Related provisions for GEN 1.1.2

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BIPRU 9.3.9GRP
1In the event that the appropriate regulator decides that the possible reduction in risk weighted exposure amounts which the originator would achieve by the securitisation referred to in BIPRU 9.3.7R is not justified by a commensurate transfer of credit risk to third parties, it will use its powers under section 55J of the Act (Variation etc on the Authority's own initiative) to require the firm to increase its risk weighted exposure amount to an amount commensurate with the appropriate
BIPRU 9.3.12GRP
1BIPRU 1.3.10 G sets out the appropriate regulator's approach to the granting of waivers. The conditions in BIPRU 9.3.11D are minimum requirements. Satisfaction of those does not automatically mean the appropriate regulator will grant the relevant waiver. The appropriate regulator will in addition also apply the tests in section 138A (Modification or waiver of rules) of the Act.
BIPRU 9.3.21GRP
1Subject to BIPRU 9.3.22G, BIPRU 9.15.9R and BIPRU 9.15.10R, where the originator or sponsor of a securitisation fails to meet any of the requirements in BIPRU 9.3.18R to BIPRU 9.3.20R (disclosure requirements) in any material respect by reason of its negligence or omission, the appropriate regulator will use its powers under section 55J (Variation etc on the Authority's own initiative) of the Act to impose an additional risk weight of no less than 250% (capped at 1250%) of the
COND 1.2.2GRP
(1) Under section 55B(3) of the Act3, in giving or varying a Part 4A permission,3 imposing or varying any requirement or giving consent3, the FCA3 must ensure that the firm concerned will satisfy, and continue to satisfy, the FCA3threshold conditions in relation to all of the regulated activities for which it has or will have permission.(2) If, however, the applicant for permission is an incoming firm seeking top-up permission, or variation of top-up permission, under Part 4A3
COND 1.2.3GRP
(1) If, among other things, a firm is failing to satisfy any of the FCA3threshold conditions, or is likely to fail to do so, the FCA3 may exercise its own-initiative powers under either section 55J (Variation or cancellation on initiative of regulator) or section 55L (Imposition of requirements by FCA) of the Act3. Use of the FCA's own-initiative powers3 is explained in SUP 7 (Individual requirements), and EG 8 (Variation and cancellation of permission on the FCA's3 own initiative
COND 1.2.5GRP
(1) Under section 185 of the Act (Assessment: general) the FCA may, subject to consultation with the PRA where the conditions in section 187B of the Act are satisfied, object to an acquisition of an FCA-authorised person if there are reasonable grounds to do so on the basis of the matters set out in section 186 of the Act (Assessment: criteria) or if the information provided by the section 178 notice giver is incomplete. Section 186(d) of the Act (Assessment: criteria) specifies
BIPRU 12.9.9GRP
Consistent with Principle 11 (Relations with regulators), the appropriate regulator will expect a firm to notify it if the firm does not propose to follow its individual liquidity guidance. The appropriate regulator will expect any such notification to be accompanied by a clear account of the firm's reasons for considering the individual liquidity guidance to be inappropriate. The appropriate regulator will expect to receive any such notification within one month from the date
BIPRU 12.9.15GRP
As part of the appropriate regulator's enquiry into the reasons for a firm's deviation, or expected deviation, from its individual liquidity guidance or, as the case may be, its simplified buffer requirement, the appropriate regulator may ask for further assessments and analyses of a firm's liquidity resources and the risks faced by the firm. The appropriate regulator may consider the use of its powers under section 166 of the Act to assist in such circumstances.
BIPRU 12.9.21GRP
If agreement through discussion with the appropriate regulator cannot be reached as to the necessary actions and timescales to remedy deviation from that guidance, the appropriate regulator will consider using its powers under the Act (for example, its power under section 55J to vary, on its own initiative, a firm'sPart 4A permission or its power of intervention under section 196) so as to require the firm to take such actions as the appropriate regulator considers are necessary
CONC App 1.4.6RRP
The declaration for the purposes of articles 60H(1)(c) and 60Q(b) of the Regulated Activities Order must have the following form and content- 2“Declaration by high net worth borrower or hirer(articles 60H(1) and 60Q of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001)2I confirm that I have received a copy of the statement of high net worth made in relation to me for the purposes of article 60H(1)(d) 2or article 60Q(c) of the Financial Services and
CONC App 1.4.6ARRP
2Declaration by high net worth borrower under an MCD article 3(1)(b) credit agreementThe declaration for the purposes of article 60H(1)(c) of the Regulated Activities Order and of CONC 1.2.10R(2) must have the following form and content- “Declaration by high net worth borrower under an MCD article 3(1)(b) credit agreement (article 60H(1)(c) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001)I confirm that I have received a copy of the statement of
CONC App 1.4.8RRP
A declaration for the purposes of articles 60C or 60O of the Regulated Activities Order must have the following form and content“Declaration for exemption relating to businesses(articles 60C and 60O of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Regulated Activities) Order 2001)I am/We are* entering this agreement wholly or predominantly for the purposes of a business carried on by me/us or intended to be carried on by me/us.I/We* understand that I/We* will not have the benefit
SUP 11.5.8GRP
A firm and its controller or proposed controller may discharge an obligation to notify the appropriate regulator7 by submitting a single joint section 178 notice5containing the information required from the firm and the controller or proposed controller. In this case, the section 178 notice53 may be used on behalf of both the firm and the controller or proposed controller.75355
SUP 11.5.9GRP
If a person is proposing a change in control over more than one firm within a group, then the controller or proposed controller may submit a single section 178 notice5 to the PRA7 in respect of all those firms which are PRA-authorised persons and a single section 178 notice to the FCA in respect of all those firms which are not PRA-authorised persons.7 The section 178 notice5should contain all the required information as if separate notifications had been made, but information
SUP 11.5.10GRP
When an event occurs (for example, a group restructuring or a merger) as a result of which: (1) more than one firm in a group would undergo a change in control; or(2) a single firm would experience more than one change in control;then, to avoid duplication of documentation, all the firms and their controllers or proposed controllers may discharge their respective obligations to notify the appropriate regulator7 by submitting a single section 178 notice5 to the PRA7 containing
PERG 5.2.3GRP
A person who is concerned to know whether his proposed insurance mediation activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form, in the flow chart in PERG 5.15.2 G (Flow chart: regulated activities related to insurance mediation – do you need authorisation?):(1) will the activities relate to contracts of insurance (see PERG 5.3(Contracts
PERG 5.2.4GRP
It is recognised pursuant to section 22 of the Act that a person will not be carrying on regulated activities in the first instance, including insurance mediation activities, unless he is carrying on these activities by way of business. Similarly, where a person's activities are excluded he cannot, by definition, be carrying on regulated activities. To this extent, the content of the questions above does not follow the scheme of the Act. For ease of navigation, however, the questions
PERG 5.2.10GRP
An unauthorised person who intends to carry on activities connected with contracts of insurance will need to comply with section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion). This guidance does not cover financial promotions that relate to contracts of insurance. Persons should refer to the general guidance on financial promotion in PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities). (See in particular PERG 8.17A (Financial promotions concerning insurance mediation activities)
EG 4.11.2RP
1A person required to attend an interview by the use of statutory powers has no entitlement to insist that the interview takes place voluntarily. If someone does not attend an interview required under the Act, then he can be dealt with by the court as if he were in contempt (where the penalties can be a fine, imprisonment or both).
EG 4.11.6RP
1If a suspect has been interviewed by the FCA using statutory powers, before they are re-interviewed on a voluntary basis (under caution or otherwise), the FCA will explain the difference between the two types of interview. The FCA will also tell the individual about the limited use that can be made of their previous answers in criminal proceedings or in proceedings in which the FCA seeks a penalty for market abuse under Part VIII of the Act.
EG 4.11.9RP
1Where the FCA has appointed an investigator in response to a request from an overseas regulator or EEA regulator, it may, under sections 169(7) or 131FA of the Act respectively, direct the investigator to allow a representative of that regulator to attend, and take part in, any interview conducted for the purposes of the investigation. However, the FCA may only use this power if it is satisfied that any information obtained by an overseas regulator or EEA regulator as a result
DISP 2.8.2RRP
19The Ombudsman cannot consider a complaint if the complainant refers it to the Financial Ombudsman Service:(1) more than six months after the date on which the respondent sent the complainant its final response, 512redress determination or summary resolution communication512; or3(2) more than: (a) six years after the event complained of; or (if later)(b) three years from the date on which the complainant became aware (or ought reasonably to have become aware) that he had cause
DISP 2.8.9RRP
(1) 713In addition to DISP 2.8.1R and DISP 2.8.2R, unless one or more of the conditions in (2) below is met, the Ombudsman cannot consider a complaint which:(a) relates to the sale of a payment protection contract that took place on or before 29 August 2017; and(b) expresses dissatisfaction about the sale, or matters related to the sale, including where there is a rejection of claims on the grounds of ineligibility or exclusion (but not matters unrelated to the sale, such as delays
DISP 2.8.10GRP
713Where a complaint meets the requirements of DISP 2.8.9R(2)(d), those parts of the complaint that relate to the grounds of rejection of the claim are not subject to the restriction in DISP 2.8.9R(1) on an Ombudsman considering the complaint.
PERG 2.4.1GRP
Section 19 of the Act (The general prohibition) provides that the requirement to be authorised under the Act only applies in relation to activities that are carried on 'in the United Kingdom'. In many cases, it will be quite straightforward to identify where an activity is carried on. But when there is a cross-border element, for example because a client is outside the United Kingdom or because some other element of the activity happens outside the United Kingdom, the question
PERG 2.4.3GRP
Section 418 of the Act (Carrying on regulated activities in the United Kingdom) takes this one step further. It extends the meaning that 'in the United Kingdom' would ordinarily have by setting out five additional cases. The Act states that, in these five cases, a person who is carrying on a regulated activity but who would not otherwise be regarded as carrying on the activity in the United Kingdom is, for the purposes of the Act, to be regarded as carrying on the activity in
PERG 2.4.5GRP
A person who is based outside the United Kingdom but who sets up an establishment in the United Kingdom must therefore consider the following matters. First, he must not, unless he is authorised, carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom. Second, unless he is authorised, the day-to-day management of the carrying on of the regulated activity must not be the responsibility of the UK establishment. This may, for example, affect those UK establishments that in the context
PERG 2.11.1GRP
3Various persons are exempted by Order made by the Treasury under section 38 of the Act from the need to obtain authorisation for certain credit-related regulated activities in the circumstances specified in the Order (for example, in some cases, a person is exempt only when acting in a particular capacity or for particular purposes). Persons exempt under the Order cannot be exempt in relation to some regulated activities and authorised in relation to others (except where the
PERG 2.11.8GRP
(1) 4The exemption in paragraph 55 of the Schedule to the Exemption Order covers special purpose vehicles and other entities which are part of a structured finance transaction and which meet the specified conditions. It confers exemption from the general prohibition on a person (“P”) for the regulated activity of exercising, or having the right to exercise. the lender’s rights and duties under a regulated credit agreement (and associated regulated activities) where there is an
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FCA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 1502 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount);

3

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 100,0003 euros (or equivalent amounts);

33

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered in the EEA states3 cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); or3

3

3(f)

the offer falls within subsection (1A).

3(1A)

An offer (“the current offer”) falls within this subsection where transferable securities are resold or placed through a financial intermediary where:

3(a)

the transferable securities have previously been the subject of one or more offers to the public;

3(b)

in respect of one or more of those previous offers, any of paragraphs (a) to (e) of subsection (1) applied;

3(c)

a prospectus is available for the securities which has been approved by the FCA and meets either of the conditions in subsection (1B);4 and

4

3(d)

the issuer or other person who was responsible for drawing up the prospectus has given written consent to the use of the prospectus for the purpose of the current offer.4

4(1B)

The conditions referred to in subsection (1A)(c) are:

(a)

that the prospectus was approved by the FCA no earlier than 12 months before the date the current offer is made, and is supplemented by every supplementary prospectus which was required to be submitted under section 87G; or

(b)

in the case of non-equity transferable securities falling within article 5(4)(b) of the prospectus directive, that the securities concerned have not ceased to be issued in a continuous or repeated manner.

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within point (1) of Section 1 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive3 to act as his agent; and

3

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor" in relation to an offer of transferable securities,3 means –

(a)

a person described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to that directive and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with that relevant firm (or each of those relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(c)

a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of that directive and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of that directive;3

3

3(d)

a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of that directive.

3(8)

In subsection (7) “relevant firm” means an investment firm or credit institution acting in connection with the offer.

3(9)

Investment firms and credit institutions must communicate their classification of their clients as being or not being qualified investors on request to an issuer, subject to complying with the Data Protection Act 1998 or any directly applicable EU legislation relating to data protection.

3(10)

In subsections (8) and (9) -

“credit institution” means -

(a) a credit institution authorised under the banking consolidation directive; or

(b) an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its registered office (or if it does not have one, its head office) in an EEA State.
PR 1.2.2RRP
In accordance with section 85(5)(b) of the Act, section 85(1) of the Act does not apply to offers of the following types of transferable securities:(1) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already issued, if the issue of the new shares does not involve any increase in the issued capital;(2) transferable securities offered in connection with a takeover by means of an exchange offer, if a document is available containing information which is regarded by the
PR 1.2.3RRP
In accordance with section 85(6)(b) of the Act, section 85(2) of the Act does not apply to the admission to trading of the following types of transferable securities:(1) transferable securities referred to in article 1(5)(a) of the Prospectus Regulation5;(2) shares issued in substitution for shares of the same class already admitted to trading on the same regulated market, if the issue of the shares does not involve any increase in the issued capital;(3) transferable securities
EG 8.5.1RP
1The FCA will consider cancelling a firm'sPart 4A permission using its own-initiative powers contained in sections 55J and 55Q respectively of the Act in two main circumstances: (1) where the FCA has very serious concerns about a firm, or the way its business is or has been conducted; (2) where the firm'sregulated activities have come to an end and it has not applied for cancellation of its Part 4A permission.
EG 8.5.2RP
1The grounds on which the FCA may exercise its power to cancel an authorised person's permission under section 55J of the Act are the same as the grounds for variation and for imposition of requirements. They are set out in section 55J(1) and section 55L(2) and described in EG 8.1.1. Examples of the types of circumstances in which the FCA may cancel a firm'sPart 4A permission include: (1) non-compliance with a Financial Ombudsman Service award against the
EG 8.5.5RP
1However, where the FCA has cancelled a firm'sPart 4A permission, it is required by section 33 of the Act to go on to give a direction withdrawing the firm'sauthorisation. Accordingly, the FCA may decide to keep a firm'sPart 4A permission in force to maintain the firm's status as an authorised person and enable it (the FCA) to monitor the firm's activities. An example is where the FCA needs to supervise an orderly winding down of the firm's regulated business (see SUP 6.4.22 (When
SUP 13.1.1GRP
This chapter applies to a UK firm, that is, a person whose head office is in the United Kingdom and which is entitled to carry on an activity in another EEA State subject to the conditions of a Single Market Directive. Such an entitlement is referred to in the Act as an EEA right and its exercise is referred to in the Handbook as passporting.1
SUP 13.1.3AGRP
9Other than the notification requirements in SUP 13.5.1AA R and SUP 13.5.2-A R and the related guidance in SUP 13.5.1B G, SUP 13.5.2A G and SUP 13.5.7 G, this chapter does not apply to a UK firm in relation to its exercise of an EEA right under the auction regulation to provide services or establish a branch in another EEA state. This is because a UK firm is not subject to the requirements in Schedule 3 to the Act in respect of its exercise of that EEA right.
SUP 13.1.5GRP
This chapter gives guidance on Schedule 3 to the Act for a UK firm which wishes to exercise its EEA right and establish a branch in, or provide cross border services into, another EEA State. That is, when a UK firm wishes to establish its first branch in, or provide cross border services for the first time into, a particular EEA State.
PERG 8.1.1GRP
1This chapter applies to persons who need to know whether their communications are subject to or comply with the Act. It also helps them decide whether their activities in making or helping others to make financial promotions are regulated activities.
PERG 8.1.2GRP
The purpose of this guidance is three-fold:11(1) to outline the restriction on financial promotion under section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion) and the main exemptions from this restriction; and(2) to outline the main circumstances in which persons who are primarily involved in making or helping others to make financial promotions may be conducting regulated activities requiring authorisation or exemption themselves; this part of the guidance may also be of
PERG 8.1.4GRP
This guidance is issued under section 139A of the Act. It represents the FCA's views and does not bind the courts. For example, it would not bind the courts in an action for damages brought by a private person for breach of a rule (see section 138D of the Act (Actions for damages)), or in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of sections 19 (The general prohibition) or 21 (Restrictions on financial promotion) of the Act (see sections 26 to
DEPP 6A.1.1GRP
1DEPP 6A sets out the FCA's2 statement of policy with respect to:423323(1) 4the imposition of suspensions or restrictions under sections 88A, 89Q and 206A of the Act, and the period for which those suspensions or restrictions are to have effect, as required by sections 88C(1), 89S(1) and 210(1) of the Act;4(2) 4the imposition of suspensions, conditions or limitations under section 66 of the Act, the period for which suspensions or conditions are to have effect, and the period
DEPP 6A.1.2GRP
(1) For the purposes of DEPP 6A, "suspension" refers to the suspension of:2(a) any permission which an authorised person has to carry on a regulated activity (under sections 123B or4 206A of the Act),2(b) any approval of the performance by an approved person of any function to which the approval relates (under section 66 of the Act),2(c) a sponsor's approval (under section 88A(2)(b) of the Act),2(d) and a primary information provider's approval (under section 89Q(2)(b) of the
DEPP 6A.1.4GRP
The powers to impose a suspension, restriction, condition or limitation3 in relation to authorised persons and approved persons, and to impose a disciplinary prohibition in relation to individuals,4 are disciplinary measures;2 where the FCA2 considers it necessary to take action, for example, to protect consumers from an authorised person, the FCA2 will seek to cancel or vary the authorised person'spermissions. If the FCA2 has concerns with a person's fitness to be approved, and
COLL 6.5.7RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager3 of an AUT3 or ACS3 is subject to removal by written notice by the depositary3 upon any of the following events:33(a) the calling of a meeting to consider a resolution for winding up the authorised fund manager3;3(b) an application being made to dissolve the authorised fund manager3 or to strike it off the Register of Companies;3(c) the presentation of a petition for the winding up of the authorised fund manager3;3(d) the making of, or any proposals
COLL 6.5.8RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager of an AUT or ACS3 has the right to retire in favour of another person eligible under the Act and approved in writing by the depositary3 upon:33(a) the retiring authorised fund manager3 appointing that person by deed as authorised fund manager3 in its place and assigning to that person all its rights and duties as such a authorised fund manager3; and333(b) the new authorised fund manager3 entering into such deeds as the depositary3 reasonably considers
COLL 6.5.10RRP
(1) The depositary of an authorised fund may not retire voluntarily except upon the appointment of a new depositary.(2) The depositary of an authorised fund must not retire voluntarily unless, before its retirement, it has ensured that the new depositary has been informed of any circumstance of which the retiring depositary has informed the FCA.(3) When the depositary of an authorised fund wishes to retire or ceases to be an authorised person, the authorised fundmanager may, subject
PERG 5.13.1GRP
Section 39 of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives) exempts appointed representatives from the need to obtain authorisation (or, in relation to an appointed representative with a limited permission, provides that sections 20(1) and (1A) and 23(1A) of the Act do not apply in relation to the carrying on of the regulated activity which is comprised in the business for which his principal has accepted responsibility and for which he does not have limited permission)1. An
PERG 5.13.2GRP
Unless a person has only a limited permission for certain credit-related regulated activities, a1person who is an authorised person cannot be an appointed representative (see section 39(1) of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives)).1
PERG 5.13.6GRP
Where a person is already an appointed representative and he proposes to carry on any insurance mediation activities, he will need to consider the following matters.(1) He must become authorised if his proposed insurance mediation activities include activities that do not fall within the table in PERG 5.13.4 G (for example, dealing as agent in pure protection contracts) and he wishes to carry on these activities. The Act does not permit any person to be exempt for some activities
PERG 4.3.3GRP
A person will only need authorisation or exemption if he is carrying on a regulated activity 'by way of business' (see section 22 of the Act (Regulated activities)). There are, in fact, three different forms of business test applied to the regulated mortgage activities. In the FCA's view, however, the difference in the business tests should have little practical effect.
PERG 4.3.4GRP
There is power in the Act for the Treasury to change the meaning of the business test by including or excluding certain things. The Business Order has been made using this power (partly reflecting differences in the nature of the different activities). The result (which is summarised in PERG 4.3.5 G) is that:(1) the 'by way of business' test in section 22 of the Act applies unchanged in relation to the activity of entering into a regulated mortgage contract;(2) the 'by way of
PERG 4.3.6GRP
The 'carrying on the business' test in the Business Order is a narrower test than that of carrying on regulated activities 'by way of business' in section 22 of the Act as it requires the regulated activities to represent the carrying on of a business in their own right. Whether or not the business test is satisfied in any particular case is ultimately a question of judgement that takes account of a number of factors (none of which is likely to be conclusive). The nature of the
SUP 10A.14.4DRP
(1) A firm must use Form E where an approved person is both ceasing to perform one or more controlled functions and needs to be approved in relation to one or more FCA controlled functions within the same firm or group.(2) A firm must not use Form E if: 2(a) the approved person has never before been approved to perform for any firm:2(i) an FCA controlled function that is2 a significant-influence function; or2(ii) an FCA-designated senior management function; or2(iii) a PRA controlled
SUP 10A.14.19GRP
Failing to disclose relevant information to the FCA may be a criminal offence under section 398 of the Act.
SUP 10A.14.21GRP
(1) If, in relation to a firm which has completed the relevant Form A (SUP 10A Annex 4D), any of the details relating to arrangements and FCA controlled functions are to change, the firm must notify the FCA on Form D (SUP 10A Annex 7R). (2) The notification under (1) must be made as soon as reasonably practicable after the firm becomes aware of the proposed change.(3) This also applies in relation to an FCA controlled function for which an application was made using Form E.(4)
COLL 7.4A.1GRP
(1) 1This section deals with the circumstances and manner in which an ACS is to be wound up or a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme is to be terminated otherwise than by the court as an unregistered company under the Insolvency Act 1986 or the Insolvency (Northern Ireland) Order 1989 (further rules regarding schemes of arrangement are found in COLL 7.6 (Schemes of arrangement)).(2) An ACS may be wound up under this section only if it is solvent. Under section 261W of the Act (Requests
COLL 7.4A.3GRP

This table belongs to COLL 7.4A.1G (5) (Explanation of COLL 7.4A)

Summary of the main steps in winding up an ACS or terminating a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme under FCArules

Notes: N = Notice to be given to the FCA under section 261Q of the Act in a section 261Q case.

R = Request to wind up the scheme under section 261W of the Act in a section 261W case.

E = commencement of winding up or termination

W/U = winding up

FAP = final accounting period

Step number

Explanation

When

COLLrule, (unless stated otherwise)

1

Commence preparation of solvency statement

N-28 days or R-28 days

7.4A.5R(2)

2

Send audited solvency statement to the FCA with copy to depositary.

By N + 21 days or by R + 21 days

7.4A.5R(4) and (5)

3

In a section 261Q case:

- the authorised contractual scheme manager receiving FCA approval;

- or one month having passed after submitting the requisite notice under section 261Q of the Act without the authorised contractual scheme manager or depositary having received from the FCA a warning notice under section 261R in respect of the proposal.

In a section 261W case, the authorised contractual scheme manager or depositary receives an indication from the FCA that, subject to there being no change in any relevant factor, on the conclusion of the winding up of the ACS, the FCA will agree to the request to wind up the ACS.

N + one month or R + one month

Section 261Q of the Act (in a section 261Q case)

7.4A.4R(3)(c) to (e) (in a section 261W case)

4

Normal business ceases; notify unitholders

E

7.4A.4R

5

Depositary to realise and distribute proceeds

ASAP after E

7.4A.6R(1)-(5)

6

Send annual long report of authorised contractual scheme manager, depositary and auditor to the FCA

Within 4 months of FAP

7.4A.9R(7)

7

Request FCA to revoke relevant authorisation order

On completion of W/U

7.4A.6R(6)
COLL 7.4A.4RRP
(1) Upon the happening of any of the matters or dates referred to in (3), and subject to the requirement of (4) being satisfied, and not otherwise:(a) COLL 6.2 (Dealing), COLL 6.3(Valuation and pricing) and COLL 5 (Investment and borrowing powers) cease to apply to the ACS or to the units and scheme property in the case of a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme; (b) the depositary must cease to issue and cancelunits, except in respect of the final cancellation under COLL 7.4A.6R
COLL 7.4A.5RRP
(1) Either before notice is given under section 261Q of the Act or before a request is made under section 261W of the Act in relation to the proposals referred to in COLL 7.4A.4R (4), the authorised contractual scheme manager must make a full inquiry into the ACS's (or, in the case of the termination of a sub-fund of a co-ownership scheme, the sub-fund's) affairs, business and property to establish whether the ACS or the sub-fund will be able to meet all its liabilities.(2) The