Related provisions for BIPRU 2.3.6
141 - 160 of 449 items.
(1) 2CONC does not apply to credit agreements secured on land, with some limited exceptions as set out in (3) and (4), below. (2) Agreements secured by a second or subsequent charge on the customer’s home are, where regulated, governed by MCOB from 21 March 2016 (subject to transitional provisions allowing for the earlier adoption of MCOB). For detailed guidance on the regulation of secured lending, see PERG 4.(3) The agreements secured on land to which CONC may apply include
2Subject to CONC 1.2.10R:(1) the following provisions of CONC apply to an MCD article 3(1)(b) creditor and to an MCD article 3(1)(b) credit intermediary:(a) CONC 1.2 and CONC 1.3 (application and purpose and guidance on financial difficulties); (b) CONC 2.2 (general principles for credit-related regulated activities);(c) CONC 2.7 (distance marketing);(d) CONC 2.8 (e-commerce); and(e) CONC 2.9 (prohibition of unsolicited credit tokens);(2) the following provisions of CONC additionally
5Apart from SYSC 12, SYSC 19A, SYSC 19D, 6SYSC 20 and SYSC 21 which are disapplied by SYSC 1.4.1A R, the other chapters of SYSC 11 to SYSC 17 do not apply in relation to a firm's carrying on of auction regulation bidding because they only apply to an insurer. SYSC 18 provides guidance on the Public Interest Disclosure Act.
A contravention of a rule in SYSC 11 to 2SYSC 21,7SYSC 22.8.1R or SYSC 22.9.1R7 does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action). 3443
2SUP 16.23.4R to SUP 16.23.7R (Annual Financial Crime Report) apply to an electronic money institution that has reported total revenue of £5 million or more as at its last accounting reference date as if a reference to firm in these rules and guidance were a reference to an electronic money institution and the reference to group is read accordingly.
The table below sets out the format, reporting frequency and due date for submission in relation to regulatory returns that apply to electronic money issuers that are not credit institutions.
(1) Type of electronic money issuer |
(2) Return |
(3) Format |
(4) Reporting Frequency |
(5) Due date (Note 4) |
EMI and SEMI Questionnaire 3 |
FIN0603 |
Annual 3 (Note 3) |
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Small electronic money institutions (Note 2) |
EMI and SEMI Questionnaire 3 |
FIN0603 |
Annual3 (Note 5) |
|
Total electronic money outstanding @ 31st December |
FSA065 |
Annual (Note 5) |
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(a) the Post Office Limited (b) the Bank of England, the ECB and the national central banks of EEA States other than the United Kingdom (c) Government departments and local authorities (d) credit unions (e) municipal banks (f) the National Savings Bank |
No standard format |
Annual 3 (Note 6) |
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Note 1 |
When submitting the completed returns required, the authorised electronic money institution must use the format of the returns set out in SUP 16 Annex 30HD. Guidance notes for the completion of the return are set out in SUP 16 Annex 30IG3. |
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Note 2 |
When submitting the completed returns required, the small electronic money institution must use the format of the returns set out in SUP 16 Annex 30JD (FIN060) and SUP 16 Annex 30GD (FSA065). Guidance notes for the completion of the FIN060 return are set out in SUP 16 Annex 30KG3. |
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Note 3 |
This3 field is calculated from the authorised electronic money institution'saccounting reference date. |
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Note 4 |
The due dates for returns are the last day of the periods given in column (5) of the table above following the relevant reporting frequency period set out in column (4) of the table above. |
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Note 5 |
The reporting frequency in relation to FSA065 is calculated from 31 December each calendar year. In relation to FIN060,3 this field is calculated from the small electronic money institution'saccounting reference date. |
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Note 6 |
This is calculated from 31 December each calendar year. |
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Professional firms (broadly firms of solicitors, accountants and actuaries) may carry on insurance mediation activities in the course of their professional activities. Exempt professional firms carrying on insurance mediation activities may continue to be able to use the Part XX exemption to avoid any need for authorisation. PROF 2 (Status of exempt professional firm) contains guidance on the Part XX exemption. They will, however, need to be shown on the Financial Services Register
Professional firms with practices that involve acting for claimants in litigation against insurance undertakings are likely to be carrying on the regulated activity of assisting in the administration and performance of a contract of insurance. Exempt professional firms whose practices contain a material element of such activity should consider whether they can continue to take advantage of the Part XX exemption to avoid any need for authorisation, having regard to the relevant
(1) Each EEA State, including the United Kingdom, is required to implement article 14 of the UCITS Directive by drawing up rules of conduct which management companies authorised in that State must observe at all times, except as explained in (3).(2) UK UCITS management companies operating an EEA UCITS scheme under the freedom to provide cross border services (otherwise than by establishing a branch in that State) are advised that, as provided for elsewhere in the Handbook, they
SUP 15.3 (General notification requirements) contains rules and guidance on matters that should be notified to the FCA. Such matters include, but are not limited to, any circumstance that the depositary becomes aware of whilst undertaking its functions or duties in COLL 6.6.4 R (1) (General duties of the depositary) that the FCA would reasonably view as significant.
(1) Directors of an ICVC, authorised fund managers and depositaries should also have regard to SYSC 8 (Outsourcing).66SYSC 8.1.6 R4 states that a firm remains fully responsible for discharging 6all of its obligations under the regulatory system6 if it outsources crucial or important operational functions4 or any relevant services and activities.6646644(2) SUP 15.8.6 R (Delegation by UCITS management companies) requires the 8authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme to inform the
The FCA4 will consider the full circumstances of each case when determining whether or not to take action for a financial penalty or public censure. Set out below is a list of factors that may be relevant for this purpose. The list is not exhaustive: not all of these factors may be applicable in a particular case, and there may be other factors, not listed, that are relevant.4(1) The nature, seriousness and impact of the suspected breach, including:(a) whether the breach was deliberate
The FCA's4 rules on systems and controls against money laundering are set out in SYSC 3.2 and SYSC 6.3. The FCA4, when considering whether to take action for a financial penalty or censure in respect of a breach of those rules, will have regard to whether a firm has followed relevant provisions in the Guidance for the UK financial sector issued by the Joint Money Laundering Steering Group.44
9When determining under section 66A(5)(d) of the Act whether or not an SMF manager has taken such steps as a person in their position could reasonably be expected to take to avoid the contravention of a relevant requirement by the firm occurring (or continuing), additional considerations to which the FCA would expect to have regard include, but are not limited to:(1) the role and responsibilities of the SMF manager (for example, such steps as an SMF manager in a non-executive
A person seeking to make a financial promotion to another person may wish to make enquiries of that person to establish whether he is certified. Unless another exemption applies or the financial promotion is approved by an authorised person, such enquiries will not be possible if the enquiry communication is an inducement or invitation to engage in investment activity. In the FCA's8 view, a communication which is merely an enquiry seeking to establish that a person holds a current
9Article 72F exempts any financial promotion which is made to an employee by or on behalf of a person in relation to an exempt staff loan. An exempt staff loan is defined as a credit agreement which is:(1) offered by a lender to a borrower as an incident of employment with the lender, or with an undertaking in the same group as the lender11; and(2) an exempt agreement under a provision of article 60G (exempt agreements: exemptions relating to the total charge for credit) of the
6The exemptions described in PERG 8.14.40A G to PERG 8.14.40AEA G9 should enable employers (and their contracted service providers) to promote employee benefits packages that include any pension schemes, work-related insurance schemes,9staff mortgages and certain staff loans9 to employees without undue concern that they may be breaching the restriction in section 21 of the Act. PERG 8.14.34 G (Communications by employers and contracted service providers to employees) has further
(1) This section applies in relation to dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code staff, except as set out in (3).(2) When establishing and applying the total remuneration policies for dual-regulated firms Remuneration Code staff, a firm must comply with this section in a way, and to the extent, that is appropriate to its size, internal organisation and the nature, the scope and the complexity of its activities (the dual-regulated firms remuneration principles proportionality rule).(3)
(1) A firm should be able to demonstrate that its decisions are consistent with an assessment of its financial condition and future prospects. In particular, practices by which remuneration is paid for potential future revenues whose timing and likelihood remain uncertain should be evaluated carefully and the governing body or remuneration committee (or both) should work closely with the firm's risk function in evaluating the incentives created by its remuneration system. (2)
A firm must:(1) set specific criteria for the application of malus and clawback; and(2) ensure that the criteria for the application of malus and clawback in particular cover situations where the employee:(a) participated in, or was responsible for, conduct which resulted in significant losses to the firm; or(b) failed to meet appropriate standards of fitness and propriety.[Note: article 94(1)(n) of the CRD and Standards 6 and 9 of the FSB Compensation Standards][Note: The FSA
(1) This section is about the FCA's certification regime.(2) Under this regime, a firm should ensure that its employees only perform an FCA-specified significant-harm function if they have a certificate issued by that firm to perform that function.(3) The purpose of this section is to specify ‘FCA-specified significant-harm functions’ and to give guidance on the FCA's certification regime.
(1) 3This paragraph gives further guidance on the flexibility a firm has in drafting its certificates.(2) A certificate may cover functions that a certification employee is not currently performing, as long as the firm has assessed the employee’s fitness for these additional functions. This is subject to (3).(3) When a firm is deciding what a certificate can cover beyond the functions that the certification employee is currently performing, it should take the factors in SYSC
Under Principle 11 and SUP 15.3.1 R, a firm must notify the FCA1 immediately of any operational risk matter of which the FCA1 would reasonably expect notice. SUP 15.3.8 G provides guidance on the occurrences that this requirement covers, which include a significant failure in systems and controls and a significant operational loss.
The purpose of this appendix is to give guidance:(1) to UK firms on some of the issues that arise when carrying on passported activities1(see SUP App 3.5and SUP App 3.6);111(2) to all firms on the relationship between regulated activities and activities passported under the Single Market Directives (see SUP App 3.9and SUP App 3.101).11