authorised fund manager3 of an AUT or ACS3 or the directors of an ICVC as to the course of action the unitholders should take.23(2)
CONC 7.13.5GRP
A firm should ensure (subject to any legal requirements) that adequate and accurate information it holds about a customer in relation to a debt is made available to persons involved on its behalf in the debt recovery process. Information relating to the customer which should be made available to agents or employees includes, for example:(1) being in financial difficulties;(2) being particularly vulnerable;(3) disputing the debt;(4) a repayment plan or forbearance being in place;(5)
PERG 2.5.10GRP
(1) 7When deciding whether a person is a MiFID investment firm or a third country investment firm for the purposes of PERG 2.5.8G(1), it is necessary to take into account the services that that person is providing in relation to the product concerned.(2) For example, say that a UKperson does business in an option product to which PERG 2.5.7G applies. When deciding whether that product is a regulated option, it is not necessary for that person already to be:(a) a MiFID investment
SYSC 5.1.10GRP
Where a firm is unable to ensure the complete segregation of duties (for example, because it has a limited number of staff), it should ensure that there are adequate compensating controls in place (for example, frequent review of an area by relevant senior managers).3
RCB 1.1.9GRP
(1) Issuers which are subject to an obligation to publish a prospectus under the Prospectus Directive are required by Article 3 of the PD Regulation to disclose risk factors. These requirements are set out in PR 2.3.1 EU and PR App 3.1.1 EU.(2) In complying with these obligations, issuers should consider disclosing the risk that actions by a regulatory authority in relation to the issuer may adversely affect the ability of the issuer to meet its obligations to investors or the
CONC 5.2.4GRP
(1) To consider all of the factors set out in CONC 5.2.3 G in all cases is likely to be disproportionate. [Note: paragraph 4.11 of ILG](2) A firm should consider what is appropriate in any particular circumstances dependent on, for example, the type and amount of the credit being sought and the potential risks to the customer. The risk of credit not being sustainable directly relates to the amount of credit granted and the total charge for credit relative to the customer's financial
CASS 6.3.4BGRP
6A firm should consider carefully the terms of any agreement entered into with a third party under CASS 6.3.4A R. The following terms are examples of the issues that should be addressed in these agreements (where relevant):(1) that the title of the account in the third party's books and records indicates that any safe custody asset credited to it does not belong to the firm;(2) that the third party will hold or record a safe custody asset belonging to the firm'sclient separately
EG 13.4.2RP
1In determining whether it is appropriate to seek an insolvency order on this basis, the FCA will consider the facts of each case including, where relevant: (1) whether the company or partnership has taken or is taking steps to deal with its insolvency, including petitioning for its own administration, placing itself in voluntary winding up or proposing to enter into a company voluntary arrangement, and the effectiveness of those steps; (2) whether any consumer or other creditor
EG 12.1.4RP
1In cases where criminal proceedings have commenced or will be commenced, the FCA may consider whether also to take civil or regulatory action (for example where this is appropriate for the protection of consumers) and how such action should be pursued. That action might include: applying to court for an injunction; applying to court for a restitution order; variation and/or cancellation of permission; and prohibition of individuals. The factors the FCA may take into account when
EG 10.2.2RP
1The broad test the FCA will apply when it decides whether to seek an injunction is whether the application would be the most effective way to deal with the FCA's concerns. In deciding whether an application for an injunction is appropriate in a given case, the FCA will consider all relevant circumstances and may take into account a wide range of factors. The following list of factors is not exhaustive; not all the factors will be relevant in a particular case and there may be
DEPP 6.5B.4GRP
(1) If the FCA3 considers the figure arrived at after Step 3 is insufficient to deter the individual who committed the breach, or others, from committing further or similar breaches then the FCA3 may increase the penalty. Circumstances where the FCA3 may do this include:333(a) where the FCA3 considers the absolute value of the penalty too small in relation to the breach to meet its objective of credible deterrence;3(b) where previous FCA3 action in respect of similar breaches