Related provisions for BIPRU 12.9.25
61 - 80 of 336 items.
A firm (other than the Society or8 an MTF or OTF8 operator in relation to its MTF or OTF8 business5) must notify to the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection agent for the PRA) the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 5 of FEES 4 Annex 1AR6) of each element of business on which the periodic fee payable by the firm is to be calculated.15
3A fee-paying payment service provider and a fee-paying electronic money issuer4 must notify to the FCA the value (as at the valuation date specified in Part 4 of FEES 4 Annex 11) of each element of business on which the periodic fee (other than a flat fee)4 payable by the firm under 1 R4 is to be calculated, including any payment services carried on by its agents from an establishment in the United Kingdom. 4
(1) 3(a) An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must use a risk management process enabling it to monitor and measure at any time the risk of the scheme's positions and their contribution to the overall risk profile of the scheme.3(b) In particular, an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must not solely or mechanistically rely on credit ratings issued by
5An authorised fund manager or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme subject to COLL 6.12.3R(2) must notify the FCA of the information specified in points (a) and (b) of that rule:(1) annually, within 30 business days of 31 October, with information that is accurate as of 31 October of that year;(2) using the form in COLL 6 Annex 2R; and(3) by submitting it:(a) online through the appropriate systems accessible from the FCA’s website; or(b) if the appropriate
(1) 5In addition, an authorised fund manager or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme subject to COLL 6.12.3R(2) should submit a notification to the FCA if there has been a significant change to the fund’s risk profile since its last report, by sending the form in COLL 6 Annex 2R, completed as applicable, to fundsupervision@fca.org.uk.(2) A significant change to the fund’s risk profile could include, but is not limited to:(a) the first use of derivatives for investment
(1) An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must assess, monitor and periodically review:(a) the adequacy and effectiveness of the risk management policy and of the arrangements, processes and techniques referred to in COLL 6.12.5 R;(b) the level of compliance by the authorised fund manager or the UK UCITS management company with the risk management policy and with those arrangements, processes and techniques referred
For the purposes of DISP 1.10.2R, DISP 1.10.2-AR and DISP 1.10.2AR, when completing the return, the firm should take into account the following matters.106184(1) If a complaint could fall into more than one category, the complaint should be recorded in the category which the firm considers to form the main part of the complaint.10(2) Under DISP 1.10.2R(1)(b), DISP 1.10.2R(2)(b) or DISP 1.10.2-AR, a firm should report information relating to all complaints which are closed and
(1) 5If a firm does not submit a complete report by the date on which it is due, in accordance with DISP 1.10.5 R, the firm must pay an administrative fee of £250.10(2) The administrative fee in (1) does not apply if the firm has notified the
FCA
of a systems failure in accordance with DISP 1.10.6 R.10
For the purpose of inclusion in the public record maintained by the FCA, a firm must:10(1) provide the FCA, at the time of its authorisation, with details of a single contact point within the firm for complainants; and10(2) notify the
FCA
of any subsequent change in those details when convenient and, at the latest, in the firm's next report under the complaints reporting rules.10
Where a UK recognised body is to circulate any notice or other document proposing any amendment to its memorandum or articles of association (or other similar agreement or document relating to its constitution) to:(1) its shareholders (or any group or class of them); or(2) its members (or any group or class of them); or(3) any other group or class of persons which has the power to make that amendment or whose consent or approval is required before it may be made;that UK recognised
Where a UK recognised body makes an amendment to its memorandum or articles of association (or other similar agreement or document relating to its constitution), that UK recognised body must immediately give the FCA1notice of that event, and give written particulars of that amendment and of the date on which it is to become or became effective.1
Where any change is made to an agreement which relates to the constitution or governance of a UK recognised body:(1) between that UK recognised body and another person; or(2) between the owners of that UK recognised body; or(3) between the owners of that UK recognised body and another person; or(4) between other persons; that UK recognised body must give the FCA1notice of that event as soon as it is aware of it, and give written particulars of that change and of the date on which
9A listed company must notify the FCA without delay if: (1) it no longer complies with LR 9.2.2G R; (2) it becomes aware that an undertaking in LR 6.5.4R or LR 9.2.2ADR(1)13 has not been complied with by the controlling shareholder or any of its associates; or(3) it becomes aware that a procurement obligation (as set out in LR 6.5.5R(2)(a)13 or LR 9.2.2BR (2)(a)) contained in an agreement entered into under LR 6.5.4R or LR 9.2.2ADR(1)13 has not been complied with by a controlling
A firm is required to notify the appropriate regulator of changes to its close links (see SUP 11.9). The effective supervision threshold conditions provide that, if a firm has close links with another person, the matters which are relevant in determining whether a firm satisfies the condition of being capable of being effective supervised include:1111(1) the nature of the relationship between the firm and that person;1111(2) whether those links or that relationship are likely
The purposes of the rules and guidance in this section are:(1) to ensure that, in addition to such notifications, the appropriate regulator11 receives regular and comprehensive information about the identities of all persons with whom a firm has close links, which is relevant to a firm's continuing to satisfy the effective supervision threshold conditions11 and to the protection of consumers; and1111(2) to implement certain requirements relating to the provision of information
7If a group includes more than one firm, a single close links notification may be made by completing the Annual Close Links Report and so satisfy the notification requirement for all firms in the group. Nevertheless, the requirement to notify, and the responsibility for notifying, remains with each firm in the group.
(1) Members of the management body4 include the persons who, under the operational or managerial arrangements of the UK recognised body, are appointed to manage the departments responsible for carrying out its relevant functions, whether or not they are members of its governing body. A person appointed to carry out specific tasks, such as to conduct a particular investigation into a specific set of facts, would not usually be a member of the management body4.(2) A member of the
Where the governing body of a UK recognised body delegates any of its functions (which relate to that UK recognised body'srelevant functions) to a standing committee, or appoints a standing committee to manage or oversee the carrying out of any of that UK recognised body'srelevant functions, that UK recognised body must immediately notify the FCA3 of that event and give the FCA3 the following information:33(1) the names of the members of that standing committee; and(2) the terms
Where:(1) there is any change in the composition or the terms of reference of any standing committee referred to in REC 3.4.5 R; or(2) any such committee is dissolved; the UK recognised body must immediately notify the FCA3 of that event and give particulars of any change referred to in (1) to the FCA.333
In assessing whether a matter should be notified to the appropriate regulator9 under SUP 11.8.1 R (1), SUP 11.8.1 R (2) or SUP 11.8.1 R (3), a firm should have regard to the guidance on satisfying the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2E and 3D of Schedule 6 to the Act9 contained in COND 2.5.99
The level of a firm's awareness of its controller's circumstances will depend on its relationship with that controller. The appropriate regulator9 does not expect firms to implement systems or procedures so as to be certain of any changes in its controllers' circumstances. However, the appropriate regulator9 does expect firms to notify it of such matters if the firm becomes aware of them, and it expects firms to make enquiries of its controllers if it becomes aware that one of
In aggregating VaR measures across risk or product categories, a firm must not use the square root of the sum of the squares approach unless the assumption of zero correlation between these categories is empirically justified. If correlations between risk categories are not empirically justified, the VaR measures for each category must simply be added in order to determine its aggregate VaR measure. But to the extent that a firm'sVaR model permission provides for a different way
3If the results of the stress tests carried out in accordance with BIPRU 7.10.55Z R indicate a material shortfall in the amount of capital required under the all price risk measure, a firm must notify the appropriate regulator of this circumstance by no later than two business days after the business day on which the material shortfall occurred.
If a backtesting exception occurs, the firm must notify its usual supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator orally by close of business two business days after the business day for which the backtesting exception occurred. Within five business days following the end of each Month, the firm must submit to the appropriate regulator a written account of the previous Month'sbacktesting exceptions (if any). This explanation must include the causes of the backtesting exceptions,
A VaR model permission will contain requirements for what the firm should report to the appropriate regulator and the procedures for reporting. The precise requirements will vary from VaR model permission to VaR model permission. BIPRU 7.10.129R-BIPRU 7.10.130R set out what the appropriate regulator regards as the standard requirements.
If a firm disagrees with the FCA's assessment as to the amount or quality of capital planning buffer that it should hold, it should, consistent with Principle 11 (Relations with regulators), notify the FCA of its disagreement. The FCA may reconsider its initial assessment if, after discussion with the firm, the FCA concludes that the amount or quality of capital that the firm should hold as capital planning buffer is different from the amount or quality initially suggested.
For the purposes of IFPRU 2.3.21 G, 1IFPRU 2.3.20 G1 applies as it applies to individual capital guidance. References in those provisions to individual capital guidance should be read as if they were references to capital planning buffer. In relation toIFPRU 2.2.62 R, where the general stress and scenario testing rule or SYSC 20 (Reverse stress testing), as part of the ICAAPrules, applies to a firm on a consolidated basis, the FCA may notify the firm that it should hold a group
Consistent with Principle 11 (Relations with regulators), a firm should notify the FCA as early as possible in advance where it has identified that it would need to use its capital planning buffer. The firm's notification should at least state: (1) what adverse circumstances are likely to force the firm to draw down its capital planning buffer; (2) how the capital planning buffer will be used up in line with the firm's capital planning projections; and(3) what plan is in place
A firm may
allow another person, such as
another broker to hold or control client money,
but only if:(1) the firm transfers the client
money for the purpose of a transaction for a client through
or with that person; and(2) in
the case of a consumer,5 that customer has been notified (whether through
a client agreement,4terms of business, or otherwise in writing)
that the client money may be
transferred to another person.54
On the failure of
a third party with which client money is
held, a firm must notify the FCA:(1) as
soon as it becomes aware, of the failure of
any bank, other broker or settlement agent or
other entity with which it has placed, or to which it has passed, client money; and(2) as
soon as reasonably practical, whether it intends to make good any shortfall that has arisen or may arise and
of the amounts involved.
23If FEES 3.2.3AR (1)(a) applies to a fee payer, that fee payer would be expected to notify the FCA of these circumstances in advance of making its payment (and, in any event, no less than 7 days before the date on which the application for a Part 4A permission or the variation of a Part 4A permission is made) unless such notification is impossible in the circumstances, eg, there is a sudden technological failure.
(1) (a) 37The appropriate authorisation or registration 8fee is an integral part of an application for, or an application for a variation of, a Part 4A permission ,24 authorisation, registration or variation under the Payment Services Regulations or the Electronic Money Regulations, registration under article 8(1) of the MCD Order, authorisation under regulation 7 of the DRS Regulations or verification under regulation 8 of the DRS Regulations45 or notification or registration
If an issuer is required to notify information to a RIS at a time when a RIS is not open for business, it must distribute the information as soon as possible to:(1) not less than two national newspapers in the United Kingdom;(2) two newswire services operating in the United Kingdom; and(3) a RIS for release as soon as it opens.
(1) Regulation 7 to 9 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Services of Notices) Regulations 2001 (SI2001/1420) govern the manner in which notices may be submitted to the regulators3 under the EEA Passport Rights Regulations. In summary, they should be delivered or posted to the appropriate UK regulator's3 address (See (2) below) and will be treated as given when received by the appropriate UK regulator3. They should not be sent by fax or electronic mail. 333(2) [de
Where any member of the management body2 of a UK recognised body:(1) is the subject of any disciplinary action because of concerns about his or her2 alleged misconduct; or2(2) resigns as a result of an investigation into his or her2 alleged misconduct; or(3) is dismissed for misconduct;that body must immediately give the FCA1 notice of that event, and give the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.5.2 R.1
Where a UK recognised body becomes aware that any of the following events has occurred in relation to a member of the management body2, it must immediately give the FCA1 notice of that event:1(1) a petition for bankruptcy is presented (or similar or analogous proceedings under the law of a jurisdiction outside the United Kingdom are commenced) against that member of the management body2; or(2) a bankruptcy order (or a similar or analogous order under the law of a jurisdiction
Under Principle 11 and SUP 15.3.1 R, a firm must notify the FCA1 immediately of any operational risk matter of which the FCA1 would reasonably expect notice. SUP 15.3.8 G provides guidance on the occurrences that this requirement covers, which include a significant failure in systems and controls and a significant operational loss.
Regarding operational risk, matters of which the FCA1 would expect notice under Principle 11 include:(1) any significant operational exposures that a firm has identified;(2) the firm's invocation of a business continuity plan; and(3) any other significant change to a firm's organisation, infrastructure or business operating environment.