Related provisions for CREDS 2.2.17

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To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

BIPRU 7.10.63RRP
A firm'sgoverning body and senior management must be actively involved in the risk control process, and the daily reports produced by the risk control unit must be reviewed by a level of management with sufficient authority to enforce both reductions of positions taken by individual traders as well as in the firm's overall risk exposure.
BIPRU 7.10.89RRP
A firm must have procedures to assess and respond to the results produced from stress testing. In particular, stress testing results must be:(1) used to evaluate its capacity to absorb such losses or identify steps to be taken to reduce risk; and(2) communicated routinely to senior management and periodically to the governing body.
IFPRU 2.3.6GRP
A firm should ensure that its ICAAP is: (1) the responsibility of the firm'sgoverning body;(2) reported to the firm'sgoverning body; and(3) forms an integral part of the firm's management process and decision-making culture.
IFPRU 2.3.53GRP
If a firm's current available own funds are less than the own funds requirements indicated by the stress test, that does not necessarily mean there is a breach of IFPRU 2.3.50 R. The firm may wish to set out any countervailing effects and off-setting actions that can be demonstrated to the satisfaction of the FCA as being likely to reduce that difference. The FCA is only likely to consider a demonstration of such actions as credible if those actions are set out in a capital management
REC 2.5.6GRP
In assessing a UK recognised body's systems and controls for assessing and managing risk, the FCA3 may also have regard to the extent to which these systems and controls enable the UK recognised body to:3(1) identify all the general, operational, legal and market risks wherever they arise in its activities;(2) measure and control the different types of risk;(3) allocate responsibility for risk management to persons with appropriate knowledge and expertise; and(4) provide sufficient,
REC 2.5.17GRP
A UK recognised body's arrangements for internal and external audit will be an important part of its systems and controls. In assessing the adequacy of these arrangements, the FCA3 may have regard to: 3(1) the size, composition and terms of reference of any audit committee of the UK recognised body'sgoverning body;(2) the frequency and scope of external audit; (3) the provision and scope of internal audit; (4) the staffing and resources of the UK recognised body's internal audit
SUP 15.3.8GRP
Compliance with Principle 11 includes, but is not limited to, giving the FCA11 notice of:3535(1) any proposed restructuring, reorganisation or business expansion which could have a significant impact on the firm's risk profile or resources, including, but not limited to:(a) setting up a new undertaking within a firm'sgroup, or a new branch (whether in the United Kingdom or overseas); or (b) commencing the provision of cross border services into a new territory; or(c) commencing
SUP 15.3.22DRP
3SUP 15.3.23 D to SUP 15.3.25 D are given in relation to the exercise of the powers of the Society and of the Council generally, with a view to achieving the objective of enabling the FCA11 to:3535(1) comply with its general duty under section 314 of the Act (Regulators’35 general duty);35(2) determine whether underwriting agents, or approved persons acting for them or on their behalf, are complying with the requirements imposed on them by or under the Act;(3) enforce the provisions
SUP 11.2.4GRP
As part of the appropriate regulator's6 function of monitoring a firm's continuing satisfaction of the threshold conditions, the appropriate regulator6 needs to consider the impact of any significant change in the circumstances of one or more of its controllers, for example, in their financial standing and, in respect of corporate controllers, in their governing bodies. Consequently, the appropriate regulator6 needs to know if there are any such changes. SUP 11.8 therefore requires
SUP 10C.1.5GRP
(1) 2SUP 10C.1.4R reflects the provisions of section 59(8) of the Act and, where relevant, the Treaty.(2) It preserves the principle of Home State prudential regulation. (3) For an EEA relevant authorised person, the effect is to reserve to the Home State regulator the assessment of fitness and propriety of a person performing a function in the exercise of an EEA right. A member of the governing body, or the notified3UKbranchmanager, of an EEA relevant authorised person, acting
SYSC 14.1.28GRP
The precise role and organisation of internal controls can vary from firm to firm. However, a firm'sinternal controls should normally be concerned with assisting its governing body and relevant senior managers to participate in ensuring that it meets the following objectives:(1) safeguarding both the assets of the firm and its customers, as well as identifying and managing liabilities;(2) maintaining the efficiency and effectiveness of its operations;(3) ensuring the reliability
SYSC 4.2.3GRP
In the case of a body corporate, the persons referred to in SYSC 4.2.2 R should either be executive directors or persons granted executive powers by, and reporting immediately to, the governing body. In the case of a partnership, they should be active partners.
REC 2.16.4GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body's arrangements for the investigation of complaints include appropriate arrangements for the complaint to be fairly and impartially investigated by an independent person (a "complaints investigator"), the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) the arrangements made for appointing (and removing) a complaints investigator, including the terms and conditions of such an appointment and the provision for remuneration of a complaints investigator; (2)
CASS 6.2.14RRP
6Where a firm divests itself of a client'ssafe custody asset under CASS 6.2.10 R, it must comply with either (1)(a) or (1)(b) and, in either case, (2).(1) (a) The firm must unconditionally undertake to pay to the client concerned a sum equal to the value of the safe custody asset at the time it was liquidated or paid away in the event of the client seeking to claim the safe custody asset in future.(b) The firm must ensure that an unconditional undertaking in the terms set out
SUP 10C.9.9GRP

Table: Examples of how the need for dual FCA and PRA approval in relation to PRA-authorised persons is reduced

1Example

Whether FCA approval required

Whether PRA approval required

Comments

(1) A is appointed as chief risk officer and an executive director.

No. He is not treated as performing the executive director function.

Yes

Chief risk officer is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA-designated senior management function. To avoid the need for FCA approval, A’s appointment as director should not take effect before PRA approval for the chief risk officer role.

(2) Same as example (1), except that A will take up the role as an executive director slightly later because the approval is needed from the firm's shareholders or governing body.

No

Yes

The answer for (1) applies. The arrangements in this section apply if the application to the PRA says that A will start to perform the potential FCA governing function around the time of the PRA approval as well as at that time.

(3) Same as example (1) but the application to the PRA does not mention that it is also intended that A is to be an executive director.

Yes, to perform the executive director function.

Yes

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply if the application for PRA approval does not say that A will also be performing what would otherwise be an FCA governing function.

(4) A is to be appointed as chief executive and an executive director.

No. A is not treated as performing the executive director function.

Yes

Being a chief executive is a PRA-designated senior management function. A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function.

(5) A is appointed as chief risk officer. Later, A is appointed as an executive director while carrying on as chief risk officer.

Yes, when A takes up the director role. The executive director function applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because, when the firm applied for approval for A to perform the PRA chief risk officer designated senior management function, there was no plan for A also to perform the executive director function.

(6) A is appointed as an executive director. Later, A takes on the chief risk officer function and remains as an executive director.

Yes, when A is appointed as director. The executive director function applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

When A is appointed as chief risk officer, A is still treated as carrying on the executive director function. A retains the status of an FCA-approved person.

(7) A is appointed as chief risk officer. A then stops performing that role and for a while does not perform any controlled function for that firm. Later, A is appointed as an executive director with the same firm.

Yes, when A is appointed as an executive director. The executive director function applies.

Yes, when A takes up the chief risk officer role.

SUP 10C.9.8R does not apply because there is no current PRA approval when A is being appointed as a director.

(8) A is appointed as an executive director and chief risk officer at the same time. Later, A gives up the role as chief risk officer but remains as an executive director.

No, on A’s first appointment (see example (1)). But when A gives up the role as chief risk officer, FCA approval is needed to perform the executive director function.

Form E should be used. The application should state that it is being made as a result of A ceasing to perform a PRA-designated senior management function.

Form A should be used if there have been changes in A’s fitness (SUP 10C.10.9D(4))

Yes, on A’s first appointment.

When A stops being a chief risk officer, A stops performing a PRA-designated senior management function. However, being an executive director requires FCA approval. A does not have that approval because A did not need it when A was first appointed.

The combined effect of SUP 10C.9.8R and the relevant PRA rules is that the firm has three months to secure approval by the FCA. During that interim period, A keeps the status of a PRA approved person performing the director element of the PRA chief risk designated senior management function - which is included in that function under relevant PRA rules. The relevant PRA rules say that, during this transitional period, A is still treated as performing the PRA chief risk designated senior management function and SUP 10C.9.8R says that, for as long as A is performing a PRA-designated senior management function, A does not perform the executive director function.

(9) A is appointed as the chief finance officer and an executive director at the same time. Later, A switches to being chief risk officer while remaining as an executive director.

No

Yes

The arrangements in SUP 10C.9.8R continue to apply, even though A switches between PRA-designated senior management function after the PRA's first approval.

(10) A is appointed chief risk officer and an executive director. A goes on temporary sick leave. A takes up his old job when he comes back.

No, neither on A’s first appointment nor when A comes back from sick leave.

Yes

SUP 10C.9.8R still applies on A’s return because A does not stop performing either the PRA's chief risk function or what would otherwise have been the executive director function just because A goes on temporary sick leave.

(11) A is appointed to be chairman of the governing body and chairman of the nomination committee at the same time.

No. A does not need approval to perform the chair of the nomination committee function.

Yes, on first appointment.

Being chairman of the governing body is a PRA-designated senior management function. Therefore, the answer for example (1) applies.

2(12) ‘A’ is to be appointed to perform the Head of Overseas Branch PRA-designated senior management function (SMF19) for a third-country relevant authorised person. A is also an executive director of that firm’sUKbranch.

No. A is not treated as performing the executive3director function.

Yes

A’s functions as a director will be included in the PRA controlled function.

Note: The relevant PRA rules can be found in Chapter 2 of the part of the PRA rulebook called ‘Senior Management Functions’
CASS 10.1.14RRP
The individual to whom responsibility for CASS operational oversight has been allocated under CASS 1A.3.1 R, CASS 1A.3.1A R1 or, as the case may be, CASS 1A.3.1CR (2)1, must report at least annually to the firm'sgoverning body in respect of compliance with the rules in this chapter.
SUP 6.4.13GRP
The relevant regulator24 may also require a resolution from the firm's governing body, for example to support the application for cancellation of permission, expressed to be irrevocable, and to give the signatory the authority to sign the formal report to the relevant regulator.242424
SYSC 5.1.8GRP
The effective segregation of duties is an important element in the internal controls of a firm in the prudential context. In particular, it helps to ensure that no one individual is completely free to commit a firm's assets or incur liabilities on its behalf. Segregation can also help to ensure that a firm'sgoverning body receives objective and accurate information on financial performance, the risks faced by the firm and the adequacy of its systems.
BIPRU 12.8.29GRP
The appropriate regulator also anticipates that a whole-firm liquidity modification would be made subject to a number of ongoing conditions and requirements. These are likely to include:(1) the appropriate regulator receiving annual confirmation from the Home State regulator or third country competent authority that it remains satisfied with the arrangements in respect of that firm for liquidity supervision and their operation;(2) an annual meeting with the Home State regulator
DISP 4.2.8RRP
None of the following is to be liable in damages for anything done or omitted to be done in the discharge (or purported discharge) of any functions in connection with the Voluntary Jurisdiction:318(1) FOS Ltd;(2) any member of its governing body;(3) any member of its staff;(4) any person acting as an Ombudsman for the purposes of the Financial Ombudsman Service;except where:(5) the act or omission is shown to have been in bad faith; or(6) it would prevent an award of damages being
SYSC 20.2.3RRP
The design and results of a firm's reverse stress test must be documented and reviewed and approved at least annually by the firm's senior management or governing body. A firm must update its reverse stress test more frequently if it is appropriate to do so in the light of substantial changes in the market or in macroeconomic conditions.
MCOB 13.3.1RRP
(1) A firm must deal fairly with any customer who:(a) has a payment shortfall4 on a regulated mortgage contract or home purchase plan;141(b) has a sale shortfall; or11(c) is otherwise in breach of a home purchase plan.(2) A firm must put in place, and operate in accordance with, a written policy (agreed by its respective governing body) and procedures for complying with (1). Such policy and procedures must reflect the requirements of MCOB 13.3.2A R and MCOB 13.3.4A R.3
BIPRU 2.1.21RRP
The firm must hold more than 75% of the voting rights attaching to the shares in the capital of the subsidiary undertaking referred to in BIPRU 2.1.19 R and must have the right to appoint or remove a majority of the members of the governing body of the subsidiary undertaking.
DISP 1.11.13RRP
The Society must establish and maintain appropriate and effective arrangements for handling any complaint from a member or a former member about:(1) regulated activities carried on by the Society;(2) the Society'sregulatory functions carried on by the Society, the Council or those to whom the Council delegates authority to carry out such functions;(3) advice given by an underwriting agent to a person to become, continue or cease to be, a member of a particular syndicate; and(4)