Related provisions for PERG 6.4.3
141 - 160 of 1099 items.
7Under section 60A(1) of the Act, before a relevant authorised person may make an application for the FCA's approval of a designated senior management function, the relevant authorised person8 must be satisfied that the person for whom the application is made is a fit and proper person to perform that function.8
7Under sections 60A and 63F 7of the Act, in assessing whether a person is a fit and proper person to perform an FCA designated senior management function or an FCA specified significant-harm function, 7a relevant authorised person must have particular regard to whether that person:77(1) has obtained a qualification; or(2) has undergone, or is undergoing, training; or(3) possesses a level of competence; or(4) has the personal characteristics;required by general rules made by the
The Act does not prescribe the matters which the FCA7 should take into account when determining fitness and propriety. However, section 61(2) states that the FCA7 may have regard (among other things) to whether the candidate or approved person:777(1) has obtained a qualification; or(2) has undergone, or is undergoing, training; or(3) possesses a level of competence; or(4) has the personal characteristics;required by general rules made by the FCA.7
6 Where the application relates to a function within a Solvency II firm and is for an FCA controlled function which is also a Solvency II Directive ‘key function’ as defined in the PRA Rulebook: Glossary, then the FCA will also have regard to the assessment made by the firm as required in article 273 of the Solvency II Regulation (EU) 2015/35 of 10 October 2014; Rules 2.1 and 2.2 of the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II Firms: Insurance - Fitness and Propriety, and other factors, as set
Therefore, if a person's job for a firm involves:(1) an FCA controlled function, the firm should apply to the FCA for approval;(2) a PRA controlled function, the firm should apply to the PRA for approval;(3) both an FCA controlled function and a PRA controlled function, the firm should apply to both the FCA and the PRA for approval (the purpose of SUP 10A.11 is to cut down the need for this sort of dual approval).
(1) [deleted]31(2) For a Solvency II firm and a small non-directive insurer3 only, SUP 10A.11.12R disapplies the FCA governing functions for a person who is approved to perform a PRA controlled function, subject to the conditions in SUP 10A.11.12R.1(3) The FCA functions disapplied in accordance with the FCA2governing functions overlap rule for Solvency II firms and small non-directive insurers3 (SUP 10A.11.12R) are absorbed into the relevant PRA controlled function by virtue
Article 400(2) of the EU CRR permits the FCA to fully or partially exempt exposures incurred by a firm to intra-group undertakings that meet the specified criteria from the limit stipulated in article 395(1) of the EU CRR in relation to a firm's group of connected clients that represent its wider group. The FCA will consider exempting non-trading book and trading book exposures to intra-group undertakings if specified conditions throughout IFPRU 8.2 are met.
The FCA expects that applications for exemptions under article 400(2)(c) of the EU CRR will be for firms established in the UK where the intra-group undertakings to which they have exposures meet the criteria for the core UK group in article 113(6) of the EU CRR, except for article 113(6)(d) (established in the same EEA State as the firm).
A firm may only make use of the non-core large exposure group exemption where the following conditions are met: (1) the total amount of the non-trading book exposures from the firm to its non-core large exposures group does not exceed 100% of the firm'seligible capital; or (if the firm has a core UK grouppermission) the total amount of non-trading book exposures from its core UK group (including the firm) to its non-core large exposures group does not exceed 100% of the core
The FCA will assess core UK group and non-core large exposure group applications against article 400(2)(c) on a case-by-case basis. The FCA will only approve this treatment for non-core large exposure group undertakings where the conditions in article 400(2)(c) are met. A firm should note that the FCA will still make a wider judgement whether it is appropriate to grant this treatment even where the conditions in article 400(2)(c) are met.
A firm must immediately notify the FCA in writing if it becomes aware that any exposure that it has treated as exempt under IFPRU 8.2.6 R or any counterparty that it has been treating as a member of its non-core large exposures group has ceased to meet the conditions for application of the treatment in this section.
The periodic fee referred to in FEES 4.3.1 R is (except in relation to the Society,10fee-paying payment service providers and fee-paying electronic money issuers)107 calculated as follows:(1) identify each of the tariffs set out in Part 1 of FEES 4 Annex 2AR1726 which apply to the business of the firm for the period specified in that annex;26(2) for each of the applicable26 tariffs, calculate the sum payable in relation to the business of the firm for that period;269(3) add together
(1) A firm which becomes authorised or registered 7during the course of a fee year25 will be required to pay a proportion of the periodic fee which reflects the proportion of the year for which it will have a permission or the right to provide particular payment services or the right to issue electronic money107- see FEES 4.2.5 G and FEES 4.2.6 R.25(2) Similarly a firm which extends its permission or its right to provide particular payment services7so that its business then falls
(1) [deleted]17262612112626111126(1A) [deleted] 1726(1B) [deleted] 1726(1C) 17If a person meets either of the conditions in (1D) it must pay the FCA the fee in (1E).(1D) 17A person meets the conditions referred to in (1C) if:(a) its periodic fee for the previous fee year was at least £50,000 and it is:(i) an FCA-authorised person; or(ii) a designated professional body; or(iii) a recognised investment exchange; or(iv) a regulated covered bondissuer; or(b) it is a PRA-authorised
A firm which is a member of a group may pay all of the amounts due from other firms in the same group under FEES 4.2.1 R, if:(1) it notifies the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection 17agent for the PRA)25 in writing of the name of each other firm within the group for which it will pay; and25(2) it pays the fees, in accordance with this chapter, as a single amount as if that were the amount required from the firm under FEES 4.2.1 R.
If the payment made does not satisfy in full the periodic fees payable by all of the members of the group notified to the FCA25 under FEES 4.3.7 R, the FCA (in its own capacity and, if applicable, in its capacity as collection 17agent for the PRA)25 will apply the sum received among the firms which have been identified in the notification given under FEES 4.3.7R (1) in proportion to the amounts due from them. Each firm will remain responsible for the payment of the outstanding
(1) The FCA17recognises that its responsibilities in respect of an incoming EEA firm, an incoming Treaty firm, an EEA authorised payment institution or an EEA authorised electronic money institution are reduced compared with a firm which is incorporated in the United Kingdom.17(2) Accordingly the periodic fees which would otherwise be applicable to incoming EEA firms, incoming Treaty firms, EEA authorised payment institutions and EEA authorised electronic money institutions are
(1) If:(a) a firm makes an application to vary its permission (by reducing its scope), or cancel it, in the way set out in SUP 6.3.15 D (3) (Variation of permission) and SUP 6.4.5 D (Cancellation of permission), or applies to vary (by reducing its scope) or cancel its authorisation or registration (regulation 8 and 10(1) of the Payment Services Regulations including as applied by regulation 14 of the Payment Services Regulations) or applies to cancel its authorisation or registration
Where a firm has applied to cancel its Part 4A permission, or its authorisation or registration under the Payment Services Regulations7or the Electronic Money Regulations, 10 or its registration as a CBTL firm under article 13(c) the MCD Order, 16or the FCA17 has exercised its own-initiative powers to cancel a firm's7Part 4A permission or the FCA17 has exercised its powers under regulation 10 (Cancellation of authorisation), including as applied by regulation 14 (Supplementary
If either the firm or the appointed representative notifies the other that it proposes to terminate the contract of appointment or to amend it so that it no longer meets the requirements contained or referred to in SUP 12.5 (Contracts: required terms), the firm must:2(1) complete and submit to the FCA the form in SUP 12 Annex 5 R (Appointed representative termination form) in accordance with the instructions on the form and no more than ten business days after the date of the
(1) 4Subject to (2A), a5firm other than a credit union must submit any notification under SUP 12.8.1 R (1) in the form set out in SUP 12 Annex 5 R, online at www.fca.org.uk5 using the FCA'sonline notification and application system8.5566(2) A credit union must submit any notification under SUP 12.8.1 R (1) in the form set out in SUP 12 Annex 5 R and in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).(2A) A firm must submit any notification under
4If the FCA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FCA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 12.8.1AR(3) and SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification) should be used.
In assessing whether to terminate a relationship with an appointed representative, a firm should be aware that the notification rules in SUP 15 require notification to be made immediately to the FCA if certain events occur. Examples include a matter having a serious regulatory impact or involving an offence or a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or orders made under the Act by the Treasury.
If a firm is not a significant IFPRU firm its recovery plan must include:(1) a summary of the key elements of the recovery plan;(2) information on the governance of the firm, including: (a) how the recovery plan is integrated into the corporate governance of the firm; and (b) the firm's overall risk management framework;(3) a description of the legal and financial structures of the firm, including:(a) the core business lines; and(b) critical functions;(4) recovery options, including:(a)
A firm must demonstrate to the FCA that:(1) carrying out its recovery plan is reasonably likely to maintain or restore the viability and financial position of the firm, taking into account the preparatory measures that the firm has taken, or plans to take; and(2) its recovery plan: (a) is reasonably likely to be carried out quickly and effectively in situations of financial stress; and(b) avoids, to the maximum extent possible, any significant adverse effect on the financial system,
If a UK firm is passporting under the UCITS Directive, regulation 12(1) states that the UK firm must not make a change in its programme of operations, or the activities to be carried on under its EEA right, unless the relevant requirements in regulation 12(2) have been complied with. These requirements are:5(1) the UK firm has given a notice to the FCA15 and to the Host State regulator stating the details of the proposed change; or15(2) if the change arises as a result of circumstances
13A UK MiFID investment firm is also required to notify the FCA of any changes to the information in its investment services and activities passport notification, including changes relating to a UKtied agent, in accordance with:(1) article 4 (Information to be notified concerning the change of investment services and activities particulars) of MiFID RTS 3A; and(2) article 7 (Submission of the change of investment services and activities particulars notification) of MiFID ITS
(1) 13If any of the details in an investment services and activities passport notification change, a UK MiFID investment firm is required to notify the FCA by completing the form in Annex I of MiFID ITS 4A.[Note: article 7(1) of MiFID ITS 4A](2) When communicating a change to investment services and/or activities, ancillary services or financial instruments, the firm is required to list all: (a) the investment services and/or activities and ancillary services that it currently
13A UK MiFID investment firm should use the relevant form in SUP 13 Annex 2AR to notify the FCA that it intends to:(1) change its programme of operations by ceasing to provide cross border services; or(2) change its programme of operations by ceasing to provide cross border services through a tied agent established in the UK; or(3) terminate in the territory of an EEA State, the provision of arrangements to facilitate access to, and trading on, an MTF or OTF by remote users, members
5For further details on giving the notices to the appropriate UK regulator, as described in SUP 13.7.3 G (1), SUP 13.7.3AG and SUP 13.7.3BG12, UK firms may wish to use the standard electronic15 form available from the FCA and PRA authorisation teams 15(see SUP 13.12 (Sources of further information)).15151551515
15Where the PRA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the FCA before deciding whether to give consent to a change (or proposed change) and where the FCA is the appropriate UK regulator, it will consult the PRA before deciding whether to give consent in relation to a UK firm whose immediate group includes a PRA-authorised person.
(1) 11A UK firm which has exercised an EEA right deriving from the MCD to provide a cross border service, must not make any material changes to the service unless it has complied with the requirements in regulation 17(B)(2).(2) The requirements in regulation 17(B)(2) are that;(a) the UK firm has given notice to the FCA stating the details of the proposed change; and(b) the period of one month has elapsed, beginning with the day on which the UK firm gave notice.(3) Paragraph (1)
The guidance in COND 2 explains each FCA1threshold condition in Schedule 6 (threshold conditions) to the Act and indicates1 how the FCA1 will interpret it in practice. This guidance is not, however, exhaustive and is written in very general terms. A firm will need to have regard to the obligation placed upon the FCA1 under section 55B (The threshold conditions) of the Act; that is, the FCA1 must ensure that the firm will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the FCA1threshold conditions
(1) The FCA1 will consider whether a firm satisfies, and will continue to satisfy, the FCA1threshold conditions in the context of the size, nature, scale and complexity of the business which the firm carries on or will carry on if the relevant application is granted.1(2) In relation to threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2D to 2F of Schedule 6 to the Act in respect of firms which are not PRA-authorised persons and paragraphs 3C to 3E of Schedule 6 to the Act in respect
Although the FCA1 may consider that a matter is relevant to its assessment of a firm, the fact that a matter is disclosed to the FCA1, for example in an application, does not necessarily mean that the firm will fail to satisfy the FCA1threshold conditions. The FCA1 will consider each matter in relation to the regulated activities for which the firm has, or will have, permission, having regard to its statutory objectives1. A firm should disclose each relevant matter but, if it
1In determining the weight to be given to any relevant matter, the FCA will consider its significance in relation to the regulated activities for which the firm has, or will have, permission, in the context of its ability to supervise the firm adequately, having regard to the FCA'sstatutory objectives. In this context, a series of matters may be significant when taken together, even though each of them in isolation might not give serious cause for concern.
1When assessing the FCAthreshold conditions, the FCA may have regard to any person appearing to be, or likely to be, in a relevant relationship with the firm, in accordance with section 55R of the Act (Persons connected with an applicant). For example, a firm'scontrollers, its directors or partners, other persons with close links to the firm (see COND 2.3), and other persons that exert influence on the firm which might pose a risk to the firm's satisfaction of the FCAthreshold
(1) For ease of reference, the FCA1threshold conditions in or under Schedule 6 to the Act have been quoted in full in COND 2. (1A) 1Paragraphs 2A and 3A of Schedule 6 of the Act have not been quoted. These set out the application of the FCAthreshold conditions to firms which do not carry on, or are not seeking to carry on, a PRAregulated activity and firms which carry on, or are seeking to carry on, a PRAregulated activity respectively. This application is summarised in COND
1The FCA has investigation and sanctioning powers in relation to both criminal and civil breaches of the Money Laundering Regulations. The Money Laundering Regulations impose requirements including, amongst other things, obligations to apply customer due diligence measures and conduct ongoing monitoring of business relationships on designated types of business.
1The FCA is responsible for monitoring and enforcing compliance with the Money Laundering Regulations2 not only by authorised firms who are within the Money Laundering Regulations’ scope, but also by what the Regulations describe as “Annex I financial institutions”. These are businesses which are not otherwise authorised by us but which carry out certain of the activities listed in Annex I of the Banking Consolidation Directive28, now Annex I of the CRD. The activities include
1The Money Laundering Regulations add to the range of options available to the FCA for dealing with anti-money laundering and anti-terrorist financing 2 failures. These options include2:• to prosecute a relevant person, including but not limited to an 2authorised firm, an 2Annex I financial institution or an auction platform, as well as any responsible officer2;2• to fine or censure a relevant person, including but not limited to an2 authorised firm, an2 Annex I financial institution
1This means that there will be situations in which the FCA has powers to investigate and take action under both the Act and the Money Laundering Regulations. The FCA will consider all the circumstances of the case when deciding what action to take and, if it is appropriate to notify the subject about the investigation, will in doing so inform them about the basis upon which the investigation is being conducted and what powers it is using. The FCA will adopt the approach outlined
1The Money Laundering Regulations also provide investigation powers that the FCA can use when investigating whether breaches2 have taken place. These powers include: • the power to require information from, and attendance of, relevant persons, payment service providers2and connected persons (regulation 662); and• powers of entry and inspection without or under warrant (regulations 69 and 702).The use of these powers will be limited to those cases in which the FCA is exercising
1The FCA will adopt a risk-based approach to its enforcement under2 the Money Laundering Regulations. Failures in anti-money laundering or counter-terrorist financing2 controls will not automatically result in disciplinary sanctions, although enforcement action is more likely where a firm has not taken adequate steps to identify its2 risks or put in place appropriate controls to mitigate those risks, and failed to take steps to ensure that controls are being effectively implemented.
1However, the Money Laundering Regulations say little about the way in which investigation and sanctioning powers should be used, so the FCA has decided to adopt enforcement and decision making procedures which are broadly akin to those under the Act. Key features of the FCA's approach are described in EG 19.152.
1Where, in relation to a UK RIE a proposal has been made to appoint or elect a person as a key individual, that UK RIE must at least 30 days before the date of the appointment or election give notice of that event, and give the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.4.4A R to the FCA.3 [Note: Article 37(1), paragraph 1, second sentence of MiFID]3
(1) Key individuals include the persons who, under the operational or managerial arrangements of the UK recognised body, are appointed to manage the departments responsible for carrying out its relevant functions, whether or not they are members of its governing body. A person appointed to carry out specific tasks, such as to conduct a particular investigation into a specific set of facts, would not usually be a key individual.(2) A key individual need not be an employee of a
1The following information is specified for the purposes of REC 3.4.2A R:(1) that person's name;(2) his date of birth;(3) where applicable, a description of the responsibilities which he will have in the post to which he is to be appointed or elected, including for a UK RIE which operates an RAP where the person has responsibilities both in the UK RIE and RAP, a description of the responsibilities he has in respect of each body.3[Note: Article 37(1), paragraph 1, second sentence
Where the governing body of a UK recognised body delegates any of its functions (which relate to that UK recognised body'srelevant functions) to a standing committee, or appoints a standing committee to manage or oversee the carrying out of any of that UK recognised body'srelevant functions, that UK recognised body must immediately notify the FCA3 of that event and give the FCA3 the following information:33(1) the names of the members of that standing committee; and(2) the terms
Where:(1) there is any change in the composition or the terms of reference of any standing committee referred to in REC 3.4.5 R; or(2) any such committee is dissolved; the UK recognised body must immediately notify the FCA3 of that event and give particulars of any change referred to in (1) to the FCA.333
The test in section 236(3)(a) of the Act is whether the reasonable investor would expect that, were he to invest, he would be in a position to realise his investment within a period appearing to him to be reasonable. In the FCA's view, this is an objective test with the appropriate objective judgment to be applied being that of the hypothetical reasonable investor with qualities such as those mentioned in PERG 9.7.2 G (The investment condition: the 'reasonable investor').
In the FCA's view, the 'realisation' of an investment means converting an asset into cash or money. The FCA does not consider that 'in specie' redemptions (in the sense of exchanging shares or securities of BC with other shares or securities) will generally count as realisation. Section 236(3)(a) refers to the realisation of an investment, the investment being represented by the 'value' of shares or securities held in BC. In the FCA's view, there is no realisation of value where
The most typical means of realising BC's shares or securities will be by their being redeemed or repurchased, whether by BC or otherwise. There are, of course, other ways in which a realisation may occur. However, the FCA considers that these will often not satisfy all the elements of the definition of an open-ended investment company considered together. For example, the mere fact that shares or securities may be realised on a market will not meet the requirements of the 'satisfaction
An investor in a body corporate may be able to realise part, but not all, of his investment. The FCA considers that the fact that partial realisations may take place at different times does not prevent the body corporate coming within the definition of an open-ended investment company. But, in any particular case, the 'expectation test' will only be met if the overall period for realising the whole of the investment can be considered to be reasonable. Apart from this, the simple
The use of an expectation test ensures that the definition of an open-ended investment company is not limited to a situation where a holder of shares in, or securities of, a body corporate has an entitlement or an option to realise his investment. It is enough if, on the facts of any particular case, the reasonable investor would expect that he would be able to realise the investment. The following are examples of circumstances in which the FCA considers that a reasonable investor
In the FCA's view, the fact that a person may invest in the period shortly before a redemption date would not cause a body corporate, that would not otherwise be regarded as such, to be open-ended. This is because the investment condition must be applied in relation to BC as a whole (see PERG 9.6.3 G (The investment condition (section 236(3) of the Act): general).
As indicated in PERG 9.3.5 G (The definition), the potential for variation in the form and operation of a body corporate is considerable. So, it is only possible in general guidance to give examples of the factors that the FCA considers may affect any particular judgment. These should be read bearing in mind any specific points considered elsewhere in the guidance. Such factors include:(1) the terms of the body corporate's constitution;(2) the applicable law;(3) any public representations
1Section 301A(1) of chapter3 1A of Part XVIII of the Act places an obligation on a person who decides to acquire or increase control (see sections 301D and 301E of the Act) over a UK RIE3to notify the FCA5, before making the acquisition3. Furthermore, those persons are required to obtain the FCA's5 approval before acquiring control 3or increasing the level of control held.3353533
The FCA5 will approve an acquisition or an increase in 3control if it is satisfied that the acquisition by the person seeking approval does not pose a threat to the sound and prudent management of any financial market operated by the UK RIE (see section 301F(4) of the Act). 4The reference to any financial market is to be read as including a reference to any auction platform as a result of the RAP regulations.35333
1The FCA will notify the subject of the investigation that it has appointed officers to carry out an investigation under the Money Laundering Regulations and the reasons for the appointment, unless notification is likely to prejudice the investigation or otherwise result in it being frustrated. The FCA expects to carry out a scoping visit early on in the enforcement process in most cases. The FCA's
policy in civil investigations is to use powers to compel information
1When imposing or determining the level of a financial penalty under regulation 76 of the Money Laundering Regulations2, the FCA's
policy includes having regard, where relevant, to relevant factors in DEPP 6.2.1G and DEPP 6.5 to DEPP 6.5D. The FCA may not impose a penalty where there are reasonable grounds for it to be satisfied that the subject of the proposed action took all reasonable steps and exercised all due diligence to ensure that the relevant requirement
2When cancelling, suspending or restricting an authorisation or limitation under regulation 77 of the Money Laundering Regulations or determining the duration of any such suspension or restriction, and when imposing or determining the duration of a prohibition under regulation 78 of the Money Laundering Regulations, the FCA’s policy includes having regard, where relevant, to relevant factors in DEPP 6A.
1As with cases under the Act, the FCA may settle or mediate appropriate cases involving civil breaches of the Money Laundering Regulations or the Funds Transfer Regulation2 to assist it to exercise its functions under the Money Laundering Regulations2 in the most efficient and economic way. The settlement discount scheme set out in DEPP 6.7 applies to penalties, suspensions, restrictions and temporary prohibitions2 imposed under regulations 76, 77 and 78 of2 the Money Laundering
1When the FCA has concerns about the fitness and propriety of a member to carry out exempt regulated activities, it will consider all the relevant circumstances of the case, including whether those concerns arise from the fitness and propriety of specific individuals engaged to perform the exempt regulated activities carried out by the member or whether its concerns arise from wider concerns about the member itself.
1The FCA will also take into account the potentially more serious consequences that a disapplication of an exemption will have for the member concerned compared with the consequences of a prohibition of a particular individual engaged in exempt regulated activities. However, the FCA may consider it appropriate in some cases to disapply an exemption where it decides that the member concerned is not fit and proper to carry out exempt regulated activities in accordance with section
1As an alternative to making an order to disapply an exemption, the FCA may consider issuing a private warning. A private warning may be appropriate where the FCA has concerns in relation to a member's fitness and propriety but feels that its concerns in relation to the conduct of exempt regulated activities can be more appropriately addressed by a private warning than by a disapplication of the member's exemption.
1When it decides whether to exercise its power to disapply an exemption from the general prohibition in relation to a member, the FCA will take into account all relevant circumstances which may include, but are not limited to, the following factors: (1) Disciplinary or other action taken by the relevant designated professional body, where that action relates to the fitness and propriety of the member concerned: where the FCA considers that its concerns in relation to the fitness
1Where the FCA is considering making a disapplication order against a member as a result of a breach of rules made by the FCA under section 323(1) of the Act, it will take into account any proposed application by the member concerned for authorisation under the Act. The FCA may refrain from making a disapplication order pending its consideration of the application for authorisation.
The purpose of the 5Code of Practice for Approved Persons is to help an approved person5 to determine whether or not
that person's5 conduct
complies with a Statement of Principle.
The code sets out descriptions of conduct which, in the FCA's opinion,
do or5 do not comply with the relevant Statements
of Principle. The code also sets out certain factors which,
in the opinion of the FCA,
are to be taken into account in determining whether an approved
person's conduct complies with
The Code of Practice for Approved Persons5 is general guidance. The status and effect of general guidance is described in the Readers' Guide. In particular, guidance:5(1) represents the FCA’s view and does not bind the courts or third parties;5(2) is not binding on approved persons, nor does it have ‘evidential’ effect;5(3) need not be followed to achieve compliance with the Statements of Principle, nor is there any presumption that departing from guidance is indicative of a
5In assessing compliance with, or a breach of, a Statement of Principle, the FCA will look at5 all the circumstances of a particular case. 5 Account will be taken of the context in which a course of conduct
was undertaken, including the precise circumstances of the individual case,
the characteristics of the particular accountable
function12 and the behaviour to be expected
in that function. 12
The Code of Practice for Approved Persons (and
in particular the specific examples of behaviour which may be in breach of
a generic description of conduct in the code) is not exhaustive of the kind
of conduct that may contravene the Statements
of Principle. The purpose of the code is to help determine whether
or not a person's conduct complies
with a Statement of Principle.
The code may be supplemented from time to time. The FCA5 will amend the code if there is
a risk that unacceptable
In applying Statements of Principle 5 to 7, the nature, scale and complexity of the business under management and the role and responsibility of the individual performing an accountable higher management function5 within the firm will be relevant in assessing whether an approved person's conduct was reasonable. For example, the smaller and less complex the business, the less detailed and extensive the systems of control need to be. The FCA will be of the opinion that an individual
UK domestic firms with a premium listing of equity shares6 are subject to the UK
Corporate Governance Code4, whose internal
control provisions are amplified in the publication entitled ‘Guidance on Risk Management, Internal Control and Related Financial and Business Reporting (September 2014)’6 issued by the Financial Reporting Council4. Firms regulated
by the FCA5 in this category will 6be subject
to that code as well as to the requirements and standards of the regulatory system.
(1) 2This guidance applies to persons subject to MAR 10.4.8D(2) or MAR 10.4.10D(3).(2) A firm subject to MAR 10.4.8D(2) or MAR 10.4.10D(3) may use a third party technology provider to submit to the FCA the report referred to in MAR 10.4.8 D(2) provided that it does so in a manner consistent with MiFID. It will retain responsibility for the completeness, accuracy and timely submission of the report and should populate field 5 of MiFID ITS 4 Annex II with its own reporting entity
4If an operator of an IFR card payment system or card payment system is liable to pay PSR fees itself under FEES 9.2.1DR or FEES 9.2.1ER, and the PSR fee it paid for the previous fee year for its IFR card payment system or card payment system was at least £20,000, that operator must pay to the FCA:(1) an amount equal to 50% of the PSR fee payable for the previous fee year, by 1 April in the current6fee year or, if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice6; and(2) the balance
4If an operator of an IFR card payment system or card payment system is liable to pay PSR fees itself under FEES 9.2.1DR or FEES 9.2.1ER, and the PSR fee it paid for the previous fee year for its IFR card payment system or card payment system was less than £20,000, that operator must pay its PSR fee in full to the FCA:65(1) 6by 1 September in the current fee year; or(2) 6if later, within 30 days of the date of the invoice.5
The FCA will not relieve or refund a PSR fee if after the start of that fee year:42(1) 4a payment system ceases to be a regulated payment system; or4(2) 4an IFR card payment system ceases to be subject to the IFR;4 or(3) 4a person4 ceases to be a direct payment service provider of a regulated payment system or an IFR card payment system4.
If a direct payment service provider2 or an operator of an IFR card payment system4 does not pay the total amount of its PSR fees before the end of the date on which it is due, it must pay to the FCA2: (1) an administrative fee of £250; plus(2) interest on any unpaid part of the fee at an annual rate of 5% above the Official Bank Rate from time to time in force, accruing daily from the date on which the amount concerned became due.
(1) A firm other than:99(a) a credit union; or9(b) a firm which intends to appoint , or has appointed, an appointed representative to carry on only credit-related regulated activity;9must submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 3 online 9at http://www.fca.org.uk using the FCA'sONA10system.10(2) A credit union or a firm which intends to appoint , or has appointed, an appointed representative to carry on only credit-related regulated activity9must submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 3 R in
(1) If:434(a) (i) the scope of appointment of an appointed representative is extended to cover insurance mediation activities for the first time; and42(ii) the appointed representative is not included on the Financial Services Register as carrying on insurance mediation activities in another capacity; or42(b) the scope of appointment of an appointed representative ceases to include insurance mediation activity;42the appointed representative's principal must give written notice
(1) As soon as a firm has reasonable grounds to believe that any of the conditions in SUP 12.4.2 R,SUP 12.4.6 R,11SUP 12.4.8A R4, SUP 12.4.10A R or SUP 12.4.10B R11 (as applicable) are not satisfied, or are likely not to be satisfied, in relation to any of its appointed representatives, it must complete and submit to the FCA the form in SUP 12 Annex 4 R (Appointed representative notification form), in accordance with the instructions on the form.3(2) In its notification under
(1) 8Subject to (2A), a 9firm other than a credit union must submit the form as set out in SUP 12 Annex 4 R online at http://www.fca.org.uk using the FCA'sonline notification and application system12.91010(2) A credit union must submit the form in SUP 12 Annex 4 R in the way set out in SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G (Form and method of notification).(2A) If the notification:9(a) relates to an appointed representative whose scope of appointment covers only credit-related regulated
8If the FCA's information technology systems fail and online submission is unavailable for 24 hours or more, the FCA will endeavour to publish a notice on its website confirming that online submission is unavailable and that firms, other than credit unions, should use the alternative methods of submission set out in SUP 12.7.1AR (3) and SUP 12.7.8AR (3) (as appropriate), and SUP 15.7.4 R to SUP 15.7.9 G, addressingclearly marking applications for the attention of the Individuals
The circumstances in which a CBTL firm which has a Part 4A permission should notify the FCA include but are not limited to when:(1) it ceases to carry on CBTL business and does not propose to resume carrying on CBTL business in the immediate future. This does not include circumstances where the CBTL firm temporarily withdraws its products from the market or is preparing to launch fresh products; or(2) it applies to cancel its Part 4A permission; or(3) it applies to vary its Part
The circumstances in which a CBTL firm which does not have a Part 4A permission should notify the FCA include but are not limited to when:(1) it ceases to carry on CBTL business and does not propose to resume carrying on CBTL business in the immediate future; this does not include circumstances where the CBTL firm temporarily withdraws its products from the market or is preparing to launch fresh products; or(2) it changes its registered office or place of residence as the case
Any notification given by a CBTL firm under article 12 of the MCD Order should be:(1) in writing;(2) in English;(3) given to or addressed for the attention of the CBTL firm's usual supervisory contact at the FCA (where the CBTL firm does not have an identified supervisory contact this will be the FCA's Contact Centre);(4) delivered to the FCA by one of the methods in SUP 15.7.5AR to the appropriate address set out in SUP 15.7.6AG; and(5) given by a person who has full knowledge
1The FCA is required by article 23 of the short selling regulation to consider whether
to impose measures to prohibit or restrict short selling or otherwise limit
transactions in a financial instrument on
a trading venue where the price
of that financial instrument on
that trading venue has fallen
significantly during a single trading day in
relation to the closing price on that venue on the previous trading
day. In fulfilling this obligation, the FCA will assess:(1) whether the
The FCA will assess whether the price fall
in a financial instrument on
a trading venue is or may become
disorderly having regard to at least the following factors:(1) whether there have been violent
movements in the price of the particular financial
instrument on a particular trading
venue, including any sudden or significant movements in price
of a financial instrument during
the trading day;(2) whether there is evidence of unusual
or improper trading in the financial instrument
The FCA will consider at least the following
factors when assessing whether measures to prohibit or restrict short selling
or otherwise limit transactions are necessary or likely to prevent a further
disorderly decline in the price of the financial
instrument:(1) the volume of trading in that financial instrument on the trading venue as compared with the total
trading volume in the financial instrument over
at least that trading day;
and(2) whether the price of the financial instrument
Where the FCA imposes measures under article
23 of the short selling regulation it
will normally specify that the measures will not apply to natural or legal
persons who have satisfied the criteria to use the market
maker exemption or the authorised
primary dealer exemption and who are included on the list maintained
and published by ESMA pursuant
to article 17(13) of the short selling regulation.
(1) For the purposes of article 23(1)(b)
of Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) No 918/2012 the FCA will convert the figure of EUR
0.50 into pounds sterling using the daily spot foreign exchange rate of Sterling
to Euro of the Bank of England applicable at the end of the first business day of October 2012 rounded up to
the nearest £0.01. The FCA will state this figure (the 'sterling
figure') on its public website.(2) The rate will be calculated on
the same basis at the end of
The FCA will treat the FTSE 100 index as
the main national equity index of the Member State for the purposes of article
6(4) of Commission Implementing Regulation (EU) No 827/2012 and article 4
of Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) No 826/2012 and article 23(1) of Commission
Delegated Regulation (EU) No 918/2012, all subject to approval by European
Parliament and Council.