Related provisions for MAR 7A.4.1

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REC 1.2.1GRP
The purpose of the guidance (other than in REC 6A) 2in this sourcebook is to give information on the recognised body requirements.3 The purpose of the guidance3 in REC 6A is to give EEA market operators information about their passporting rights in the United Kingdom2. Explanations of the purposes of the rules in this sourcebook are given in the chapters concerned.2233
MAR 9.2.1DRP
(1) 1Each of the following must complete the forms in (2):(a) an applicant for a data reporting service authorisation;(b) a UK MiFID investment firm operating a trading venue seeking verification of its rights to provide a data reporting service under regulation 5(b) and (c) of the DRS Regulations; and(c) a UK RIE operating a trading venue seeking verification of its rights to provide a data reporting service under regulation 5(d) of the DRS Regulations.(2) The forms in (1) are:(a)
INSPRU 3.1.61ARRP
A pure reinsurer must invest its assets in accordance with the following requirements:(1) the assets must take account of the type of business carried out by the firm, in particular the nature, amount and duration of expected claims payments, in such a way as to secure the sufficiency, liquidity, security, quality, profitability and matching of its investments;(2) the firm must ensure that the assets are diversified and adequately spread and allow the firm to respond adequately
PR 5.3.1UKRP

Sections 87H and 87I of the Act provide:

Prospectus approved in another EEA State

87H

(1)

A prospectus approved by the competent authority of an EEA State other than the United Kingdom is not an approved prospectus for the purposes of section 85 unless that authority has notified ESMA and provided the competent authority with -3

(a)

a certificate of approval;

(b)

a copy of the prospectus as approved; and

(c)

if requested by the [FCA], a translation of the summary of the prospectus.

(2)

A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states that the prospectus -

(a)

has been drawn up in accordance with the prospectus directive; and

(b)

has been approved, in accordance with that directive, by the competent authority providing the certificate.

(3)

A document is not a certificate of approval unless it states whether (and, if so, why) the competent authority providing it authorised, in accordance with the prospectus directive, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included.

3(3A)

The competent authority must publish on its website a list of certificates of approval provided to it in accordance with this section.

3(3B)

The list referred to in subsection (3A) must -

(a)

be kept up-to-date;

(b)

retain items on it for a period of at least 12 months; and

(c)

include hyperlinks to any certificate of approval and prospectus published on the website of -

(i)

the competent authority of the EEA State which provided the certificate;

(ii)

the issuer; or

(iii)

the regulated market where admission to trading is sought.

(4)

"Prospectus" includes a supplementary prospectus.

Provision of information to host Member State

87I

(1)

The [FCA] must, if requested to do so, supply the competent authority of a specified EEA State with –

(a)

a certificate of approval;

(b)

a copy of the specified prospectus (as approved by the [FCA]); and

(c)

a translation of the summary of the specified prospectus (if the request states that one has been requested by the other competent authority).2

(1A)2

If the competent authority supplies a certificate of approval to the competent authority of the specified EEA State, it must also supply a copy of that certificate to -

(a)

the person who made the request under this section; and

(b)

ESMA.

(2)

Only the following may make a request under this section –

(a)

the issuer of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates;

(b)

a person who wishes to offer the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to the public in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom;

(c)

a person requesting the admission of the transferable securities to which the specified prospectus relates to a regulated market situated or operating in an EEA State other than (or as well as) the United Kingdom.

(3)

A certificate of approval must state that the prospectus –

(a)

has been drawn up in accordance with this Part and the prospectus directive; and

(b)

has been approved, in accordance with those provisions, by the [FCA].

(4)

A certificate of approval must state whether (and, if so, why) the [FCA] authorised, in accordance with section 87B, the omission from the prospectus of information which would otherwise have been required to be included.

(5)

The [FCA] must comply with a request under this section –

(a)

if the prospectus has been approved before the request is made, within 3 working days beginning with the date the request is received2; or

2

(b)

if the request is submitted with an application for the approval of the prospectus, on the first working day after the date on which it approves the prospectus.

(6)

“Prospectus” includes a supplementary prospectus.

(7)

“Specified” means specified in a request made for the purposes of this section.
REC 4.2B.1GRP
1Under section 312C of the Act, if a UK RIE wishes to make arrangements in an EEA State other than the UK to facilitate access to or use of a regulated market,2multilateral trading facility, organised trading facility4 or auction platform2 operated by it, it must give the FCA3written notice of its intention to do so. The notice must:3(1) describe the arrangements; and(2) identify the EEA State in which the UK RIE intends to make them.[Note:MiFID RTS 3 and MiFID ITS 4, Annex
EG 10.2.2RP
1The broad test the FCA will apply when it decides whether to seek an injunction is whether the application would be the most effective way to deal with the FCA's concerns. In deciding whether an application for an injunction is appropriate in a given case, the FCA will consider all relevant circumstances and may take into account a wide range of factors. The following list of factors is not exhaustive; not all the factors will be relevant in a particular case and there may be
COLL 5.8.7RRP
The following rules and guidance in COLL 5.1 (Introduction), COLL 5.2 (General investment powers and limits for UCITS schemes) and COLL 5.5 (Cash, borrowing, lending and other provisions) apply to the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme which is a feeder UCITS and to an ICVC which is a feeder UCITS:(1) COLL 5.1.1 R (Application), COLL 5.1.2G (1) (Purpose) and COLL 5.1.3 R (Treatment of obligations);(2) COLL 5.2.1 R (Application), COLL 5.2.2 R (Table of application) and
REC 2.1.1GRP
(1) This chapter contains the recognition requirements for UK RIEs (other than RAPs) and sets out guidance on those requirements. Except for REC 2.5A, references to recognised body or UK recognised bodies in the rest of this chapter shall be read as referring to UK RIEs. 5(2) This chapter also contains “Notes” with informative text in relation to MiFID/MiFIR requirements applicable directly to UK RIEs operating trading venues.5(3) This chapter directs UK RIEs to certain recognition
COBS 2.2.1RRP
(1) A firm must provide appropriate information in a comprehensible form to a client about:(a) the firm and its services;(b) designated investments and proposed investment strategies; including appropriate guidance on and warnings of the risks associated with investments in those designated investments or in respect of particular investment strategies;(c) execution venues; and(d) costs and associated charges;so that the client is reasonably able to understand the nature and risks
MCOB 4.10.3BRRP
3For the purposes of MCOB 4.4A.2R (1) there is one relevant market for home purchase plans.
FIT 1.3.2GRP
In assessing fitness and propriety, the FCA1 will also take account of the activities of the firm for which the controlled function is or is to be performed, the permission held by that firm and the markets within which it operates.1
EG 19.26.3RP
(1) 1The FCA has the power to publish a statement or impose a financial penalty of such amount as it considers appropriate on: (a) a financial counterparty who is not an authorised person, a non- financial counterparty or any other person who has breached an EMIR requirement or regulation 7 or 8 of the OTC derivatives, CCPs and trade repositories regulation; (b) a financial counterparty who is an authorised person who has breached regulation 8 of the
IPRU-INV 9 App 1.1GRP

Glossary of defined terms for Chapter 9

Note: If a defined term does not appear in the glossary below, the definition appearing in the HandbookGlossary applies.

approved exchange

means an investment exchange listed as such in Appendix 33 to IPRU-INV 3.

exchange

means a recognised investment exchange or designated investment exchange.

initial capital

means the initial capital of a firm calculated in accordance with section 9.3.

intangible assets

the full balance sheet value of a firm's intangible assets including goodwill, capitalised development costs, licences, trademark and similar rights etc.

intermediate broker

in relation to a margined transaction, means any person through whom the firm undertakes that transaction.

material current year losses

means losses of an amount equal to 10% or more of initial capital minus B (with B calculated in accordance with Table 9.5.2R).

material holding

means a firm's holdings of shares and any other interest in the capital of a credit institution or financial institution:

(a) which exceeds 10% of the capital of the issuer, and, where this is the case, any holdings of subordinated debt of the same issuer, the full amount is a material holding; or

(b) holdings not deducted under (a) if the total amount of such holdings exceeds 10% of that firm'sown funds, in which case only the excess amount is a material holding.

material insurance holdings

(a) means the holdings of an exempt CAD firm of items of the type set out in (b) in any:

(i) insurance undertaking; or

(ii) insurance holding company that fulfils one of the following conditions:

(iii) it is a subsidiary undertaking of that firm; or

(iv) that firm holds a participation in it.

(b) An item falls into this provision for the purpose of (a) if it is:

(i) an ownership share; or

(ii) subordinated debt or another item of capital that forms part of the tier two capital resources that1 falls into GENPRU 2 or, as the case may be, INSPRU 7, or is an item of “basic own funds” defined in the PRA Rulebook: Glossary.

own funds

means the own funds of a firm calculated in accordance with 9.2.9R(2) and The Interim Prudential Sourcebook for Investment Businesses Chapter 9: Financial resources requirements for an exempt CAD firm Page 2 of 2 Version: November 2007 9.2.8R(b).

own funds requirement

means the requirement set out in 9.2.9R(1) and 9.2.8R(b).

verified

means checked by an external auditor who has undertaken at least to:

(a) satisfy himself that the figures forming the basis of the interim profits have been properly extracted from the underlying accounting records;

(b) review the accounting policies used in calculating the interim profits so as to obtain comfort that they are consistent with those normally adopted by the firm in drawing up its annual financial statements and are in accordance with the relevant accounting principles;

(c) perform analytical procedures on the result to date, including comparisons of actual performance to date with budget and with the results of prior period(s);

(d) discuss with management the overall performance and financial position of the firm;

(e) obtain adequate comfort that the implications of current and prospective litigation, all known claims and commitments, changes in business activities and provisioning for bad and doubtful debts have been properly taken into account in arriving at the interim profits; and

(f) follow up problem areas of which he is already aware in the course of auditing the firm's financial statements.
MAR 5A.3.10RRP
A firm must:(1) in respect of an OTF operated by it, or such a facility it proposes to operate, provide to the FCA a detailed explanation of:(a) why the OTF does not correspond to, and cannot operate as, an MTF, a regulated market or a systematic internaliser;(b) how discretion will be exercised in executing client orders; and(c) its use of matched principal trading; and(2) supply the information in (1) to the FCA in writing, by electronic mail to an address for the usual supervisory
REC 2.9.1UKRP

Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 4(2)(e)

2Without prejudice to the generality of sub-paragraph [4(1)], the [UK RIE] must ensure that-

satisfactory arrangements are made for recording transactions effected on the [UK RIE], and transactions (whether or not effected on the [UK RIE ]) which are cleared or to be cleared by means of itsfacilities;

[Note: article 25 of MiFIR requires the operator of a trading venue to keep relevant data relating to all orders in financial instruments which are advertised through their systems at the disposal of the FCA]4
REC 3.13.1-1GRP
3The notification requirements in MiFID RTS 7, specifying organisational requirements of regulated markets allowing algorithmic trading through their systems, apply to a UK RIE where those operational functions are to be outsourced.
SYSC 10A.1.4RRP
This chapter does not apply to the carrying on of: (1) activities between operators and depositaries, of the same fund (when acting in that capacity); or(2) energy market activity and oil market activity which is not MiFID or equivalent third country business but which, if the firm carrying it on were not authorised, would not be a regulated activity because of article 16 of the Regulated Activities Order (Dealing in contractually based investments) or article 22 of the Regulated
PR 2.1.4EURP

Article 24 of the PD Regulation provides for how the contents of the summary are to be determined:

3Content of the summary of the prospectus, of the base prospectus and of the individual issue

1

The issuer, the offeror or the person asking for the admission to trading on a regulated market shall determine the detailed content of the summary referred to in Article 5(2) of Directive 2003/71/EC in accordance with this Article.

A summary shall contain the key information items set out in Annex XXII. Where an item is not applicable to a prospectus, such item shall appear in the summary with the mention "not applicable". The length of the summary shall take into account the complexity of the issuer and of the securities offered, but shall not exceed 7% of the length of a prospectus or 15 pages, whichever is the longer. It shall not contain cross-references to other parts of the prospectus.

The order of the sections and of the elements of Annex XXII shall be mandatory. The summary shall be drafted in clear language, presenting the key information in an easily accessible and understandable way. Where an issuer is not under an obligation to include a summary in a prospectus pursuant to Article 5(2) of Directive 2003/71/EC, but produces an overview section in the prospectus, this section shall not be entitled "Summary" unless the issuer complies with all disclosure requirements for summaries laid down in this Article and Annex XXII.

2

The summary of the base prospectus may contain the following information:

(a)

information included in the base prospectus;

(b)

options for information required by the securities note schedule and its building block(s);

(c)

information required by the securities note schedule and its building block(s) left in blank for later insertion in the final terms.

3

The summary of the individual issue shall provide the key information of the summary of the base prospectus combined with the relevant parts of the final terms. The summary of the individual issue shall contain the following:

(a)

the information of the summary of the base prospectus which is only relevant to the individual issue;

(b)

the options contained in the base prospectus which are only relevant to the individual issue as determined in the final terms;

(c)

the relevant information given in the final terms which has been previously left in blank in the base prospectus.

Where the final terms relate to several securities which differ only in some very limited details, such as the issue price or maturity date, one single summary of the individual issue may be attached for all those securities, provided the information referring to the different securities is clearly segregated.

The summary of the individual issue shall be subject to the same requirements as the final terms and shall be annexed to them.
54
FEES 4.2.11RRP

Table of periodic fees payable to the FCA63

63

1 Fee payer

2 Fee payable

3 Due date

4 Events occurring during the period leading to modified periodic fee

Any firm (except an AIFM qualifier,25ICVC or a UCITS qualifier)

(1) Unless (2) applies, as37 specified in FEES 4.3.1 R in relation to FEES 4 Annex 2AR and FEES 4 Annex 11 R63.37

(2) Where a firm is paying a ring-fencing implementation fee, as specified in FEES 4 Annex 2BR.37

(1) Unless (2) or (3) apply7, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.12

(2) Unless (3) applies, if 7an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year,62 30 days after the occurrence of that event, or if later the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R.7

(3) Where the permission is for , the date specified in FEES 4 Annex 10 (Periodic fees for MTF operators).

7762

Firm receives permission, or becomes authorised or registered under the Payment Services Regulations, article 8 of the MCD Order32 or the Electronic Money Regulations12;9 or firm9extends permission or its payment service activities916

659

Persons who hold a certificate issued by the FCA62 under article 54 of the Regulated Activities Order (Advice given in newspapers etc.)

62

£1,09540

3131

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice23

(2) If an event in column 4

occurs

during the course of a fee year,62 30 days after the occurrence of that event

2362

Certificate issued to person by FCA62 under article 4054 RAO

62

Any manager of an AUT23;

23

In relation to each unit trust the amount specified in part 1 of 25FEES 4 Annex 4

Authorisation order is made in relation to the relevant scheme24

24Any authorised fund manager of an authorised contractual scheme;

In relation to each authorised contractual scheme the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4

Any ACD of an ICVC; and

In relation to each ICVC,25 the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4

Persons who, under the constitution or founding arrangements of a recognised scheme, are 33responsible for the management of the property held for or within the scheme;

In relation to each recognised scheme the amount specified in part 1 of25FEES 4 Annex 4

The relevant scheme becomes a recognised scheme25

Not applicable

AIFM of a UK ELTIF33

In relation to each ELTIF the amount specified in part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 433

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice.33

(2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event.33

The ELTIF is authorised by the FCA under the ELTIF regulation33

Designated professional body

FEES 4 Annex 5

On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23

23

Not applicable

UK recognised body

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 1 for a UK RIE ; and

FEES 4 Annex 6 R, part 1A for a UK RIE that is also an RAP13

63

(1) On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year62, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

2362

Recognition order is made.

The modified1164 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6 R, Part 1and (in the case of an RAP) Part 1A.131164

1164116411641164

ROIE63

63

FEES 4 Annex 6, part 2

(1) On or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R23

(2) If the event in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year62, 30 days after the occurrence of that event.

2362

Recognition order is made.

The modified1164 periodic fee is specified in FEES 4 Annex 6, Part 2.1164

1164116411641164

A listed issuer35 (in LR) of shares and certificates representing certain securities35.

33

FEES 4 Annex 14R35

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Listedissuer3 (in LR) becomes subject to listing rules

3

A sponsor35

FEES 4 Annex 14R35

3110122323311210231

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

35Approval of a35sponsor35

141414

All non-listed issuers (in DTR) of shares and certificates representing certain securities35.

66

FEES 4 Annex 14R35

29

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Non-listed issuer (in DTR) becomes subject to disclosure requirements36 and transparency rules629

29Any primary information provider

FEES 4 Annex 14R35

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

A person is approved as a primary information provider

6All firms reporting transactions in securities derivatives10to the FCA62 in accordance with SUP 17, and market operators who provide facilities for trading in securities derivatives.10

6210

FEES 4 Annex 9 R

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

Not applicable

15Any issuer of a regulated covered bond.

FEES 4 Annex 11R

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before the relevant dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R

(2) If an event specified in column 4 occurs during the course of a fee year62, 30 days after the occurrence of that event or, if later, the dates specified in FEES 4.3.6 R

62

A person becomes registered as an issuer of a regulated covered bond

26(i) An AIFM (other than a UK AIFM or an EEA AIFM with a branch in the UK) which has notified the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 57 of the AIFMD UK regulation and which has not ceased to market that AIF in the UK as at 1 April of the current fee year.

(ii) An AIFM which has notified the FCA of its intention to market an AIF in the UK under regulation 58 or 59 of the AIFMD UK regulation and which has not ceased to market that AIF in the UK as at 1 April of the current fee year.

For each notification made by the AIFM of the kind specified in part 2 of FEES 4 Annex 4, the amount specified in part 2 of FEES 4 Annex 4

(1) Unless (2) applies, on or before 1 August, or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice

(2) If an event in column 4 occurs during the course of a financial year, 30 days after the occurrence of that event

The FCA receives a notification to market in the UK

26A small registered UK AIFM

The basic fee contained in part 3 of FEES 4 Annex 4

The AIFM is registered by the FCA under regulation 10 of the AIFMD UK regulation.

30Each of the following that makes transaction reports directly to the FCA under SUP 17 (Transaction reporting):

(1) a firm;

(2) a third party acting on a firm's behalf;

(3) an approved reporting mechanism;

(4) an operator of a regulated market; and

(5) an operator of an MTF.

FEES 4 Annex 3A

Within 30 days of the date of the invoice

The FCA enters into arrangements with the fee payer under which it can make transaction reports directly to the FCA

Note:Sponsors on the list of approved sponsors as at 1 April each year will be liable for the full year's annual fee unless FEES 4.3.13 R applies.2

MAR 1.2.5GRP
The5 following factors may5 be taken into account in determining whether or not behaviour5 prior to a request for admission to trading,3 the admission to or the commencement of trading, or the offer for sale on a prescribed auction platform 3 contravenes prohibitions and obligations in the Market Abuse Regulation5 and are indications that it does:5(1) if it is in relation to 5financial instruments:53(a) in respect of which a request for admission to trading on