Related provisions for BIPRU 11.5.21

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PR 2.5.2UKRP

Section 87B(1) of the Act sets out when the FCA may authorise the omission of information from a prospectus:

(1)

The [FCA] may authorise the omission from a prospectus of any information, the inclusion of which would otherwise be required, on the ground –

(a)

that its disclosure would be contrary to the public interest;

(b)

that its disclosure would be seriously detrimental to the issuer, provided that the omission would be unlikely to mislead the public with regard to any facts or circumstances which are essential for an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2); or

(c)

that the information is only of minor importance for a specific offer to the public or admission to trading on a regulated market and unlikely to influence an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2).

IFPRU 4.4.2GRP
The information that a firm produces or uses for the IRB approach should be reliable and take proper account of the different users of the information produced (customers, shareholders, regulators and other market participants).
MAR 4.3.1RRP
A firm must not act, or continue to act, for any person in connection with a transaction to which the Takeover Code applies1 (including a transaction subject to rule 8 (Disclosure of dealings during the offer period; also indemnity and other arrangements) of the Takeover Code1) if the firm has reasonable grounds for believing that the person in question, or his principal, is not complying or is not likely to comply with the Takeover Code.111
IFPRU 4.12.27GRP
(1) If a firm is found to have provided support to a securitisation, the expectation that the firm will provide future support to its securitisations is increased. The FCA will take account of this increased expectation in future assessments of commensurate risk transfer to that firm.(2) The FCA expects securitisation documentation to make clear, where applicable, that repurchase of securitisation positions by the originator beyond its contractual obligations is not mandatory
DISP App 3.6.2ERP
In the absence of evidence to the contrary, the firm should presume that the complainant would not have bought the payment protection contract he bought if the sale was substantially flawed, for example where the firm:(1) pressured the complainant into purchasing the payment protection contract; or(2) did not disclose to the complainant, in good time before the sale was concluded, and in a way that was fair, clear and not misleading, that the policy was optional; or(3) made the
SUP 15.9.5RRP
(1) 3A firm must, at the level of the EEA financial conglomerate, regularly provide the FCA2 with details on the financial conglomerate's legal structure and governance and organisational structure, including all regulated entities, non-regulated subsidiaries and significant branches.(2) A firm must disclose publicly, at the level of the EEA financial conglomerate, on an annual basis, either in full or by way of references to equivalent information, a description of the financial
COLL 14.4.5RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager and depositary of a charity authorised investment fund may adopt a total return approach to the allocation or distribution of income where this is provided for in:(a) the instrument constituting the fund; and (b) the prospectus.(2) Under a total return approach the authorised fund manager may make transfers between the capital account and the income account in addition to those in COLL 6.8.3R(3A)(c).(3) The authorised fund manager and depositary
COBS 6.1C.16RRP
A firm must disclose its charging structure to an employer in writing, in good time before giving advice, or providing services, to the employer in connection with a group personal pension scheme or group stakeholder pension scheme.
MCOB 7.6.13RRP
Where not all of the mortgage interest rates described in accordance with MCOB 5.6.25 R(2)(a) apply for the term of the loan part to which they apply, the firm must disclose the amount that will be paid in each instalment when complying with MCOB 7.6.9 R(3)(b), including the following information:(1) when a change in payment will occur;(2) the reason for the change in payment; and(3) confirmation that the payment illustrated assumes rates will not change.
COND 2.3.3GRP
In assessing the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2C and 3B of Schedule 6 to the Act6, factors which the FCA6 will take into consideration include, among other things, whether: 6(1) it is likely that the FCA6 will receive adequate information from the firm, and those persons with whom the firm has close links, to enable it to determine whether the firm is complying with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system for which the FCA is responsible6 and to
MCOB 1.3.4RRP
(1) The rules in (2) do not apply to a firm with respect to a regulated mortgage activity or a home purchase activity2 exclusively concerning a distance contract if the following conditions are satisfied:2(a) the firm carries on the activity from an establishment maintained by the firm in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; and(b) either the EEA State:(i) has implemented the Distance Marketing Directive3; or3(ii) has obligations in its domestic law corresponding to those
SYSC 18.1.2GRP
(1) The purposes of this chapter are to2:(a) set out the requirements on firms in relation to the adoption, and communication to UK-based employees, of appropriate internal procedures for handling reportable concerns made by whistleblowers as part of an effective risk management system (SYSC 18.3);2(b) set out the role of the whistleblowers’ champion (SYSC 18.4);2(c) require firms to ensure that settlement agreements expressly state that workers may make protected disclosures
COLL 11.4.5GRP
Section 351A (Disclosure under the UCITS directive) of the Act provides that where a trustee of an AUT or the depositary of an ACS1 which is a master UCITS or a feeder UCITS, or any person acting on their behalf, makes a disclosure to comply with rules implementing Chapter VIII of the UCITS Directive, that disclosure is not to be taken as a contravention of any duty to which the person making the disclosure is subject. The OEIC Regulations (see regulation 83A) contain corresponding
COBS 11.2.22RRP
A firm must provide appropriate information to its clients on its order execution policy.4
SYSC 1.4.2RRP
A contravention of a rule in SYSC 11 to 2SYSC 21,7SYSC 22.8.1R or SYSC 22.9.1R7 does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action). 3443
ICOBS 7.2.10GRP
A consumer's notice to cancel a distance contract may also operate to cancel any attached contract which is also a distance financial services contract. This is unless the consumer gives notice that cancellation of the contract is not to operate to cancel the attached contract. (See the Distance Marketing Regulations.) Where relevant, this should be disclosed to the consumer along with other information on cancellation.
COBS 15.5.4GRP
When a consumer cancels a distance contract under this chapter, his notice may also operate to cancel any attached contract which is also a distance financial services contract unless the consumer gives notice that cancellation of the main contract is not to operate to cancel the attached contract (see regulation 12 of the Distance Marketing Regulations). Where relevant, this should be disclosed to the consumer along with other information on cancellation.
SUP 2.4.5GRP
1The FCA may use the information it obtains from mystery shopping in support of both its supervisory functions and its enforcement functions. This includes sharing any information so obtained with firms and approved persons.
COBS 21.2.4BGRP
To comply with the requirements of COBS 21.2.4A R, a firm should:(1) disclose to policyholders the implications of any credit-risk exposure they may face in relation to the solvency of the reinsurer; and(2) suitably monitor the way the reinsurer manages the business in order to discharge its continuing responsibilities to policyholders.