Related provisions for FEES 13.2.10
21 - 40 of 616 items.
(1) A firm must make any notifications required pursuant to section 64C of the Act relating to conduct rules staff other than SMF managers4in accordance with SUP 15.11.13R to SUP 15.11.15R.3(2) That notification must be made annually.3(3) Each notification must:3(a) cover the 12 month period ending on the last day of August; and3(b) be submitted to the FCA:3(i) within two months of the end of the reporting period; or3(ii) (if the end of the reporting period in (b)(i) falls on
(1) A notification claiming exemption under DISP 1.1.12 R from the complaints reporting rules and the rules relating to the funding of the Financial Ombudsman Service must be given to the
FCA
by the Society on behalf of any member eligible for an exemption. (2) The Society must notify the
FCA
if the conditions relating to such an exemption no longer apply to a member who is exempt.
Members will individually comply with this chapter if and only if all complaints by policyholders against members are dealt with under the Lloyd's complaints procedures. Accordingly, certain of the obligations under this chapter, for example the obligation to report on complaints received and the obligation to pay fees under the rules relating to the funding of the Financial Ombudsman Service (FEES 5), must be complied with by the Society on behalf of members. Managing agents
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct that would be in breach of rule 1.(1) Misleading (or attempting to mislead) by act or omission:(a) a client; or(b) the firm for whom the person works (or its auditors); or(c) the FCA or;(d) the PRA.(2) Falsifying documents.(3) Misleading a client about:(a) the risks of an investment;(b) the charges or surrender penalties of products;(c) the likely performance of products by providing inappropriate projections of future
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct by any conduct rules staff that would be in breach of rule 2.(1) Failing to inform:(a) a customer; or(b) their firm (or its auditors);of material information in circumstances where the member of conduct rules staff was aware, or ought to have been aware, of such information, and of the fact that they should provide it, including the following:(i) failing to explain the risks of an investment to a customer;(ii) failing
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct by a manager that would be in breach of rule 2.(1) Failing to take reasonable steps to ensure that the business of the firm for which the manager has responsibility:(a) is controlled effectively;(b) complies with the relevant requirements and standards of the regulatory system applicable to that area of the business; and(c) is conducted in such a way to ensure that any delegation of responsibilities is to an appropriate
3Rule 2 in COCON 2.1.3R applies to a director (whether executive or non-executive) when taking part in the activities of the Board, other governing body or of its committees. This includes, for example, participating in meetings, preparing papers or other submissions for meetings and reporting to the body or committee.
For the purpose of rule 3 in COCON 2.1.3R, regulators other than the FCA and the PRA are those which have recognised jurisdiction in relation to activities to which COCON applies and have a power to call for information from the firm or from individuals performing certain functions in connection with those regulated activities. This may include an exchange or an overseas regulator.
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct that would be in breach of rule 3.(1) Failing to report promptly in accordance with their firm's internal procedures (or, if none exist, direct to the regulator concerned), information in response to questions from the FCA, the PRA, or both the PRA and the FCA.(2) Failing without good reason to: (a) inform a regulator of information of which the approved person was aware in response to questions from that regulator;
Rule 4 in COCON 2.1.4R applies to all conduct rules staff, regardless of whether that person has direct contact or dealings with customers of the firm. Persons subject to the rules in COCON should consider how their actions (or their failure to act) can affect the interests of customers or result in customers being treated unfairly.
The following is a non-exhaustive list of examples of conduct that would be in breach of rule 4.(1) Failing to inform a customer of material information in circumstances where they were aware, or ought to have been aware, of such information and of the fact that they should provide it, including the following:(a) failing to explain the risks of an investment to a customer;(b) failing to disclose to a customer details of the charges or surrender penalties of investment products;
A general consideration about whether or not a person's conduct complies with the relevant requirements and standards of the market, is whether they, or the firm, comply2 with relevant market codes and exchange rules. Compliance with2 relevant market codes and exchange rules will tend to show compliance with rule 5 in COCON 2.1.5R.2
16For a common platform firm:
- (1)
the MiFID Org Regulation applies, as summarised in SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2G, SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2-AR and SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2-BR; and
- (2)
the rules and guidance apply as set out in the table below:
Subject
Applicable rule or guidance
Adequate policy and procedures
Compliance function
Internal audit
Financial crime
16For a MiFID optional exemption firm and a third country firm:(1) the rules and guidance in this chapter apply to them as if they were rules or as guidance in accordance with SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2CR(1); and(2) those articles of the MiFID Org Regulation in SYSC 1 Annex 1 2.8AR and 3.2CR apply to them as if they were rules or as guidance in accordance with SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2CR(2).
(1) 4Other firms should take account of the compliance function rule (SYSC 6.1.3 R) as if it were guidance (and as if should appeared in that rule16 instead of must) as explained in SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.3 R(1)16. 5(2) Notwithstanding SYSC 6.1.3 R, as it applies under (1), depending on the nature, scale and complexity of its business, it may be appropriate for a firm to have a separate compliance function. Where a firm has a separate compliance function the firm should also take into
A 16management company8 need not comply with SYSC 6.1.4 R (3) or SYSC 6.1.4 R (4) if it is able to demonstrate that in view of the nature, scale and complexity of its business, and the nature and range of financial services and activities,4 the requirements under those rules are not proportionate and that its compliance function continues to be effective.[Note: 16article 10(3) second paragraph of the UCITS implementing Directive]88
(1) 9This rule applies to a common platform firm conducting investment services and activities from a branch in another EEA State.(2) References to the regulatory system in SYSC 6.1.1R, SYSC 6.1.2 R and SYSC 6.1.3 R apply in respect of a firm'sbranch as if regulatory system includes a Host State's requirements under MiFID and the MiFID Org Regulation16 which are applicable to the investment services and activities conducted from the firm'sbranch.[Note: article 16 16of MiFID]
Any rule in the Handbook which has the status letter "E" in the margin or heading:(1) is to be taken also to provide that contravention of the rule does not give rise to any of the consequences provided for by provisions of the Act other than section 138C36 (Evidential provisions); and36(2) incorporates the status letter "E" in the margin or heading as part of the rule.
(1) The rules to which section 138C36 of the Act applies ("evidential provisions") are identified in the Handbook by the status letter "E" in the margin or heading.36(2) Other provisions in the Handbook, although also identified by the status letter "E" in the margin or heading, are actually not rules but provisions in codes and GEN 2.2.3 R does not apply to them.17361313
A general rule (that is a rule made by the FCA18 the general rule making powers36) is to be interpreted as:3636(1) applying to a firm with respect to the carrying on of all regulated activities, except to the extent that a contrary intention appears; and(2) not applying to a firm with respect to the carrying on of unregulated activities, unless and then only to the extent that a contrary intention appears.
(1) This rule applies to Handbook provisions20 where the PRA have made commensurate provisions in the PRA Rulebook. It may affect their application by the FCA to PRA-authorised persons and PRA approved persons20.3616151615(2) Where a Handbook provision (or part of one) goes beyond the FCA's20 powers or regulatory responsibilities, it is to be interpreted as applied20 to the extent of the FCA’s20 powers and regulatory responsibilities only.(3) The extent of a Handbook provision
An example of a rule20 being interpreted as cut back by GEN 2.2.23R is SYSC 6.1.1R, which requires a firm to maintain adequate policies and procedures to ensure compliance with its obligations under the regulatory system; SYSC 6.1.1R should be interpreted as applied by the FCA in respect of a PRA-authorised person’s compliance with regulatory obligations that are the responsibility of the FCA (for example, in respect of a bank maintaining policies and procedures to ensure compliance
The rules on annual financial reports (DTR 4.1) and 3 half-yearly financial reports (DTR 4.2) do not apply to:53333(1) a state;5(2) a regional or local authority of a state5;(3) a public international body of which at least one EEA State is a member;5(4) the European Central Bank;5(5) the European Financial Stability Facility (EFSF) established by the EFSF Framework Agreement and any other mechanism established with the objective of preserving the financial stability of European
The rules on annual financial reports in DTR 4.1 (including DTR 4.1.7R (4)1 and3 half-yearly financial reports (DTR 4.2) do not apply to an issuer that issues exclusively debt securitiesadmitted to trading the denomination per unit of which is at least 100,000 euros2 (or an equivalent amount).[Note: article 8(1)(b) of the TD and article 45(1) of the Audit Directive]11332
The rules on half-yearly financial reports (DTR 4.2) do not apply to a credit institution whose shares are not admitted to trading and which has, in a continuous or repeated manner, only issued debt securities provided that:(1) the total nominal amount of all such debt securities remains below 100,000,000 Euros; and(2) the credit institution has not published a prospectus in accordance with the prospectus directive.[Note: article 8(2) of the TD]
The rules on half-yearly financial reports do not apply to an issuer already existing on 31 December 2003 which exclusively issue debt securities unconditionally and irrevocably guaranteed by the issuer'sHome Member State or by a regional or local authority of that state, on a regulated market.[Note: article 8(3) of the TD]
4An issuer whose registered office is in a non-EEA State5is exempted from the rules on:(1) annual financial reports in DTR 4.1 (other than DTR 4.1.7R (4) which continues to apply); (2) half-yearly financial reports (DTR 4.2); and(3) reports on payments to governments (DTR 4.3A);5if the law of the non-EEA State in question lays down equivalent requirements or the issuer complies with requirements of the law of a non-EEA State that the FCA considers as equivalent.5[Note: article
2(1) The purpose of these rules is to set out the requirements for registered societies and sponsoring bodies to pay periodic and application fees which, together, will provide the funding for the FCA's functions in respect of the registrant-only fee block (Category F). 2(2) This set of rules is in respect of the registration functions relating to registered societies transferred to the FCA by section 50 of the Financial Services Act 2012, other than friendly societies authorised
Most of the detail of the periodic fees which will be payable by registered societies is set out in Annex 1R to these rules, the provisions of which will vary from one financial year to another. Accordingly, a revised Annex 1R will come into force, following consultation, for each financial year. Most of the detail of the application fees which will be payable by registered societies and sponsoring bodies is set out in FEES App 1 Annex 1A, the provisions of which may not change
The application fee payable to register a new society is a tiered fee: the amount payable for registration of a new society is dependent on whether the rules are based on a free draft or on model rules. Further, where model rules are used in the case of the registration of a new society other than a credit union, then the number of amendments made to the model rules will affect the fee. The application fee payable by a sponsoring body for a new set of model rules is a flat f
In these rules:(1) an “R” in the margin or heading indicates that the provision is a rule, which creates binding obligations;(2) a “G” in the margin or heading indicates that the provision is guidance, which is designed to throw light on a particular aspect of these rules, but which is not binding nor an exhaustive description of a person's obligations.
(1) This section contains rules that apply to the person operating the electronic system that facilitates persons becoming lenders and borrowers under P2P agreements, in contrast to CONC 5.2 which applies to the lender.(2) A P2P agreement may also be a credit agreement or a regulated credit agreement in which case applicable provisions of the CCA or CONC will apply to such agreements. The extent to which CCA provisions apply to a lender will depend largely on whether the lender
(1) Before a P2P agreement is made, a firm must undertake an assessment of the creditworthiness of the prospective borrower.(2) A firm carrying out the assessment in (1) must consider: (a) the potential for the commitments under the P2P agreement to adversely impact the prospective borrower's financial situation, taking into account the information of which the firm is aware at the time the P2P agreement is to be made; and (b) the ability of the prospective borrower to make repayments
Where CONC 5.5.3 R applies to a firm, the firm must comply with CONC 5.3.2 R, CONC 5.3.4 R, CONC 5.3.5 R, CONC 5.3.6 R and CONC 5.3.7 R to the same extent as if it were the lender under an agreement to which those rules apply and should take into account the guidance in CONC 5.3 to the same extent, and should also take into account CONC 5.2.3 G and CONC 5.2.4 G treating them as guidance on CONC 5.5.3 R.
Before a P2P agreement is entered into under which a person takes an article in pawn, the firm must:(1) undertake the assessment referred to in CONC 5.2.2R (1) of the prospective borrower; and (2) comply with CONC 5.3.2 R, CONC 5.3.4 R, CONC 5.3.5 R, CONC 5.3.6 R and CONC 5.3.7 R to the same extent as if it were the lender under an agreement to which those rules apply, and should also take into account the guidance in CONC 5.2.3 G and CONC 5.2.4 G and CONC 5.3 to the same extent.
(1) 1This rule applies if, in relation to a P2P agreement: (a) the prospective borrower is an individual;(b) an individual other than the borrower (in this rule referred to as “the guarantor”) is to provide a guarantee or an indemnity (or both); and(c) the firm is required to undertake an assessment of the prospective borrower under CONC 5.5.3R.(2) Before the P2P agreement is made, the firm must undertake an assessment of the potential for the guarantor’s commitments in respect
(1) 1The assessment of the guarantor does not need to be identical to the assessment undertaken in respect of the borrower, but should be sufficient in depth and scope having regard to the potential obligations which might fall on the guarantor.(2) The provision of the guarantee or indemnity (or both), and the assessment of the guarantor under CONC 5.5.7R, does not remove or reduce the obligation on the firm to carry out an assessment of the borrower under CONC 5.5.3R. Firms are
A firm must communicate to the consumer all the contractual terms and conditions and the information referred to in the distance marketing disclosure rules (CONC 2.7.2 R to CONC 2.7.5 R) in a durable medium1. That information must be made available and accessible to the consumer in good time before the consumer is bound by any distance contract or offer.1[Note: regulation 8(1) of SI 2004/2095][Note: articles 4(5) and 5(1) of the Distance Marketing Directive]
In the case of a distance contract comprising an initial service agreement, followed by successive operations or a series of separate operations of the same nature performed over time, the rules in this chapter only apply to the initial agreement.[Note: regulation 5(1) of SI 2004/2095][Note: article 1(2) of the Distance Marketing Directive]
(1) If there is no initial service agreement but the successive or separate operations of the same nature performed over time are performed between the same contractual parties, the distance marketing disclosure rules (CONC 2.7.2 R to CONC 2.7.5 R) will only apply:(a) when the first operation is performed; and(b) if no operation of the same nature is performed for more than a year, when the next operation is performed (the next operation being deemed the first in a new series
(1) A firm must not enforce, or seek to enforce, any obligations under a distance contract against a consumer in the event of an unsolicited supply of services. The absence of a reply does not constitute consent.(2) This rule does not apply to the tacit renewal of a distance contract.[Note: regulation 15 of SI 2004/2095][Note: article 9 of the Distance Marketing Directive]
If a firm proposes to enter into a distance contract with a consumer that will be governed by the law of a country outside the EEA, the firm must ensure that the consumer will not lose the protection created by the rules in this section if the distance contract has a close link with the territory of one or more EEA States.[Note: regulation 16(3) of SI 2004/2095][Note: articles 12 and 16 of the Distance Marketing Directive]
Table: To whom does COCON apply? 9
9Persons to whom COCON applies |
Comments9 |
(1) An SMF manager.9 |
|
(2) An employee (“P”) of a relevant authorised person who:9 (a) performs the function of an SMF manager;9 (b) is not an approved person to perform the function in question; and9 (c) is required to be an approved person at the time P performs that function.9 |
|
(3) An employee of a relevant authorised person who would be an SMF manager but for SUP 10C.3.13R (The 12-week rule). 9 |
|
(4) A certification employee employed by a relevant authorised person.9 |
This applies even if the certification employee has not been notified that COCON applies to them or notified of the rules that apply to them.9 |
(5) An employee of a relevant authorised person who would be a certification employee but for SYSC 5.2.27R(1) (Scope: emergency appointments) or SYSC 5.2.28AR (Scope: temporary UK role). 9 |
|
(6) Any employee of a relevant authorised person not coming within another row of this table, except one listed in column (2). 9 |
This row does not apply to an employee of a relevant authorised person who only performs functions falling within the scope of the following roles:9 (a) receptionists; (b) switchboard operators; (c) post room staff; (d) reprographics/print room staff; (e) property/facilities management; (f) events management; (g) security guards; (h) invoice processing; (i) audio visual technicians; (j) vending machine staff; (k) medical staff; (l) archive records management; (m) drivers; (n) corporate social responsibility staff; (o) data controllers or processors under the Data Protection Act 1998; (p) cleaners; (q) catering staff; (r) personal assistant or secretary; (s) information technology support (ie, helpdesk); and (t) human resources administrators /processors. |
(7) An FCA-approved person or PRA-approved person approved to perform a controlled function in a Solvency II firm or a small non-directive insurer. 9 |
This row does not apply to approved persons approved to perform a controlled function in SUP 10A.1.15R to SUP 10A.1.16BR (appointed representatives).9 |
(8) A standard non-executive director of:9 (a) a relevant authorised person; 9 (b) a Solvency II firm; or 9 |
This row only applies to a UK domestic firm.9 |
Note: In accordance with the Glossary, Solvency II firm includes a large non-directive insurer.9 |
|
(1) Rules SC1 to SC4 in COCON 2.2 apply to all senior conduct rules staff members (subject to (2)).9(2) SC1 to SC3 in COCON 2.2 do not apply to a standard non-executive director unless, as well as being a standard non-executive director, they also fall into one of the other categories of senior conduct rules staff member.9
(1) COCON applies to the conduct of 6conduct rules staff set out in (2) 6wherever it is performed.(2) 6This rule applies to:(a) a senior conduct rules staff member; and(b) a certification employee performing FCA-specified significant-harm function (7) (material risk takers) in the table in SYSC 5.2.30R for a UK relevant authorised person.
(1) This rule applies to members of a firm’sconduct rules staff apart from conduct rules staff in COCON 1.1.9R. 6522(2) Subject to (3), COCON only applies to the conduct of persons to whom this rule applies (as set out in (1)) if that conduct:6(a) 6is performed from an establishment maintained in the United Kingdom by:(i) (for a relevant authorised person) that person’semployer; or(ii) (for a Solvency II firm or a small non-directive insurer8) the firm in relation to whom that
5
For an EEA MiFID investment firm, in our view, rules in this chapter that are within the scope of MiFID apply only to its MiFID business to the exSUP 12 Annex 3Rtent they relate to the knowledge and competence of one or more of its UK tied agents. An EEA MiFID investment firm should complete the Appointed representative appointment form in when appointing a UK tied agent to carry on MiFID business on its behalf.
[Note: article 29(3) of MiFID]
5
In addition to those rules in SUP 12 relating to the MiFID business of appointed representatives and tied agents, there are other MiFID obligations in the Handbook relevant to the knowledge and competence of tied agents and related compliance obligations (see SYSC 5.1, TC and FIT (in respect of appointed representatives that are approved persons)). These provisions are subject to the territorial application requirements in their respective chapters.
The chapter also sets out the FCA'srules, and guidance on these rules, that apply to a firm before it appoints, when it appoints and when it has appointed an appointed representative. The main purpose of these rules is to place responsibility on a firm for seeking to ensure that: (1) its appointed representatives are fit and proper to deal with clients in its name; and (2) clients dealing with its appointed representatives are afforded the same level of protection as if they had
2This chapter also sets out:5(1) guidance about section 39A of the Act, which is relevant to a UK MiFID investment firm that is considering appointing an FCA registered tied agent; and5(2) the FCA’s rules, and guidance on those rules, in relation to the appointment of:5(a) an EEA tied agent by a UK MiFID investment firm;5(b) a MiFID optional exemption appointed representative; and5(c) a structured deposit appointed representative.5
9For a common platform firm:
- (1)
the MiFID Org Regulation applies, as summarised in SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2G, SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2-AR and SYSC 1 Annex 1 3.2-BR; and
- (2)
the rules and guidance in the table below apply:
Subject
Applicable rule or guidance
Provision of services
Identifying conflicts
Types of conflicts
Managing conflicts
Conflicts policy
(1) If arrangements made by a firm under SYSC 10.1.7 R9 are not sufficient to ensure, with reasonable confidence, that risks of damage to the interests of a client will be prevented, the firm must clearly disclose the following9 to the client before undertaking business for the client:93(a) the general nature or sources of conflicts of interest, or both; and9(b) the steps taken to mitigate those risks.9(2) The disclosure must:(a) be made in a durable medium; 9(b) clearly state
3The rules relating to:(1) types of conflict (see SYSC 10.1.4 R);(2) records of conflicts (see SYSC 10.1.6 R); and(3) conflicts of interest policies (see SYSC 10.1.10 R and SYSC 10.1.11 R);also apply to a firm which is not a common platform firm when it produces, or arranges for the production of, investment research that is intended or likely to be subsequently disseminated to clients of the firm or to the public10, and when it produces or disseminates non-independent research,10
5For a management company, references to client in SYSC 10.1.4 R and in the other rules in this section should be construed as referring to any UCITS scheme or EEA UCITS scheme managed by that firm or which it intends to manage, and with or for the benefit of which the relevant activity is to be carried on.
UK RIEs1which, under their rules, have market contracts are required to have default rules enabling them (among other things) to take action in relation to a member who appears to be unable to meet his obligations in respect of one or more unsettled market contracts. The detailed recognition requirements relating to the default rules are set out in REC 2.17. 1
The default rules are designed to ensure that rights and liabilities between the defaulter and any counterparty to an unsettled market contract are discharged, and for there to be paid between the defaulter and each counterparty one net sum. The Companies Act 1989 contains provisions which protect action taken under default rules from the normal operation of insolvency law which might otherwise leave this action open to challenge by a relevant office-holder.
The Companies Act 1989 also gives the FCA1 powers to supervise the taking of action under default rules. Under section 166 of the Companies Act 1989 (Powers of the appropriate regulator1 to give directions) (see REC 4.5.4 G), the FCA1 may direct a UK RIE1to take, or not to take, action under its default rules. Before exercising these powers the FCA1 must consult the UK RIE.1 The FCA1 may also exercise these powers if a relevant office-holder applies to it under section 167 of
The Companies Act 1989: section 166
The FCA1 may issue a "positive" direction (to take action) under section 166(2)(a) of the Companies Act 1989: 1 |
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Where in any case a [UK RIE] has not taken action under its default rules- if it appears to [the FCA] that it could take action, [the FCA may direct it to do so,1 1 |
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but under section 166(3)(a) of the Companies Act 1989: |
|
Before giving such a direction the [FCA] shall consult the [UK RIE] in question; and [the FCA] shall not give a direction unless [the FCA] is satisfied, in the light of that consultation that failure to take action would involve undue risk to investors or other participants in the market, or that the direction is necessary having regard to the public interest in the financial stability of the United Kingdom, or that the direction is necessary to facilitate a proposed or possible use of a power under Part 1 of the Banking Act 2009 or in connection with a particular exercise of a power under that Part.1 1 |
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The FCA1 may issue a "negative" direction (not to take action) under section 166(2)(b) of the Companies Act 1989: 1 |
|
Where in any case a [UK RIE] has not taken action under its default rules - if it appears to the [FCA] that it is proposing to take or may take action, [the FCA] may direct it not to do so.1 1 |
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but under section 166(3)(b) of the Companies Act 1989: |
|
Before giving such a direction the [FCA] shall consult the [UK RIE] in question; and the [FCA] shall not give a direction unless [the FCA] is satisfied, in the light of that consultation that the taking of action would be premature or otherwise undesirable in the interests of investors or other participants in the market, or that the direction is necessary having regard to the public interest in the financial stability of the United Kingdom, or that the direction is necessary to facilitate a proposed or possible use of a power under Part 1 of the Banking Act 2009 or in connection with a particular exercise of a power under that Part.1 1 |
|
Under section 166(7) of the Companies Act 1989, where a UK RIE has taken action either of its own accord or in response to a direction, the FCA may direct it to do or not to do specific things subject to these being within the powers of the UK RIE under its default rules. However,11(1) 1where the UK RIE is acting in accordance with a direction given by the FCA to take action under section 166(2)(a) of the Act on the basis that failure to take action would involve undue risk to
Where, in relation to a member (or designated non-member) of a UK RIE :1(1) a bankruptcy order; or(2) an award of sequestration of his estate; or(3) an order appointing an interim receiver of his property; or(4) an administration or winding-up order; or(5) a resolution for a voluntary winding-up; or(6) an order appointing a provisional liquidator; has been made or passed and the UK RIE1 has not taken action under its default rules as a result of this event or of the matters giving
The procedure is that the FCA1 must notify the UK recognised body of the application and, unless within three business days after receipt of that notice, the UK recognised body: 1(1) takes action under its default rules; or(2) notifies the FCA1 that it proposes to take action forthwith; or1(3) is directed to take action by the FCA1 under section 166(2)(a) of the Companies Act 1989; 1the provisions of sections 158 to 165 of the Companies Act 1989 do not apply in relation to market
An actuary appointed under firms PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,6 must take reasonable steps to satisfy himself that he is free from bias, or from any conflict of interest from which bias may reasonably be inferred. He must take appropriate action where this is not the case.225
(1) Actuaries appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 6,6 are subject to regulations5 made by the Treasury under sections 342(5) and 343(5) of the Act (Information given by auditor or actuary to a regulator7). Section 343 and the regulations also apply to an actuary of an authorised person in his capacity as an actuary of a person with close links with the authorised person.47(2)
An actuary2 who has ceased to be appointed under PRA rules made under section 340 of the Act, or for the purposes of PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, 66 or who has been formally notified that he will cease to be so 2appointed, must notify the appropriate regulator5 without delay:222525(1) of any matter connected with the cessation which he thinks ought to be drawn to the appropriate regulator's attention; or(2) that there is no such matter.
Where an ROIE1 has notice that any licence, permission or authorisation which it requires to conduct any regulated activity in its home territory has been or is about to be:1(1) revoked; or(2) modified in any way which would materially restrict the ROIE1 in performing any regulated activity in its home territory or in the United Kingdom;1it must immediately notify the FCA1 of that fact and must give the FCA1 the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 6.7.9
(1) A firm's risk management and compliance functions should have appropriate input into setting the remuneration policy for other business areas. The procedures for setting remuneration should allow risk and compliance functions to have significant input into the setting of individual remuneration awards where those functions have concerns about the behaviour of the individuals concerned or the riskiness of the business undertaken.(2) Contravention of (1) may be relied on as
(1) Taking account of the remuneration principles proportionality rule, the appropriate regulator8 does not generally consider it necessary for a firm to apply the rules referred to in (2) where, in relation to an individual ("X"), both the following conditions are satisfied:8(a) Condition 1 is that Xs variable remuneration is no more than 33% of total remuneration; and(b) Condition 2 is that Xs total remuneration is no more than 500,000.(2) The rules referred to in (1) are those
(1) A firm must ensure that a substantial portion, which is at least 50%, of any variable remuneration consists of an appropriate balance of:(a) shares or equivalent ownership interests, subject to the legal structure of the firm concerned, or share-linked instruments or equivalent non-cash instruments in the case of a non-listed firm; and(b) 3where possible other instruments which are eligible as Additional Tier 1 instruments or are eligible as Tier 2 instruments or other instruments
(1) A firm should reduce unvested deferred variable remuneration when, as a minimum:(a) there is reasonable evidence of employee misbehaviour or material error; or(b) the firm or the relevant business unit suffers a material downturn in its financial performance; or(c) the firm or the relevant business unit suffers a material failure of risk management.(2) For performance adjustment purposes, awards of deferred variable remuneration made in shares or other non-cash instruments
(1) Subject to (1A) to (3), the rules1 in SYSC 19A Annex 1.1R to 1.4R1 apply in relation to the prohibitions on Remuneration Code staff being remunerated in the ways specified in:11(a) SYSC 19A.3.40 R (guaranteed variable remuneration);(b) SYSC 19A.3.49 R (6deferred variable remuneration); and(c) (replacing payments recovered or property transferred).(1A) Paragraph (1) applies only to those prohibitions as they apply in relation to a firm that satisfies at least one of the conditions
(1) Sections 137H and 137I of the Act enables the FCA6 to make rules that render void any provision of an agreement that contravenes specified prohibitions in the Remuneration Code, and that provide for the recovery of any payment made, or other property transferred, in pursuance of such a provision. SYSC 19A.3.53A R and1SYSC 19A.3.54 R (together with SYSC 19A Annex 1) are such rules1 and render1 void provisions of an agreement that contravene the specified prohibitions on guaranteed
In accordance with rule SC 2 in COCON 2.2.1R5, it is the responsibility of each individual member of the governing body5 who is a senior conduct rules staff member5to understand, and ensure that the credit union complies with, the requirements of all the relevant Acts, secondary legislation and rules.
SYSC 9.1.1 R requires that a credit union takes reasonable care to make and retain adequate records of all matters governed by the Act or the CCA, 4 secondary legislation under the Act or the CCA, 4 or rules (including accounting records). These records should be capable of being reproduced in the English language and on paper.
The purposes of an internal audit are:(1) to ensure that the policies and procedures of the credit union are followed;(2) to provide the governing body5 with a continuous appraisal of the overall effectiveness of the control systems, including proposed changes;(3) to recommend improvements where desirable or necessary;(4) to determine whether the internal controls established by the governing body5 are being maintained properly and operated as laid down in the policy, and comply
The internal audit work programme should include items such as:(1) verification of cash (counting and reconciliation) without prior notification;(2) bank reconciliation (checking records against bank statements);(3) verification of passbooks or account statements;(4) checking for compliance with policies and procedures;(5) checking for compliance with relevant Acts, secondary legislation and rules;(6) checking minutes and reports of the governing body5 and other sub-committees
(1) 1The general application rule in ICOBS 1.1.1 R applies to this section subject to the modifications in (2).(2) This section applies to:(a) any firm solely with respect to the activities of:(i) carrying out contracts of insurance; or(ii) managing the underwriting capacity of a Lloyd's syndicate as a managing agent at Lloyd's;in relation to general insurance contracts and, in either case, including business accepted under reinsurance to close;(b) all incoming EEA firms or incoming
2A firm with potential liability under an excess policy and which satisfies the requirements in ICOBS 8 Annex 1 1.1B R must notify the FCA before the date upon which it first seeks to rely upon that rule and ensure that the requirements of ICOBS 8.4.6R (2) are satisfied in respect of this notification.
The conditions referred to in ICOBS 8.4.4R (2)(d) and ICOBS 8.4.7R (1)(a)(ii) are that the tracing office is one which:(1) maintains a database which:(a) accurately and reliably stores information submitted to it by firms for the purposes of complying with these rules;(b) has systems which can adequately keep it up to date in the light of new information provided by firms;(c) has an effective search function which allows a person inputting data included on the database relating
(1) ICOBS 8.4.4R (2)(b) and ICOBS 8.4.9R (1) require a firm, or a tracing office used by a firm, to have an effective search function in relation to the employers’ liability register database. In the FCA's view an effective search function is one which finds all matches in the register to any specified whole word.(2) For the purposes of ICOBS 8.4.9R (5) the term ‘without delay’ should have the same meaning as in ICOBS 8.4.5G (2). (3) In order to assist firms with their obligations
(1) A firm must notify the FCA:(a) of any information provided to the FCA under ICOBS 8.4.6 R or ICOBS 8.4.6A R2 which ceases to be true or accurate; and(b) of the new position, in accordance with the notification requirements in ICOBS 8.4.6 R;within one month of the change.(2) A firm producing an employers’ liability register must:(a) update the register with any new or more accurate information falling within ICOBS 8 Annex 1:(i) by virtue of the entry into or renewal of, or
(1) 3When a firm receives a request under ICOBS 8.4.14 R, from a qualifying tracing office, it must provide a response, in writing, to the requestor within one month of receiving the request.(2) This rule does not apply when the firm has conducted a search but no historical policies have been found.(3) When a firm receives a request under ICOBS 8.4.14 R, other than from a qualifying tracing office, it must provide a response, in writing, to the requestor within two months of receiving
(1) 3Where a firm has established that a historical policy does exist, the response should confirm what cover was provided and set out any available information that is relevant to the request received.(2) Where there is evidence to suggest that a historical policy does exist, but the firm is unable to confirm what cover was provided, the response should set out any information relevant to the request and describe the next steps (if any) the firm will take to continue the search.
(1) 1This section applies to the authorised fund manager and the depositary of a non-UCITS retail scheme operating as a FAIF and to an ICVC which is a non-UCITS retail scheme operating as a FAIF.(2) Where this section refers to:(a) a rule or guidance in COLL 5.1 to COLL 5.6, these rules and guidance, and any rules and guidance to which they refer, must be read as if a reference to a UCITS scheme or non-UCITS retail scheme were a reference to a non-UCITS retail scheme operating
(1) This section contains rules on the types of permitted investments and any relevant limits with which non-UCITS retail schemes operating as FAIFs must comply. These rules allow for the relaxation of certain investment and borrowing powers from the requirements for non-UCITS retail schemes under COLL 5.6 .(2) One example2 of the different investment and borrowing powers under the rules in this section for non-UCITS retail schemes operating as FAIFs is the power to invest up
The following rules and guidance in COLL 5.6 (Investment powers and borrowing limits for non-UCITS retail schemes) apply to the authorised fund manager and the depositary of a non-UCITS retail scheme operating as a FAIF and to an ICVC which is a non-UCITS retail scheme operating as a FAIF:(1) COLL 5.6.3 R;(2) COLL 5.6.5 R to 5.6.6 R;(3) COLL 5.6.8 R to 5.6.9 R; and(4) COLL 5.6.11 R to 5.6.24 R.
(1) The scheme property of a non-UCITS retail scheme operating as a FAIF may, subject to the rules in this section, comprise any assets or investments to which it is dedicated.(2) For an ICVC, the scheme property may also include movable or immovable property that is necessary for the direct pursuit of the ICVC's business of investing in those assets or investments.(3) The scheme property must be invested only in accordance with the relevant provisions in this section that are
(1) This rule does not apply in respect of a transferable security or an approved money-market instrument to which COLL 5.6.8R (Spread: government and public securities) applies5.(2) Not more than 20% in value of the scheme property is to consist of deposits with a single body.(3) Not more than 10% in value of the scheme property is to consist of transferable securities or approved money-market instruments issued by any single body subject to COLL 5.6.23 R (Schemes replicating
The authorised fund manager of a non-UCITS retail scheme operating as a FAIF which is a feeder scheme must ensure that:(1) its master scheme; and(2) where its master scheme is itself a feeder scheme, any scheme into which that master scheme invests;operates on a basis that is consistent with the rules in this section notwithstanding any due diligence previously carried out which suggested that those schemes would so operate.
An authorised fund manager carrying out due diligence for the purpose of the rules in this section should make enquiries or otherwise obtain information needed to enable him properly to consider:(1) whether the experience, expertise, qualifications and professional standing of the second scheme's investment manager is adequate for the type and complexity of the second scheme;(2) the adequacy of the regulatory, legal and accounting regimes applicable to the second scheme and its
Where a recognised body is required to give any notice or information under any notification rule, it may do so (unless that rule expressly provides otherwise) orally or in writing, whichever is the more appropriate in the circumstances, but, where it gives notice or information orally, it must confirm that notice or information in writing promptly.
Unless otherwise stated in the notification rule, a written notification required from a recognised body under any notification rule must be:(1) given to, or addressed for the attention of, the recognised body's usual supervisory contact at the FCA;11(2) delivered to the FCA1 by one of the methods in REC 3.2.3 R.1
If a notification rule requires notification within a specified period:(1) the recognised body must give the notification so as to be received by the FCA1 no later than the end of that period; and 1(2) if the end of that period falls on a day which is not a business day, the notification must be given so as to be received by the FCA1 no later than the first business day after the end of that period.1