Related provisions for LR 11.1.7B

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FEES 5.2.1GRP
Paragraph 9 of Schedule 17 to the Act (The Ombudsman Scheme) requires FOS Ltd to adopt an annual budget which has been approved by the FCA. The annual budget must distinguish between the costs of operating the Compulsory Jurisdiction and the Voluntary Jurisdiction. 3
FEES 5.2.2GRP
Section 234 of the Act (Industry Funding) enables the FCA to require the payment to it or to FOS Ltd, by firms or any class of firm, of specified amounts (or amounts calculated in a specified way) to cover the costs of: (1) the establishment of 1the Financial Ombudsman Service; and (2) its operation in relation to the Compulsory Jurisdiction.
SUP 16.14.3RRP
(1) Subject to (3), a4firm must submit a completed CMAR to the FCA10 within 15 business days of the end of each month.410(2) In this rule month means a calendar month and SUP 16.3.13 R (4) does not apply.(3) 4A firm which changes its 'CASS firm type' and notifies the FCA10 that it is a CASS medium firm or a CASS large firm in accordance with CASS 1A.2.9 R is not required to submit a CMAR in respect of the month in which the change to its 'CASS firm type' takes effect in accordance
SUP 16.14.6RRP
3A CMAR must be submitted by electronic means made available by the FCA10.10
PERG 8.37.2GRP
Regulations 49 and 50 place restrictions on an AIFMmarketing an AIF. These regulations provide that the following types of AIFM may not market the following types of an AIF in the UK unless the conditions summarised below are met.(1) The conditions that need to be met vary depending on whether the AIF falls within regulation 57(1) or not. An AIF falls within this regulation if it is: (a) a feeder AIF that is a UK AIF or an EEA AIF, the master AIF of which is managed by a non-EEA
PERG 8.37.5GRP
(1) The terms 'offering' or 'placement' are not defined in the AIFMD UK regulation but, in our view, an offering or placement takes place for the purposes of the AIFMD UK regulation when a person seeks to raise capital by making a unit of share of anAIF available for purchase by a potential investor. This includes situations which constitute a contractual offer that can be accepted by a potential investor in order to make the investment and form a binding contract, and situations
PERG 8.37.14GRP
(1) Regulation 46 (Application of the financial promotion and scheme promotion restrictions) provides that where a person may market an AIF under regulation 49, 50 or 51:(a) to the extent that such marketing falls within section 21(1) (restrictions on financial promotion) or 238(1) (restrictions on promotion) of the Act, the person may market the AIF to a retail client only if the person does so without breaching the restriction in that section; and(b) to the extent that any activity
PERG 4.10.3GRP
In the FCA's view, for arranging or advice to be a necessary part of other services it must, as a general rule, be the case that it is not possible for the other services to be provided unless the arranging or advising are also provided.
PERG 4.10.4GRP
Situations where this exclusion might apply, in the FCA's view, are set out below:(1) Advice by solicitors: the provision of legal services may involve a solicitor advising his client on the legal effects and consequences of entering into a particular regulated mortgage contract. To the extent that this may involve advice on the merits of entering into the contract it is likely to be a necessary part of the legal advice. But it would not be necessary for the solicitor to go on
APER 4.2.2GRP
3In the opinion of the FCA, conduct of the type described in APER 4.2.3G, APER 4.2.5G, APER 4.2.6G, APER 4.2.8G, APER 4.2.10G, APER 4.2.11G or APER 4.2.14G does not comply with Statement of Principle 2.5
APER 4.2.2AGRP
35In the opinion of the FCA, conduct of the type described in described in APER 4.2.13 G does not comply with Statement of Principle 2.
2A firm should keep a record of and be ready to explain to its supervisory contacts in the FCA2 the reasons for any difference between the deficit reduction amount and any commitment the firm has made in any public document to provide funding in respect of a defined benefit occupational pension scheme.
2The conditions referred to in IPRU-INV 13.1A.19R are:(1) the subordinated loan must be fully paid up; (2) the subordinated loan must have an original maturity of at least five years or, where there is no fixed term, the subordinated loan must be subject to not less than five years' notice of repayment3;(3) the agreement governing the subordinated loan must only permit repayment3, prepayment or termination on:(a) maturity, or on expiration of the period of notice, if a firm has at
FEES 6.4.5RRP
Subject to3FEES 6.3.22 R, the FSCS must calculate a participant firm's share of a base costs levy by:33(1) identifying the base costs which the FSCS has incurred, or expects to incur, in the relevant financial year of the compensation scheme, but has not yet levied and:33(a) 3allocating 50% of those base costs as the sum to be levied on participants in activity groups A.1, A.3, A.4, A.5 and A.6 (as listed in FEES 4 Annex 1B R); and10(b) 3allocating 50% of those base costs as the
FEES 6.4.6ARRP
4The FSCS must allocate any specific costs levy:(1) first, amongst the relevant classes in proportion to the amount of relevant costs arising from the different activities for which firms in those classes have permission up to the levy limit of each relevant class. The FCA provider contribution classes are not relevant classes for this purpose; and(2) thereafter, where the levy limit has been reached (whether as a result of compensation costs or specific costs or both) for a class
REC 2.16.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body has effective arrangements for the investigation and resolution of complaints arising in connection with the performance of, or failure to perform, any of its regulatory functions, the FCA3 may have regard to the extent to which the UK recognised body's resources and procedures enable it to:3(1) acknowledge complaints promptly;(2) make an objective, prompt and thorough initial investigation of complaints;(3) provide a timely reply to
REC 2.16.4GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body's arrangements for the investigation of complaints include appropriate arrangements for the complaint to be fairly and impartially investigated by an independent person (a "complaints investigator"), the FCA3 may have regard to:3(1) the arrangements made for appointing (and removing) a complaints investigator, including the terms and conditions of such an appointment and the provision for remuneration of a complaints investigator; (2)
SUP 13A.7.1GRP
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part 4A permission from the appropriate UK regulator3 to do so (see the appropriate UK regulator's website: www.fca.org.uk/firms/authorisation/apply-authorisation for the FCA and
SUP 13A.7.4GRP
For guidance on how to apply for Part 4A permission3 under the Act, see the appropriate UK regulator's website: http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation/getting-authorised for the FCA and www.bankofengland.co.uk/pra/Pages/authorisations/newfirm/default.aspx for the PRA.31 If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part
MCOB 6.9.8RRP
As soon as a SRB agreement provider has provided the written pre-offer document at Stage One to a SRB agreement seller who is in arrears under his regulated mortgage contract or home purchase plan on the property to which the proposed regulated sale and rent back agreement relates, it must, in a durable medium, immediately notify the mortgage lender, home purchase provider or the providers of other loans that may be secured on the property:(1) explaining that the firm is proposing
MCOB 6.9.11RRP
The SRB agreement provider must keep a record of the written pre-offer document at Stage One and the written offer document for signing at Stage Two for a period of:(1) one year after the end of the fixed term of the tenancy under the regulated sale and rent back agreement; or(2) five years from the date of the disclosures and warnings, written offer documents and cooling-off period notices;whichever is the longer.
IFPRU 11.1.2GRP
(1) An IFPRU 730k firm that is not subject to supervision on a consolidated basis will not be an RRD group member.(2) An IFPRU 730k firm may be subject to supervision on a consolidated basis by the FCA, the PRA or another competent authority.
IFPRU 11.1.3RRP
This chapter does not apply to: (1) a PRA authorised person; (2) an RRD group member that is: (a) a qualifying parent undertaking of a PRAauthorised person; and(b) subject to supervision on a consolidated basis by the PRA; and(3) a qualifying parent undertaking that is a mixed activity holding company of a PRA authorised person.
REC 6.3.1GRP
Before making a recognition order, the FCA3 will need to be satisfied that the recognition requirements in section 292(3) of the Act (Overseas investment exchanges) have been met. These requirements are the only recognition requirements applicable to ROIEs3. 333
REC 6.3.2UKRP

Sections 292(3) and 292(4) state:

2Section 292(3)

The requirements are that-

(a)

investors are afforded protection equivalent to that which they would be afforded if the body concerned were required to comply withrecognition requirementsother than such requirements which are expressed in regulations under section 286 not to apply for the purposes of this paragraph3;

(b)

there are adequate procedures for dealing with a person who is unable, or likely to become unable, to meet his obligations in respect of one or more market contracts connected with the [ROIE]

3

(c)

the applicant is able and willing to co-operate with the[FCA]3by the sharing of information and in other ways; and

3

(d)

adequate arrangements exist for co-operation between the[FCA]3and those responsible for the supervision of the applicant in the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated.

3

Section 292(4)

In considering whether it is satisfied as to the requirements mentioned in subsections (3)(a) and (b), the[FCA]3is to have regard to-

3

(a)

the relevant law and practice of the country or territory in which the applicant's head office is situated;

(b)

the rules and practices of the applicant.

ICOBS 3.2.8RRP
The requirements relating to the placing and receipt of orders do not apply to contracts concluded exclusively by exchange of e-mail or by equivalent individual communications.[Note: article 10(4) and 11(3) of the E-Commerce Directive]
LR 10.5.3GRP
1The FCA would (amongst other things) generally consider an increase of 10% or more in the consideration payable to be a material change to the terms of the transaction.
LR 10.5.4RRP
(1) 2If a listed company becomes aware of a matter described in (2) after the publication of a circular that seeks shareholder approval for a transaction expressly requiring a vote by the listing rules, but before the date of a general meeting, it must, as soon as practicable:(a) advise the FCA of the matters of which it has become aware; and(b) send a supplementary circular to holders of its listedequity shares providing an explanation of the matters referred to in (2).(2) The
DISP 1.3.2AGRP
416These procedures should, taking into account the nature, scale and complexity of the respondent's business, ensure that lessons learned as a result of determinations by the Ombudsman are effectively applied in future complaint handling, for example by:(1) relaying a determination by the Ombudsman to the individuals in the respondent who handled the complaint and using it in their training and development;(2) analysing any patterns in determinations by the Ombudsman concerning
DISP 1.3.8GRP
4Firms are not required to notify the name of the individual to the FCA or the Financial Ombudsman Service but would be expected to do so promptly on request. There is no bar on a firm appointing different individuals to have the responsibility at different times where this is to accommodate part-time or flexible working.
(1) The FCA1 considers it reasonable for a firm's policy to exclude cover for:(a) specific business lines if that type of business has not been carried out by the firm in the past and will not be carried out by the firm during the life of the policy; or (b) specific claims that have been previously notified to the firm'sinsurer and claimed for under another policy. (2) The FCA1 does not consider it reasonable for a firm's policy to treat legal defence
A firm must notify the FCA1 immediately if it becomes aware, or has information which reasonably suggests, that any of the following matters in relation to its professional indemnity insurance has occurred, may have occurred or may occur in the foreseeable future: (1) professional indemnity insurance cannot be obtained within 28 days of the inception or renewal date; (2) professional indemnity insurance is cancelled; (3) the amount of aggregate cover is exhausted;
(1) 1For the purposes of the provisions relating to professional indemnity insurance, “additional capital resources” means readily realisable own funds or capital resources under IPRU-INV 13.15.3R, depending on the type of firm1.(2) 1The FCA1 expects items included in own funds or capital resources under IPRU-INV 13.15.3R, depending on the type of firm,1 to be regarded as “readily realisable” only if they can be realised, at any given time, within 90 days.
PERG 6.3.1GRP
The business of effecting or carrying out contracts of insurance is subject to prior authorisation under the Act1and regulation by the FCA and PRA1. (There are some limited exceptions to this requirement, for example, for breakdown insurance.)1
PERG 6.3.2GRP
The Regulated Activities Order, which sets out the activities for which authorisation is required, does not attempt an exhaustive definition of a 'contract of insurance'. Instead, it makes some specific extensions and limitations to the general common law meaning of the concept. For example, it expressly extends the concept to fidelity bonds and similar contracts of guarantee, which are not contracts of insurance at common law, and it excludes certain funeral plan contracts, which
SYSC 4.9.6GRP
The information and material in SYSC 4.9.4R that should be made available includes details:(1) about unresolved or possible breaches of the requirements of the regulatory system; and(2) of any unresolved concerns expressed by the FCA, the PRA or another regulatory body.
SYSC 4.9.8GRP
(1) Where the responsibilities or job in SYSC 4.9.4R are being taken over from another person, the firm should have arrangements for an orderly transition.(2) As part of these arrangements, the firm should take reasonable steps to ensure that the predecessor contributes to the information and material in SYSC 4.9.4R all that would be reasonable to expect the predecessor to know and consider relevant, including the predecessor’s opinions.(3) One way of doing this could be for the
PR 3.4.1UKRP

Section 87G of the Act provides that:

(1)

Subsection (2) applies if, during the relevant period, there arises or is noted a significant new factor, material mistake or inaccuracy relating to the information included in a prospectus approved by the [FCA].

(2)

The person on whose application the prospectus was approved must, in accordance with prospectus rules, submit a supplementary prospectus containing details of the new factor, mistake or inaccuracy to the [FCA] for its approval.

(3)

The relevant period begins when the prospectus is approved by the [FCA] and ends –

(a)

with the closure of the offer of the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates; or

(b)

when trading in those securities on a regulated market begins.

4(3A)

But where the prospectus relates both to an offer of transferable securities to the public and the admission of those securities to trading on a regulated market, subsection (3) does not apply and the relevant period beings when the prospectus is approved and ends with the later of -

(a)

the closure of the offer to the public to which the prospectus relates; or

(b)

the time when trading in those securities on a regulated market begins.

(4)

"Significant" means significant for the purposes of making an informed assessment of the kind mentioned in section 87A(2).

(5)

Any person responsible for the prospectus who is aware of any new factor, mistake or inaccuracy which may require the submission of a supplementary prospectus in accordance with subsection (2) must give notice of it to –

(a)

the issuer of the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates, and

(b)

the person on whose application the prospectus was approved.

(6)

A supplementary prospectus must provide sufficient information to correct any mistake or inaccuracy which gave rise to the need for it.

(7)

Subsection (1) applies also to information contained in any supplementary prospectus published under this section.

PR 3.4.3RRP
1In the event that a requirement for a supplement is triggered, then as soon as practicable after the new factor, mistake or inaccuracy arises or is noted, a3person referred to in section 87G(2) of the Act must submit a supplementary prospectus referred to in that section to the FCA for approval.33
REC 2A.3.1GRP
In assessing compliance with the RAP recognition requirements, the FCA3 will have regard to relevant guidance in REC 2 on the equivalent requirements set out in the Recognition Requirement Regulations. The FCA3 may also take into account compliance by the RAP or RAP applicant with the recognition requirements (see REC 2A.2.1 UK). The FCA3 will not make a separate assessment of compliance with the recognition requirements during the course of examining an application to become
REC 2A.3.2GRP

The guidance in relation to the recognition requirements in the sections of REC 2 listed in Column A of the table below applies to an RAP in relation to the equivalent RAP recognition requirements listed in Column C and (if shown) with the modifications in Column B.

Table: Guidance on RAP recognition requirements

Column A

REC 2 guidance which applies to an RAP

Column B

Modification to REC 2 guidance for an RAP

Column C

Relevant RAP recognition requirement

REC 2.2.2 G to REC 2.2.7 G (Relevant circumstances and Outsourcing)

Reg 13

REC 2.3.3 G to REC 2.3.9 G (Financial resources)

Reg 14

REC 2.4.3 G to REC 2.4.6 G (Suitability)

In addition to the matters set out in REC 2.4.3 G to REC 2.4.6 G, the FCA3 will have regard to whether a key individual has been allocated responsibility for overseeing the auction platform of the UK recognised body.

3

Reg 15

REC 2.5.3 G to REC 2.5.20 G (Systems and controls and conflicts) and REC 2.5A (Guidance on Public Interest Disclosure Act: Whistleblowing)

Reg 16 and 17(2)(f)1

REC 2.6.26 G to REC 2.6.34 G (Safeguards for investors)

Reg 17

REC 2.7.3 G to REC 2.7.4 G (Access to facilities)

The FCA3 shall have regard to whether an RAP provides access to bid at auctions only to those persons eligible to bid under article 18 of the auction regulation.

3

Reg 17(2)(a) and1 20

REC 2.8.3 G to REC 2.8.4 G (Settlement and clearing services)

Reg 17(2)(d) and 21

REC 2.9.3 G to REC 2.9.4 G (Transaction recording)

Reg 17(2)(e)

REC 2.10.3 G to REC 2.10.4 G (Financial crime and market abuse)

Reg 17(2)(g)

REC 2.11.3 G to REC 2.11.4 G (Custody)

REC 2.11.4 G is replaced with the following for an RAP:

Where an RAP arranges for other persons to provide services for the safeguarding and administration services of assets belonging to users of its facilities, it will also need to satisfy the RAP recognition requirement in regulation 17(2)(h) of the RAP regulations (see REC 2A.2.1 UK).

Reg 17(2)(h)

REC 2.12.11 G to REC 2.12.12 G (Availability of relevant information)

REC 2.12.11 G to REC 2.12.12 G are replaced with the following for an RAP:

REC 2.12.11 G

In determining whether appropriate arrangements have been made to make relevant information available to persons engaged in dealing in emissions auction products2 the FCA3 may have regard to:

(1) the extent to which auction bidders are able to obtain information in a timely fashion about the terms of those emissions auction products2 and the terms on which they will be auctioned, either through accepted channels for dissemination of information or through other regularly and widely accessible communication media;

(2) what restrictions, if any, there are on the dissemination of relevant information to auction bidders; and

(3) whether relevant information is, or can be, kept to restricted groups of persons in such a way as to facilitate or encourage market abuse.

REC 2.12.12 G

An RAP does not need to maintain its own arrangements for providing information on the terms of emissions auction products2 to auction bidders where it has made adequate arrangements for other persons to do so on its behalf or there are other effective and reliable arrangements for this purpose.

2322

Reg 17(2)(c)

REC 2.13.3 G to REC 2.13.6 G (Promotion and maintenance of standards)

Reg 18

REC 2.14.3 G to REC 2.14.6 G (Rules and consultation)

Reg 19

REC 2.15.3 G to REC 2.15.6 G (Discipline)

Reg 22

REC 2.16.3 G to REC 2.16.4 G (Complaints)

Reg 23