Related provisions for CONC 8.7.7
341 - 360 of 616 items.
1The FCA attaches considerable importance to the timely submission by firms of reports required under FCArules. This is because the information contained in such reports is essential to the FCA's assessment of whether a firm is complying with the requirements and standards of the regulatory system and to the FCA's understanding of that firm’s business. So, in the majority of cases involving non-submission of reports or repeated failure to submit complete reports on time, the FCA
The FCA3 expects to have an open, cooperative and constructive relationship with UK recognised bodies to enable it to have a broad picture of the UK recognised body's activities and its ability to meet the recognised body requirements.2 This broad picture is intended to complement the information which the FCA3 will obtain under section 293 of the Act (Notification requirements) or under notification rules made under that section (see REC 3). The FCA3 will usually arrange meetings
(1) The purpose of MCOB 5.3.1 R, taken in conjunction with other rules in this chapter, is to ensure that the customer has received details of the particular home finance transaction for which he has applied, and has had the opportunity to satisfy himself that it is appropriate for him.1(2) In relation to a regulated mortgage contract, the application should identify the type of interest rate, rate of interest, and the mortgage lender at the point it is submitted by the customer
CASS 11 provides important safeguards for the protection of client money held by CASS debt management firms that sit alongside the fiduciary duty owed by firms in relation to client money. CASS 11.4.2 R to CASS 11.4.4 G provide guidance and rules for when money ceases to be client money for the purposes of both those rules and of the fiduciary duty which CASS debt management firms owe to clients in relation to client money.
1A disapplication order in relation to exempt regulated activities made against a member will be relevant should that member subsequently apply for authorisation under the Act. Whether or not such an application for authorisation is successful will depend on many factors, including the FCA's grounds for making the disapplication order. For example, if the order for disapplication of the exemption was made on the grounds of a breach of rules made under section 332(1) of the Act,
This guidance is issued under section 139A of the Act (Guidance). It represents the FCA's views and does not bind the courts. For example, it would not bind the courts in an action for damages brought by a private person for breach of a rule (see section 138D of the Act (Actions for damages)), or in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of sections 19 (The general prohibition) or 21 (Restrictions on financial promotion) of the Act (see sections
The RAP
regulations apply modified provisions of the Act to
an RAP. For example, an RAP is an exempt
person in respect of its business as an auction
platform due to the application of section 285 of the Act as modified by the the RAP
regulations. Similarly, section 293 of the Act is
applied and modified by the RAP regulations to
provide for notification rules and
notification requirements in relation to RAPs.
(1) For the purpose of BIPRU 7.8.2R (1), a firm has a commitment to underwrite or sub-underwrite an issue of securities where:(a) it gives a commitment to an issuer of securities to underwrite an issue of securities; or(b) (where BIPRU 7.8.12R (2) applies) it gives a commitment to a seller of securities to underwrite a sale of those securities;(c) it gives a commitment to a person, other than the issuer of securities or, if BIPRU 7.8.12R (2) applies, the seller of the securities,
(1) This rule deals with the treatment of short positions that arise when a firm commits to distribute securities that it is underwriting in an amount that exceeds the allocation to the firm made by the issuer of the securities being underwritten.(2) When calculating its net underwriting position, a firm may use an over-allotment option granted to it by the issuer of the securities being underwritten to reduce the short positions in (1).(3) A firm may also use an over-allotment
(1) A CAD Article 22 group means a UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group that meets the conditions in this rule.(2) There must be no bank, building society or2credit institution2 in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group and any investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group must not be subject to consolidated supervision under the EU CRR2.11(3) Each CAD investment firm in the UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group which is an EEA firm
A firm must calculate the capital resources of the parent financial holding company in a Member State for the purpose of BIPRU 8.4.11 R as follows:(1) the capital resources are the sum of capital resources calculated at stages D (Total tier one capital before deductions) and I (Total tier two capital) of the version of the capital resources table in GENPRU 2 Annex 4R(Capital resources table for a BIPRU 2firm deducting material holdings) as adjusted in accordance with this rule;(2)
A UK firm17 or an AIFM exercising an EEA right to market an AIF under AIFMD13,9 cannot start providing cross border services into another EEA State under an EEA right unless it satisfies the conditions in paragraphs 20(1) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act and, if it derives its EEA right from17AIFMD, MiFID or the UCITS Directive,13paragraph 20(4B) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act. If a UK firm derives its EEA right from the MCD, it cannot start providing cross border services
10A UK firm seeking to provide collective portfolio management services in another EEA State under the freedom to provide cross border services, is advised that it will need to refer to the rules of the competent authority of the UCITS Home State implementing article 20 of the UCITS Directive which will require it to submit to that competent authority information relating to its depositary agreement and certain delegation arrangements.
Where the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS gives notice to the FCA under section 251 or section 261Q1 of the Act or regulation 21 of the OEIC Regulations that it intends to wind up the scheme, it must inform:(1) the unitholders of the feeder UCITS; and(2) where notice is given under COLL 11.6.5R (4) (Application for approval by a feeder UCITS where a master UCITS merges or divides), the authorised fund manager of the master UCITS;of its intention without undue delay.[Note:
(1) If a firm is satisfied that an employee meets the conditions in this rule then the requirements to have attained 16each module of an appropriate qualification 16will only apply if that employee is carrying on one of the activities specified in this rule.1616(2) The conditions are that a firm should be satisfied that an employee:(a) has at least three years' up-to-date relevant experience in the activity in question obtained while employed outside the United Kingdom;(b) has
2The FCA3 will seek to deprive an individual of the financial benefit derived directly from the breach (which may include the profit made or loss avoided) where it is practicable to quantify this. The FCA3 will ordinarily also charge interest on the benefit. Where the success of a firm’s entire business model is dependent on breaching FCA3rules or other requirements of the regulatory system and the individual’s breach is at the core of the firm’s regulated activities, the FCA3
(1) The FCA3 will determine a figure which will be based on a percentage of an individual’s “relevant income”. “Relevant income” will be the gross amount of all benefits received by the individual from the employment in connection with which the breach occurred (the “relevant employment”), and for the period of the breach. In determining an individual’s relevant income, “benefits” includes, but is not limited to, salary, bonus, pension contributions, share options and share schemes;
1A persistency report or data report must report on a life policy or stakeholder pension if:(1) it is not of a type listed in SUP 16.8.13 R or SUP 16.8.14 R;(2) it was effected by:(a) the firm submitting the report; or(b) an unauthorised member of the group of the firm submitting the report and in circumstances in which that firm was responsible for the promotion of that life policy or stakeholder pension; or(c) another firm, but is being carried out by the firm submitting the
1A persistency or data report must not report on any of the following:(1) a life policy or stakeholder pension that was cancelled from inception whether or not this was as a result of service of a notice under the rules on cancellation (COBS 15)5;5(2) [deleted]77(3) a life policy (excluding income withdrawal) or stakeholder pension which has terminated as a result of death, critical illness, retirement, maturity or other completion of the contract term;(4) income withdrawals that
(1) 1The FCA2will seek to deprive a firm of the financial benefit derived directly from the breach (which may include the profit made or loss avoided) where it is practicable to quantify this. The FCA2 will ordinarily also charge interest on the benefit.22(2) Where the success of a firm’s entire business model is dependent on breachingFCArules2 or other requirements of the regulatory system and the breach is at the core of the firm’s regulated activities, the FCA2 will seek to
(1) The FCA2 will determine a figure that reflects the seriousness of the breach. In many cases, the amount of revenue generated by a firm from a particular product line or business area is indicative of the harm or potential harm that its breach may cause, and in such cases the FCA2 will determine a figure which will be based on a percentage of the firm’s revenue from the relevant products or business areas. The FCA2 also believes that the amount of revenue generated by a firm
1Subject to the exemptions in SYSC 10A.1.4R, this chapter applies to a firm:(1) that is a:(a) UK MiFID investment firm; or(b) full-scope UK AIFM; or(c) small authorised UK AIFM or residual CIS operator; or(d) incoming EEA AIFM; or(e) UCITS management company; or(f) MiFID optional exemption firm, performing activities covered by the exemption; or(g) EEA MiFID investment firm; or(h) third country investment firm; or(i) that carries on activities referred to in the general application
A notification referred to in SYSC 10A.1.11R is only required to be made by the firm once, at the following times:(1) to a new client prior to the provision of any investment services; and(2) to an existing client prior to the provision of any investment services following:(a) the commencement of these rules; or(b) the firm otherwise becoming subject to these rules, after the date of commencement.[Note: article 16(7) of MiFID, fifth subparagraph]
As part of the SLRP, the appropriate regulator will give a standard ILAS BIPRU firmindividual liquidity guidance advising it of the amount and quality of liquidity resources which the appropriate regulator considers are appropriate, having regard to the liquidity risk profile of that firm. In giving individual liquidity guidance, the appropriate regulator will also advise the firm of what it considers to be a prudent funding profile for the firm. In giving the firmindividual liquidity
A firm that deviates from current individual liquidity guidance that it has accepted or, as the case may be, from its simplified buffer requirement, will be experiencing a firm-specific liquidity stress for the purpose of the reporting rules in SUP 16 (Reporting requirements). Those rules require the firm to report specified data items more frequently than would otherwise be the case. Additionally, a firm that is implementing a liquidity remediation plan should expect that the
61A recognised body may also have obligations to pay fees to the FCA under other rules arising from legislation other than the Act. For example a recognised body may have an obligation to pay a fee as an approved operator of a relevant system under the Uncertificated Securities Regulations 1995 (SI 1995/3272).
42If a firm does not have sufficient tariff data to enable the periodic fees calculation to be made in respect of that fee year, it must calculate an annualised figure based on actual data where possible. If the tariff base is a cumulative measure like income, covering the full year, it must apply the formula (A÷B) x 12, where:A = the total income from the date of authorisation up to the firm’s financial year end or 31 December (whichever is sooner), calculated according to the