Related provisions for LR 11.1.1B
121 - 140 of 1118 items.
(1) A firm carrying out contracts of insurance, or a managing agent managing insurance business, including in either case business accepted under reinsurance to close, which includes United Kingdom commercial lines employers' liability insurance, must:(a) produce an employers’ liability register complying with the requirements in (2) and ICOBS 8 Annex 1;(b) obtain and submit to the FCA2 a written statement, by a director of the firm responsible for the production of the employers’
(1) For the purposes of ICOBS 8.4.4R (2)(c) and ICOBS 8.4.4R (2)(d), a firm may put in place appropriate screening on its employers’ liability register to monitor:(a) requests for information and searches to ensure that they are being made for a legitimate purpose by persons falling into one of the categories in ICOBS 8.4.4R (2)(c); and(b) requests from tracing offices to ensure that the information is necessary, and will only be used by the tracing office, for the purposes of
A firm must:(1) notify the FCA, within one month of falling within ICOBS 8.4.1R (2), as to whether or not it, or, if relevant, a member of the syndicates it manages, carries on business falling within ICOBS 8.4.4R (1) and, if it does, include in that notification: (a) details of the internet address of the firm or tracing office at which the employers’ liability register is made available;(b) the name of a contact person at the firm and their telephone number or postal address,
2A firm with potential liability under an excess policy and which satisfies the requirements in ICOBS 8 Annex 1 1.1B R must notify the FCA before the date upon which it first seeks to rely upon that rule and ensure that the requirements of ICOBS 8.4.6R (2) are satisfied in respect of this notification.
(1) A firm must make available:(a) the information on the employers’ liability register either:(i) on the firm's website at the address notified to the FCA in ICOBS 8.4.6R (1); or(ii) by arranging for a tracing office which meets the conditions in ICOBS 8.4.9 R to make the information available on the tracing office’s website; and(b) the latest director's certificate and the latest report prepared by an auditor for the purposes of ICOBS 8.4.4R (1)(c), to a tracing office which
(1) ICOBS 8.4.4R (2)(b) and ICOBS 8.4.9R (1) require a firm, or a tracing office used by a firm, to have an effective search function in relation to the employers’ liability register database. In the FCA's view an effective search function is one which finds all matches in the register to any specified whole word.(2) For the purposes of ICOBS 8.4.9R (5) the term ‘without delay’ should have the same meaning as in ICOBS 8.4.5G (2). (3) In order to assist firms with their obligations
(1) A firm must notify the FCA:(a) of any information provided to the FCA under ICOBS 8.4.6 R or ICOBS 8.4.6A R2 which ceases to be true or accurate; and(b) of the new position, in accordance with the notification requirements in ICOBS 8.4.6 R;within one month of the change.(2) A firm producing an employers’ liability register must:(a) update the register with any new or more accurate information falling within ICOBS 8 Annex 1:(i) by virtue of the entry into or renewal of, or
(1) 3Where a firm has established that a historical policy does exist, the response should confirm what cover was provided and set out any available information that is relevant to the request received.(2) Where there is evidence to suggest that a historical policy does exist, but the firm is unable to confirm what cover was provided, the response should set out any information relevant to the request and describe the next steps (if any) the firm will take to continue the search.
Examples of when the FCA may cancel the listing of securities include (but are not limited to) situations where it appears to the FCA that:(1) the securities are no longer admitted to trading as required by these rules; or(2) the issuer no longer satisfies its continuing obligations for listing, for example if the percentage of shares in public hands falls below 25% or such lower percentage as the FCA may permit (the FCA may however allow a reasonable time to restore the percentage,
Subject to 41LR 5.2.7 R, LR 5.2.10 R, LR 5.2.11A R9 and LR 5.2.12 R, 1an issuer with a premium listing4that wishes the FCA to cancel the listing of any of its 5equity shares1with a premium listing4must:1114(1) send a circular to the holders of the shares.9 The circular must:9(a) comply with the requirements of LR 13.3.1 R and LR 13.3.2 R (contents of all circulars);(b) be submitted to the FCA for approval prior to publication; and(c) include the anticipated date of cancellation
An issuer that wishes the FCA to cancel the listing of listed securities (other than equity shares1with a premium listing41) must notify a RIS, giving at least 20 business days notice of the intended cancellation but is not required to obtain the approval of the holders of those securities contemplated in LR 5.2.5 R (2).1544
6In determining whether the statutory winding up or reconstruction measures in relation to an overseasissuer under equivalent overseas legislation have a similar effect to those set out in LR 5.2.12R (1) to LR 5.2.12R (6), the FCA will in particular have regard to whether those procedures require a court order, the approval of 75% of the shareholders entitled to vote on the resolution, or a formal declaration of the overseasissuer's insolvency or inability to pay its debts.
The word ‘communicate’ is extended under section 21(13) of the Act and includes causing a communication to be made. This means that a person who causes the communication of a financial promotion by another person is also subject to the restriction in section 21. Article 6(d) of the Financial Promotion Order also states that the word ‘communicate’ has the same meaning when used in exemptions in the Order. Article 6(a) also states that the word ‘communication’ has the same meaning
Apart from the originators of a financial promotion, the FCA considers the following persons to be communicating it or causing it to be communicated:(1) publishers and broadcasters who carry advertisements (including websites carrying banner advertisements); and(2) intermediaries who redistribute another person’s communication probably with their own communications.
In the FCA's view, the following persons will not be causing or communicating:(1) advertising agencies and others when they are designing advertising material for originators;(2) persons who print or produce material for others to use as advertisements;(3) professional advisers when they are preparing material for clients or advising them on the need to communicate or the merits or consequences of their communicating a financial promotion; and(4) persons who are responsible for
The FCA considers that, to communicate, a person must take some active step to make the communication. This will be a question of fact in each case. But a person who knowingly leaves copies of a document where it is reasonable to presume that persons will pick up copies and may seek to act on them will be communicating them.
A general point arises about causing and communicating on whether a particular exemption that applies to a communication made by a specified person also applies to a person who is causing that communication to be made. For example, article 551 of the Financial Promotion Order (Communications by members of professions)1 applies only to a communication by an exempt professional firm.1 This exemption may apply where a person ('P') requests an exempt professional firm ('E') to1communicate
Another general point arises about the scope of exemptions that apply only to financial promotions by a particular person. This is whether the exemption applies to the communication of a financial promotion by an unauthorised person on behalf of the person to whom the exemption applies. In the FCA's view, this will not be the case unless the exemption specifically states that it applies to a communication made on behalf of the person identified in the exemption. For example, article
In the FCA's opinion, the matters in PERG 8.6.9 G have the following effects.(1) Any one particular communication will either be real time or non-real time but not both. This is because:(a) a real time communication is one made in the course of an interactive dialogue (see PERG 8.10.2 G for guidance on the meaning of real time);(b) those exemptions which concern real time communications apply only to communications which are made to persons and not those which are directed at
Q. We are a trading venue operator. Can you please clarify how we can provide a data reporting service under the derogation from needing authorisation in article 59(2) of MiFID?A. (1) The derogation (or exception) in article 59(2) of MiFID allows Member States to allow a trading venue operator to provide a data reporting service without prior authorisation, if the operator has verified that they comply with Title V of MiFID.(2) The United Kingdom has adopted this derogation in
Q. How do we go about applying to be an ARM?
A. In summary:
(1) You should complete:(a) all of the questions in the application form at MAR 9 Annex 1D; and(b) the notification form for the list of members of the management body at MAR 9 Annex 2D.(2) You should sign the MIS confidentiality agreement at MAR 9 Annex 10D.(3) You should provide the documents referred to in: (a) (1)(a) and (b) together with supporting documentation to the FCA as set out in MAR 9.2.6D; and(b) (2) to
Q. Does an investment firm need to be authorised as an ARM to send transaction reports to the FCA?
A. No. If you are a MiFID investment firm that wishes to send transaction reports to us to satisfy your own transaction reporting obligations under MiFIR, you do not need to become authorised as an ARM. You are permitted to connect directly to us although there will be a requirement to sign a MIS confidentiality agreement with us, to satisfy connectivity requirements and to undertake
Q. Can any trading venue report transactions for the purposes of article 26 of MiFIR to the FCA using an ARM?
A. Yes. The ability of a trading venue to submit data to an ARM is consistent with the definition of an ARM which enables a trading venue to submit information, on its own behalf, to an ARM. It is also consistent with paragraph 2 of article 9 [Security] of MiFID RTS 13, which enables a third party to submit information to an ARM on behalf of others. More generally, it
Q. Can a group of investment firms aggregate their reporting via an internal hub?
A. Yes. A group of investment firms may use a hub to assist with aggregating transaction reporting data for each legal entity that is an investment firm in the group for the purposes of article 26 of MiFIR provided that the hub is either an ARM or the hub uses an ARM to report the transaction data to the FCA. Paragraph 2 of article 9 [Security] of MiFID RTS 13 confirms that an investment firm (‘reporting
Q. I intend to apply to be authorised to provide the data reporting service of an APA. May I establish connectivity requirements while my application for authorisation is being considered?A. Yes. The MIS confidentiality agreement is available on our website at www.fca.org.uk/markets/market-data-regimes/market-data-reporting-mdp together with instructions on how to obtain the Market Interface Specification (MIS) for connectivity.
A UK firm17 or an AIFM exercising an EEA right to market an AIF under AIFMD13,9 cannot start providing cross border services into another EEA State under an EEA right unless it satisfies the conditions in paragraphs 20(1) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act and, if it derives its EEA right from17AIFMD, MiFID or the UCITS Directive,13paragraph 20(4B) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act. If a UK firm derives its EEA right from the MCD, it cannot start providing cross border services
4An exempt professional firm which is included in the record of unauthorised persons carrying on insurance mediation activity maintained by the FCA20 under article 93 of the Regulated Activities Order may provide cross border services in another EEA State under the Insurance Mediation Directive (see PROF 7.2).20
14A UKfirm that is an AIFM may exercise an EEA right to market a UK AIF or EEA AIF managed by it under AIFMD when the following conditions are satisfied:(1) the UKfirm has given the FCA a notice of intentionSUP 13.5.2 R; and(2) the FCA has sent a copy of the notice of intention to the Host State regulator where the AIF will be marketed and has given the UKfirm written notice that it has done so.
8(2) [deleted]17(2A) 8(a) If the UK firm'sEEA right derives from the Insurance Mediation Directive, and the EEA State in which the UK firm is seeking to provide services has notified the European Commission of its wish to be informed of the intention of persons to provide cross border services in its territory in accordance with article 6(2) of that directive, paragraph 20(3B)(a) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the appropriate UK regulator20 to send a copy of the
(1) 14If the UKfirm'sEEA right derives from AIFMD (other than the EEA right to market an AIF (referred to in (3)) and the condition in (2) is met, paragraph 20(3D) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the FCA to:(a) send a copy of the notice of intention to the Host State regulator within one month of receipt; (b) include confirmation that the UKfirm has been authorised by the FCA under AIFMD; and(c) immediately inform the UKfirm that the notice of intention and confirmation
20Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give a consent notice and where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give a consent notice in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
(1) 18A UK MiFID investment firm is required to submit an investment services and activities passport notification to the FCA by completing the form in Annex I of MiFID ITS 4A. The firm should complete a separate form for each EEA State it wishes to provide services into.[Note: article 4(1) of MiFID ITS 4A](2) A UK MiFID investment firm wishing to provide investment services or activities through a tied agent established in the UK is required to send an investment services and
A firm authorised under Part 4A8 of the Act (Permission to carry on regulated activity) has a single Part 4A permission8 granted by the FCA or the PRA. A firm'sPart 4A permission8 specifies all or some of the following elements (see PERG 2 Annex 2 (Regulated activities and the permission regime) and the information online at the FCA and PRA websites):8888338(1) a description of the activities the firm may carry on, including any limitations;(2) the specified investments involved;
8If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission to:(1) add a regulated activity, other than a PRA-regulated activity; or(2) remove a regulated activity from those to which the permission relates; or(3) vary the description of a regulated activity to which the permission relates; or(4) cancel the permission;it can apply to the FCA under section 55H of the Act (Variation by FCA at request of authorised person).
8If an FCA-authorised person wishes to change its Part 4A permission, by adding to the regulated activities to which the permission relates one or more regulated activities, which include a PRA-regulated activity, it can apply to the PRA under section 55I of the Act (Variation by PRA at request of authorised person). The PRA can determine such an application only with the consent of the FCA.
Variation and cancellation of Part 4A permission and imposition, variation and cancellation of requirements. See SUP 6.2.3A G to SUP 6.2.3E G8
8Question |
Variation of Part 4A permission |
Cancellation of Part 4A permission |
Imposition, variation and cancellation of requirements |
What does the application apply to? |
Individual elements of a firm'sPart 4A permission. Variations may involve adding or removing categories of regulated activity or specified investments or varying or removing any limitations in the firm'sPart 4A permission. |
A firm's entire Part 4A permission and not individual elements within it. |
Any requirement imposed on a firm with a Part 4A permission. Requirements may involve requiring the firm concerned to take or refrain from taking a specified action. |
In what circumstances is it usually appropriate to make an application? |
If a firm: 1. wishes to change the regulated activities it carries on in the United Kingdom under a Part 4A permission (SUP 6.3); or 2. has the ultimate intention of ceasing carrying on regulated activities but due to the nature of those regulated activities (for example, accepting deposits, or insurance business) it will require a long term (normally over six months) to wind down (run off) its business (see SUP 6.2.8 G to SUP 6.2.11 G and SUP 6 Annex 4). |
If a firm: 1. has ceased to carry on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part 4A permission (SUP 6.4); or 2. wishes or expects to cease carrying on all of the regulated activities for which it has Part 4A permission in the short term (normally not more than six months). In this case, the firm may apply to cancel its Part 4A permission prior to ceasing the regulated activities (see SUP 6.4.3 G). |
If a firm: 1. wishes to have a new requirement imposed on it; or 2. wishes to vary or cancel an existing requirement imposed by the FCA or PRA (for example, if anything relating to the firm's individual circumstances change and any existing requirement should be varied or cancelled). |
2In certain cases, despite concerns about a person’s behaviour or evidence of a rule
breach, the FCA may decide that it is not appropriate, having regard to all the circumstances of the case, to bring formal action for a financial penalty or public censure. This is consistent with the FCA's risk-based approach to enforcement. In such cases, the FCA may give a private warning to make the person aware that they came close to being subject to formal action.
2Private warnings are a non-statutory tool. Fundamentally they are no different to any other FCA communication which criticises or expresses concern about a person’s conduct. But private warnings are a more serious form of reprimand than would usually be made in the course of ongoing supervisory correspondence. A private warning requires that the FCA identifies and explains its concerns about a person's conduct and/or procedures, and tells the subject of the warning that the FCA
2Typically, the FCA might give a private warning rather than take formal action where the matter giving cause for concern is minor in nature or degree, or where the person has taken full and immediate remedial action. But there can be no exhaustive list of the conduct or the circumstances which are likely to lead to a private warning rather than more serious action. The FCA will take into account all the circumstances of the case before deciding whether a private warning is appropriate.
2Generally, the FCA would expect to use private warnings in the context of firms, approved persons and conduct rules staff1. However, the FCA may also issue private warnings in circumstances where the persons involved may not necessarily be authorised or approved. For example, private warnings may be issued in potential cases of market abuse; cases where the FCA has considered making a prohibition order or a disapplication order; or cases involving breaches of provisions imposed
2In each case, the FCA will consider the likely impact of a private warning on the recipient and whether any risk that person poses to the statutory objectives requires the FCA to take more serious action. Equally, where the FCA gives a private warning to an approved person or conduct rules staff1, the FCA will consider whether it would be desirable and appropriate to inform the person's1firm (or employer, if different) of the conduct giving rise to the warning and the FCA's
2A private warning is not intended to be a determination by the FCA as to whether the recipient has breached the FCA'srules. However, private warnings, together with any comments received in response, will form part of the person's compliance history. In this sense they are no different to other FCA correspondence, but the weight the FCA attaches to a private warning is likely to be greater. They may therefore influence the FCA's decision whether to commence action for a penalty
1The FCA is only able to exercise powers available to it under Parts I and II of RIPA where it is necessary for the purpose of preventing or detecting crime. All RIPA authorisations for the acquisition of communications data, the carrying out of directed surveillance and the use of CHIS must be approved by a Head of Department in the Enforcement Division. Authorisation will only be given where the authorising officer believes that the proposed action is necessary and proportionate
1Under Part III RIPA the FCA is able to require a person who holds “protected” electronic information (that is, information which is encrypted) to put that information into an intelligible form and, where the person has a key to the encrypted information, to require the person to disclose the key so that the data may be put into an intelligible form. The FCA may impose such a requirement where it is necessary for the purpose of preventing or detecting crime or where it is necessary
1RIPA provides for the appointment of Commissioners to oversee the compliance of designated authorities with RIPA requirements, and the establishment of a tribunal with jurisdiction to consider and determine, amongst other things, complaints and referrals about the way in which the FCA and other public bodies use their RIPA powers.
2When the FCA has concerns about the fitness and propriety of an approved person, it may consider whether it should prohibit that person from performing functions in relation to regulated activities, withdraw its approval, or both. In deciding whether to withdraw its approval and/or make a prohibition order, the FCA will consider in each case whether its statutory objectives can be achieved adequately by imposing disciplinary sanctions, for example, public censures or financial
2When the FCA1 decides whether to make a prohibition order against an approved person and/or withdraw their1 approval, the FCA will consider all the relevant circumstances of the case. These may include, but are not limited to those set out below. (1) The matters set out in section 61(2) of the Act.
(2) Whether the individual is fit and proper to perform functions in relation to regulated activities. The criteria for assessing the fitness and propriety of
2The FCA may have regard to the cumulative effect of a number of factors which, when considered in isolation, may not be sufficient to show that the individual is not fit and proper to continue to perform a controlled function or other function in relation to regulated activities. It may also take account of the particular controlled function which an approved person is performing for a firm, the nature and activities of the firm concerned and the markets within which it operates.
2Due to the diverse nature of the activities and functions which the FCA regulates, it is not possible to produce a definitive list of matters which the FCA might take into account when considering whether an individual is not a fit and proper person to perform a particular, or any, function in relation to a particular, or any, firm.
2The following are examples of types of behaviour which have previously resulted in FCA the deciding to issue a prohibition order or withdraw the approval of an approved person:(1) Providing false or misleading information to the FCA; including information relating to identity, ability to work in the United Kingdom, and business arrangements;
(2)
Failure to disclose material considerations on application forms, such as details of County
In the FCA's view, the circumstances in which a person is giving advice on the borrower varying the terms of a regulated mortgage contract so as to vary his obligations under the contract include (but are not limited to) where the advice is about:(1) the borrower obtaining a further advance secured on the same land as the original loan; or(2) a rate switch or a product switch (that is, where the borrower does not change lender but changes the terms for repayment from, say, a variable
In the FCA's view, guiding a person through scripted questions or a decision tree should not, of itself, involve advice within the meaning of article 53A (it should be generic advice). But the combination of advice, which in isolation may properly be considered generic, with the identification of a particular or several particular regulated mortgage contracts may well, in the FCA's view, cause the person to be advising on regulated mortgage contracts; the FCA considers that it
In the FCA's view, advice requires an element of opinion on the part of the adviser which steers or is intended to steer a borrower or potential borrower in the direction of one or more particular mortgages. In effect, it is a recommendation as to a course of action. Information on the other hand, involves objective statements of facts and figures.
In the FCA's opinion, however, such information is likely take on the nature of advice if the circumstances in which it is provided give it the force of a recommendation as described in PERG 4.6.10 G. Examples of situations where information provided by a person ('P') are likely to take the form of advice are given below.(1) P provides information on a selected, rather than balanced and neutral, basis that would tend to influence the decision of the borrower. This may arise where
Undertaking the process of scripted questioning gives rise to particular issues concerning advice. These mainly involve two aspects of this regulated activity. These are that advice must relate to a particular regulated mortgage contract (see PERG 4.6.5 G) and the distinction between information and advice (see PERG 4.6.13 G). Whether or not scripted questioning in any particular case is advising on regulated mortgage contracts will depend on all the circumstances. If the process
The potential for variation in the form, content and manner of scripted questioning is considerable, but there are two broad types. The first type involves providing questions and answers which are confined to factual matters (for example, whether a borrower wishes to pay a fixed or variable rate of interest or the size of deposit available). In the FCA's view, this does not of itself amount to advising on regulated mortgage contracts, as it involves the provision of information
In the scenarios identified inPERG 4.6.23G (3)1 andPERG 4.6.24G (2)1, the FCA considers that it is necessary to look at the process and outcome of scripted questioning as a whole. It may be that the element of advice incorporated in the questioning may properly be viewed as generic advice if it were considered in isolation. But, although the actual advice may be generic, the process has ended in identifying one or more particular regulated mortgage contracts. The combination of
2Further examples of what is and is not regulated advice
This table belongs to PERG 4.6.33 G.
Example of what the firm3 says and does 3 |
Regulated or not? |
(1) The firm says “We have a wide range of mortgages, including fixed and variable rates. Here are some leaflets which set out the main features.” |
No. Leaflets that just explain the terms and conditions of a lender’s products are not advice (see PERG 4.6.15G (1)). Even if the leaflet contains promotional material, merely handing over the leaflet does not mean that the firm is giving advice. |
(2) The firm says “We have a wide range of mortgages, our best rates are two-year fixed rates, you might want to look at those.” |
Yes. The firm has identified specific products that it offers and is steering the customer to those products. Identifying which products have the lowest rates is not advice on its own, only facts. However, “best” involves a value judgment, particularly when a comparison is made with other products that have different periods for which interest is fixed or that have variable interest rates. |
(3) The firm says “In order to provide you with an illustration, I need to know how much you want to borrow, the term and the property value. Which product or products would you like an illustration for?” |
No. The firm is collecting factual information to provide the customer with an illustration of costs. |
(4) The firm says “Based on what you’ve told me I think you would be best to look at two-year fixed rates. Here is some information about our products.” |
Yes. The firm has made a judgment on what type of product is best for the customer and has identified specific products of that type that it offers. |
(5) The firm says “Our fixed rates start at 4.99% for two years with a £900 fee. Our variable rates start at 4.50% with a £800 fee. Depending on how much you want to borrow and your circumstances, this may affect the rate available to you.” |
No. The firm is comparing two products without recommending either, nor is the firm steering the customer to one over the other. |
(6) A lender with just one mortgage product advises a customer to take out that mortgage. The lender makes it clear that it does not give advice about products other than its own. |
Yes. The lender may argue that this is not regulated advice because it is not recommending one product over another as it only has one product itself and does not give advice about the products of other lenders. However, in the FCA's view this is still regulated advice. For advice to be regulated it must be advice on the merits of entering into a particular regulated mortgage contract (or varying one). It is possible to give advice about the merits of a product without comparing that product with another. |
Note: Unless otherwise specified, the firm might be the lender or an advisory or intermediary firm. |
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24Under section 55H(3) of the Act (Variation by FCA at request of authorised person), if an FCA-authorised person applies to the FCA, the FCA may cancel its Part 4A permission. Cancellation applies to a firm's entire Part 4A permission, that is to every activity and every specified investment and not to the individual elements such as specified investments. Changes to the individual elements of a permission would require a variation.
(1) Subject to (1A), a 11firm other than a credit union wishing to cancel its Part 4A permission, must apply online at the appropriate regulator website using the form specified on the online notification and application system16.9112412129(1A) An FCA-authorised person wishing to cancel its Part 4A permission which covers only credit-related regulated activities must submit any form, notice or application by using the form in SUP 6 Annex 6 and submitting it in the way set out
(1) In addition to applying for cancellation of Part 4A permission24 in accordance with SUP 6.4.5 D, a firm may discuss prospective cancellations with its supervisory contact at the appropriate regulator.244 Alternatively a firm can contact the Contact Centre on 0300 500 0597.1424424241414(2) To contact the Cancellations Team: 424(a) write to: Cancellations Team, The Financial Conduct24Authority, 25 The North Colonnade, Canary Wharf, London, E14 5HS; or24; or2424(b) email cancellation.team@fca.org.uk24(3)
(1) If a firm is subject to the complaints rules in DISP, the FCA24 may request confirmation from the firm that there are no unresolved, unsatisfied or undischarged complaints against the firm from a customer of the firm.24(2) If there are unresolved or undischarged complaints against a firm from a customer of the firm, the FCA24 may request confirmation, as appropriate, of the steps (if any) which have been taken under the firm's complaints procedures and the amount of compensation
Consequently, the relevant regulator24 considers that it will have good reason not to grant a firm's application for cancellation of permission where:24(1) the FCA and/or the PRA24 proposes to exercise any of the powers described in SUP 6.4.24 G; or24(2) the FCA and/or the PRA24 has already begun disciplinary and/or24 restitution proceedings against the firm by exercising either or both of these powers against the firm.24
The FCA3 will usually consider revoking a recognition order if:3(1) the recognised body is failing or has failed to satisfy 2one or more of the recognised body requirements1and that failure has or will have serious consequences; or2(2) it would not be possible for the recognised body to comply with a direction under section 296 of the Act (FCA's3 power to give directions) or (for RAPs) regulation 3 of the RAP regulations;2 or 3(3) for some other reason, it would not be appropriate
The FCA3 would be likely to consider the conditions in REC 4.7.3 G (2) or REC 4.7.3 G (3) to be triggered1in the following circumstances:31(1) the recognised body appears not to have the resources or management to be able to organise its affairs so as to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(2) the recognised body does not appear to be willing to satisfy one or more of the recognised body requirements; or212(3) the recognised body is failing or has failed
In addition to the relevant 1factors set out in REC 4.7.4 G, the FCA3 will usually consider that it would not be able to secure an ROIE's3 compliance with the recognition requirements or other obligations in or under the Act by means of a direction under section 296 of the Act, if it appears to the FCA3 that the ROIE3 is prevented by any change in the legal framework or supervisory arrangements to which it is subject in its home territory from complying with the recognition requirements
3The FCA has a power under section 55Q to vary, or alternatively cancel, a firm’sPart 4A permission, or to impose requirements on a firm, in support of an overseas regulator. Section 55Q(4), (5) and (6) set out matters the FCA may, or must, take into account when it considers whether to exercise these powers. The circumstances in which the FCA may consider varying a firm’sPart 4A permission or imposing requirements in support of an overseas regulator depend on whether the FCA
3Relevant Community obligations which the FCA may need to consider include those under the Capital Requirements Directive, the Solvency II Directive1, the Investment Services Directive/Markets in Financial Instruments Directive,2 the Insurance Mediation Directive and the Market Abuse Regulation2. Each of these legislative acts2 imposes general obligations on the relevant EEAcompetent authority to cooperate and collaborate closely in discharging their functions under the legislative
3The FCA views this cooperation and collaboration as essential to effective regulation of the international market in financial services. It will therefore exercise its own-initiative powers wherever: (1) an EEACompetent authority requests it to do so; and (2) it is satisfied that the use of the power is appropriate (having regard to the considerations set out at paragraphs 8.2.1 to 8.2.6) to enforce effectively the regulatory requirements imposed under the Single Market Directives
3The FCA will actively consider any other requests for assistance from relevant overseas regulators (that is requests in relation to which it is not obliged to act under a Community obligation). Section 55Q, which sets out matters the FCA may take into account when it decides whether to vary or cancel a firm’sPart 4A permission or to impose requirements on a firm in support of the overseas regulator, applies in these circumstances.
3Where section 55Q(5) applies and the FCA is considering whether to vary a firm'sPart 4A permission or to impose requirements on a firm, it may take account of all the factors described in paragraphs 8.6.1 to 8.6.8 but may give particular weight to: (1) the matters set out in paragraphs (c) and (d) of section 55Q(5) (seriousness, importance to persons in the United Kingdom, and the public interest); and (2) any specific request made to it by the overseas regulator to impose requirements
3The FCA will give careful consideration to whether the relevant authority's concerns would provide grounds for the FCA to exercise its own-initiative powers to vary, impose requirements or cancel if they related to a UK
firm. It is not necessary for the FCA to be satisfied that the overseas provisions being enforced mirror precisely those which apply to UK
firms. However, the FCA will not assist in the enforcement of regulatory requirements
3Similarly, the FCA will not need to be satisfied that precisely the same assistance would be provided to the United Kingdom in precisely the same situation. However, it will wish to be confident that the relevant authorities in the jurisdiction concerned would have powers available to them to provide broadly similar assistance in aid of UK authorities, and would be willing properly to consider exercising those powers. The FCA may decide, under section 55Q(6), not to exercise
Table: FCA approved persons forms and other documents
1Form or other document |
Purpose |
Handbook requirement |
|
the relevant Form A |
Application to perform designated senior management functions under the approved persons regime |
||
Form B |
Notice to withdraw an application to perform controlled functions under the approved persons regime |
||
Notice to withdraw an application to vary an approval under the senior management regime for SMF managers |
|||
Form C |
Notice of ceasing to perform controlled functions |
||
Form D |
Notification of changes in personal information or application details or functions |
||
Notification about fitness or of breach of conduct rules |
|||
Form E |
Internal transfer of an approved person |
||
Form I |
Application to vary a conditional approval under the senior management regime for SMF managers |
||
Form J |
Notification of significant change to a statement of responsibilities |
||
Relevant3statement of responsibilities 2 |
|||
4MiFID Article 4 SMR Information Form |
|||
4Annex III template |
https://www.fca.org.uk/publication/forms/mifid-changes-management-body-form.docx |
As required by MiFID II ITS |
|
Note: Some of the forms are also used in SUP 10A, which deals with the approved persons regime for firms that are not relevant authorised persons. Therefore: (1) where column three refers to the approved persons regime, that includes the senior management regime for SMF managers in this chapter, as well as the regime in SUP 10A for approved persons in firms that are not relevant authorised persons; (2) where column three refers to approved persons, that includes SMF managers in this chapter as well as other approved persons in SUP 10A |
|||
(1) An application or submission by a firm made under this rule must be made by submitting the form or document online at fca.org.uk using the FCA's and PRA's Connect system.(2) A firm must use the version of the form or document made available on the electronic system referred to in (1), which is based on the version found in the applicable Annex to this chapter or to SUP 10A (which are listed in SUP 10C.15.3G).(3) If the information technology systems used by the FCA fail and
If the information technology systems used by the FCA fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FCA and PRA will endeavour to publish a notice on their websites confirming that:(1) online submission is unavailable; and(2) the alternative methods of submission in SUP 10C.15.14R applies.
1The FCA's general policy is to pursue through the criminal justice system all those cases where criminal prosecution is appropriate. When it decides whether to bring criminal proceedings in England, Wales or Northern Ireland, or to refer the matter to another prosecuting authority in England, Wales or Northern Ireland (see paragraph 12.4.1), it will apply the basic principles set out in the Code for Crown Prosecutors.14 When considering whether to prosecute a breach of the Money
1In cases where criminal proceedings have commenced or will be commenced, the FCA may consider whether also to take civil or regulatory action (for example where this is appropriate for the protection of consumers) and how such action should be pursued. That action might include: applying to court for an injunction; applying to court for a restitution order; variation and/or cancellation of permission; and prohibition of individuals. The factors the FCA may take into account when
1Subject to 12.4C, a decision to commence criminal proceedings will be made by the RDC Chairman or, in an urgent case and if the Chairman is not available, by an RDC Deputy Chairman. In an exceptionally urgent case the matter will be decided by the director of Enforcement or, in his or her absence, another member of the FCA's executive of at least director of division level.
1An exceptionally urgent case in these circumstances is one where the FCA staff believe that a decision to begin proceedings (1) should be taken before it is possible to follow the procedure described in paragraph 12.1.5; and (2) it is necessary to protect the interests of consumers or potential consumers.
1Decisions about whether to initiate criminal proceedings under the Building Societies Act 1986, the Friendly Societies Acts 1974 and 1992, the Credit Unions Act 1979 and the Co-operative and Community Benefit Societies Act 20142 may either be taken by the procedure described in EG 12.1.52 or under executive procedures. The less serious the offence or its impact and the less complex the issues raised, the more likely that the FCA will take the decision to prosecute under executive
The purpose of this section is to give directions to authorised payment institutions and small payment institutions under regulation 82 (Reporting requirements) of the Payment Services Regulations in relation to:(1) the information in respect of their provision of payment services and their compliance with requirements imposed by or under Parts 2 to 6 of the Payment Services Regulations that they must provide to the FCA12; and12(2) the time at which and the form in which they
(1) An authorised payment institution or a small payment institution must submit to the FCA12 the duly completed return applicable to it as set out in column (2) of the table in SUP 16.13.4D.2212(2) An authorised payment institution or a small payment institution must submit the return referred to in (1):(a) in the format specified as applicable in column (3) of the table in SUP 16.13.4D;(b) at the frequency and in respect of the periods specified in column (4) of that table;(c)
A firm must take reasonable steps to ensure that all information it gives to the FCA3 in accordance with a rule in any part of the Handbook (including Principle 11) is:99(1) factually accurate or, in the case of estimates and judgements5, fairly and properly based after appropriate enquiries have been made by the firm; and(2) complete, in that it should include anything of which the FCA3 would reasonably expect notice.99
SUP 15.6.1 R applies also in relation to rules outside this chapter, and even if they are not notification rules. Examples of rules and chapters to which SUP 15.6.1 R is relevant, are:(1) Principle 11, and the guidance on Principle 11 in SUP 2 (Information gathering by the FCA and PRA99 on their9 own initiative);9(2) SUP 15 (Notifications to the FCA3):99(3) SUP 16 (Reporting requirements); (4) SUP 17 (Transaction reporting); 1(5) any notification rule (see Schedule 2 which contains
If a firm becomes aware, or has information that reasonably suggests that it has or may have provided the FCA3 with information which was or may have been false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed in a material particular, it must notify the FCA3 immediately. Subject to SUP 15.6.5 R, the notification must include:9999(1) details of the information which is or may be false, misleading, incomplete or inaccurate, or has or may have changed; (2) an
Firms are reminded that section 398 of the Act (Misleading the FCA or PRA:9 residual cases) makes it an offence for a firm knowingly or recklessly to provide the FCA3 with information which is false or misleading in a material particular in purported compliance with the FCA's3rules or any other requirement imposed by or under the Act. An offence by a body corporate, partnership or unincorporated association may be attributed to an officer or certain other persons (section 400
The following documents must be submitted, in final form, to the FCA by midday two business days before the FCA is to consider the application:(1) a completed Application for Admission of Securities to the Official List;(2) one of:(a) the prospectus, or listing particulars, that has been approved by the FCA; or(b) a copy of the prospectus, a certificate of approval and (if applicable) a translation of the summary of the prospectus, if another EEA State is the home Member State
The1 following documents signed by a sponsor (if a sponsor is required under LR 8) or by a duly authorised officer of the applicant (if a sponsor is not required under LR 8) 1must be submitted, in final form, to the FCA before 9 a.m. on the day the FCA is to consider the 1application:1(1) a completed Shareholder Statement, in the case of an applicant that is applying for a listing of a class of 1shares4 for the first time; or [Note: see LR 8.4.3 R and LR 8.4.9 R1];414(2) a completed
If written confirmation of the number of shares 4to be allotted pursuant to a board resolution1 cannot be submitted to the FCA by the deadline set out in LR 3.3.2 R or the number of shares4to be admitted is lower than the number notified under LR 3.3.2 R,1 written confirmation of the number of shares4to be allotted or admitted must be provided to the FCA by 1the applicant or its sponsor at least one hour before the admission to listing is to become effective.14144141
1If the FCA has considered an application for listing and the shares4the subject of the application are not all allotted and admitted following the initial allotment of the shares4(for example, under an offer for subscription), further allotments of shares4may be admitted if before 4pm on the day before admission is sought the FCA has been provided with:444(1) written confirmation of the number of shares4allotted pursuant to a board resolution; and4(2) a copy of the RIS announcement
3For
the purpose of this Statement of Principle,
regulators in addition to the FCA and
the PRA are those which have
recognised jurisdiction in relation to regulated
activities and a power to call for information from the approved person in connection with their 1accountable function or (in the case of
an individual performing an accountable higher management function)1 in connection with the business for which they are1 responsible.
This may include an exchange or an oversea
1Failing
to report promptly in accordance with his firm's internal
procedures (or if none exist direct to the regulator concerned), information which it would be
reasonable to assume would be of material significance to the regulator concerned), whether in response to questions
or otherwise, falls within APER 4.4.3 G. The
regulator concerned is:(1) the FCA if
it would be reasonable to assume that it would be of material significance
to it;3(2) the PRA if
it would be reasonable
There
is no duty on an approved person to
report such information directly to the regulator concerned3 unless he is one of the approved persons responsible within the firm for reporting matters to the regulator concerned.3However, if an approved person takes steps to influence the decision so as not to report to the regulator concerned or acts in a way that is intended to obstruct the reporting of the information to the regulator concerned, then the FCA1 will, in respect of that
1In
determining whether or not an approved person's conduct
under APER 4.4.4 G complies with Statement of Principle 4,
the following are factors which, in the opinion of the FCA, are to be taken into account:3(1) the
likely significance to the regulator concerned (as defined in APER 4.4.4 G1) of the information which it was
reasonable for the individual to assume;31(2) whether
the information related to the individual himself or to his firm;(3) whether
any decision not to report
1In determining whether or not an approved person's conduct under APER 4.4.7G complies with Statement of Principle 4, the following are factors which, in the opinion of the FCA, are to be taken into account:(1) the likely significance of the information to the regulator concerned (as defined in APER 4.4.4G) which it was reasonable for the approved person to assume;(2) whether any decision not to inform the regulator concerned (as defined in APER 4.4.4G) was taken after reasonable