Related provisions for SUP 11.7.1

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INSPRU 1.5.1RRP
INSPRU 1.5 applies to an insurer except any insurer in (1) to (3):8(1) 8(a) non-directive friendly societies; or8(b) Solvency II firms;8(2) none of the provisions, apart from INSPRU 1.5.33 R (payment of financial penalties), apply to firms which qualify for authorisation under Schedule 4 of the Act;8(3) INSPRU 1.5.33 R (payment of financial penalties) does not apply to mutuals.8
COLL 9.4.1RRP
(1) The operator of a recognised scheme under section 264 or section 272 of the Act must maintain facilities in the United Kingdom in order to satisfy the requirements of COLL 9.4.2 R to COLL 9.4.6 R. 4(2) In this section, a facility is a place of business that complies with COLL 9.4.6 R (Place of facilities).
SYSC 22.9.5GRP
(1) SYSC 22.9.1R applies to keeping records created before the date this chapter came into force as well as ones created afterwards.(2) A full scope regulatory reference firm does not breach the requirements of this chapter by failing to include something in a reference because it destroyed the relevant records before the date this chapter came into force in accordance with the record keeping requirements applicable to it at the time of destruction.
MCOB 6.4.4RRP
The illustration provided as part of the offer document in accordance with MCOB 6.4.1 R (1) must meet the requirements of MCOB 5.6 (Content of illustrations) with the following modifications:(1) the illustration must be suitably adapted and revised to reflect the fact that the firm is making an offer to a customer and updated to reflect changes to, for example, the interest rate, charges, the exchange rate or the APR required by MCOB 10 (Annual Percentage Rate), at the date the
PRIN 3.1.5GRP
PRIN 3.1.1 R (4) reflects section 266 of the Act (Disapplication of rules).
FIT 1.1.2GRP
The purpose of FIT is to set out and describe the criteria that:1(1) a relevant authorised person should consider when:1(a) assessing the fitness and propriety of a candidate whom the firm is proposing to put forward for approval as an FCA-approved SMF manager;1(b) assessing the continuing fitness and propriety of a person approved to perform the function of an FCA-approved SMF manager, including for formulating an opinion about whether there are any grounds on which the regulator
SUP 10A.6.16GRP
(1) This paragraph explains the basis on which the director function and the non-executive director function are applied to persons who have a position with the firm'sparent undertaking or holding company under SUP 10A.6.8 R or SUP 10A.6.13 R.(2) The basic position is set out in SUP 10A.3.4 G. As is the case with all controlled functions, SUP 10A.6.8 R and SUP 10A.6.13 R are subject to the overriding provisions in SUP 10A.3.1 R, which sets out the requirements of section 59(1)
LR 9.2.6RRP
A listed company that is not already required to comply with the obligations referred to under article 17 of the Market Abuse Regulation12 must comply with those obligations12 as if it were an issuer for the purposes of the disclosure requirements12 and transparency rules subject to article 22 of the Market Abuse Regulation12.1
BIPRU 12.4.3GRP
Consistent with BIPRU 12.3.5R, the expects that the extent and frequency of such testing, as well as the degree of regularity of governing body review under BIPRU 12.4.2R, should be proportionate to the nature scale and complexity of a firm's activities, as well as to the size of its liquidity risk exposures. Consistent with the appropriate regulator's statutory objectives under the Act, in assessing the adequacy of a firm's stress testing arrangements (including their frequency
REC 6.2.4GRP
There is no standard application form for application for recognition as an ROIE2. An application should be made in accordance with any direction the FCA3 may make under section 287 (Application by an investment exchange) of the Act and should include:333(1) the information, evidence and explanatory material necessary to demonstrate to the FCA3 that the recognition requirements (set out in REC 6.3) will be met;(2) the application fee (see REC 7);(3) the address of the applicant's
EG App 2.1.9RP
2The following are indicators of whether action by the FCA or one of the other agencies is more appropriate. They are not listed in any particular order or ranked according to priority. No single feature of the case should be considered in isolation, but rather the whole case should be considered in the round.(a) 2 Tending towards action by the FCAWhere the suspected conduct in question gives rise to concerns regarding market confidence or protection of consumers of services regulated
IFPRU 4.14.3GRP
A firm may apply to the FCA under section 138A of the Act to waiveIFPRU 4.14.2 R if it wishes to use the residual maturity of the interest-rate contract.
FIT 1.3.4AGRP
1A relevant authorised person assessing the continuing fitness and propriety of an approved person is required to notify the FCA under section 63(2A) of the Act if it forms the opinion that there are grounds on which the FCA could withdraw its approval (see SUP 10C.14.24R). In discharging its obligation to notify the FCA, a relevant authorised person should take into account how relevant and how important the matter is that comes to its attention which suggests an approved person
SYSC 22.2.3RRP

Table: What positions need a reference

Position

When to obtain reference

Comments

(A) Permitting or appointing someone to perform an FCA controlled function or a PRA controlled function.

One month before the end of the application period

Where a request for a reference would require:

(a) the firm requesting the reference;

(b) the employer giving the reference; or

(c) any other person;

to make a mandatory disclosure prior to P disclosing to its current employer that such application has been made, the date is the end of the application period.

(B) Issuing a certificate under section 63F of the Act (Certification of employees by relevant authorised persons).

Before the certificate is issued

This includes renewing an existing certificate.

(C) Appointing someone to any of the following positions (as defined in the PRA Rulebook):

(a) a notified non-executive director;

(b) a credit union non-executive director; or

(c) a key function holder.

Not applicable

SYSC 22.2.1R (obligation to obtain a reference) does not apply to a firm appointing someone to the position in column (1).

However SYSC 22.2.2R does apply to a firm asked to give a reference to a firm appointing someone to the position in column (1).

Note 1: Mandatory disclosure means an obligation in any applicable laws, regulations or rules to declare or disclose information to the public.

Note 2: P refers to the employee or ex-employee about whom the reference is given as defined in more detail in SYSC 22.2.1R and SYSC 22.2.2R.

Note 3: The application period means the period for consideration referred to in section 61 of the Act (Determination of application).

CASS 5.3.1GRP
Section 137B(1) of the Act (Miscellaneous ancillary matters) provides that rules may make provision which results in client money being held by a firm on trust (England and Wales and Northern Ireland) or as agent (Scotland only). CASS 5.3.2 R creates a fiduciary relationship between the firm and its client under which client money is in the legal ownership of the firm but remains in the beneficial ownership of the client. In the event of failure of the firm, costs relating to
DISP App 1.1.5GRP
This appendix is also relevant to complaints which the Ombudsman may investigate under the Compulsory Jurisdiction or Voluntary Jurisdiction of the Financial Ombudsman Service established under Part XVI of the Act (The Ombudsman Scheme).2525
PR App 1.1.1RP

1Note: The following definitions relevant to the prospectus rules are extracted from the Glossary.

Act

the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000.

admission to trading

admission to trading on a regulated market.

advertisement

(as defined in the PD Regulation) announcements:

(1)

relating to a specific offer to the public of securities or to an admission to trading on a regulated market; and

(2)

aiming to specifically promote the potential subscription or acquisition of securities.4

applicant

an applicant for approval of a prospectus or supplementary prospectus relating to transferable securities.

asset backed security

(as defined in the PD Regulation) securities which:

(1)

represent an interest in assets, including any rights intended to assure servicing, or the receipt or timeliness of receipts by holders of assets of amounts payable thereunder; or

(2)

are secured by assets and the terms of which provide for payments which relate to payments or reasonable projections of payments calculated by reference to identified or identifiable assets.

base prospectus

a base prospectus referred to in PR 2.2.7 R.

body corporate

(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions) any body corporate, including a body corporate constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom;

building block

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of additional information requirements, not included in one of the schedules, to be added to one or more schedules, as the case may be, depending on the type of instrument and/or transaction for which a prospectus or base prospectus is drawn up.4

collective investment undertaking other than the closed-end type

(in PR) (as defined in Article 2.1(o) of the prospectus directive) unit trusts and investment companies:

(1)

the object of which is the collective investment of capital provided by the public, and which operate on the principle of risk-spreading;

(2)

the units of which are, at the holder's request, repurchased or redeemed, directly or indirectly, out of the assets of these undertakings.4

4company

any body corporate.

Consolidated Admissions and Reporting Directive

Directive 2001/34/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council on the admission of securities to official stock exchange listing and on information to be published on those securities.

credit institution

as defined in article 4(1)(1) of the 7EUCRR.7

77

director

(in accordance with section 417(1)(a) of the Act) a person occupying in relation to it the position of a director (by whatever name called) and, in relation to an issuer which is not a body corporate, a person with corresponding powers and duties.

EEA State

(in accordance with paragraph 8 of Schedule 3 to the Act (EEA Passport Rights)) a State which is a contracting party to the agreement on the European Economic Area signed at Oporto on 2 May 1992, as it has effect for the time being; as at 1 May 2004, the following are the EEA States: Austria, Belgium, Cyprus, the Czech Republic, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, Iceland, Ireland, Italy, Latvia, Liechtenstein, Lithuania, Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, Norway, Poland, Portugal, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, Spain, Sweden and the United Kingdom.

equity security

(as defined in Article 2.1(b) of the prospectus directive) shares and other transferable securities equivalent to shares in companies, as well as any other type of transferable securities giving the right to acquire any of the aforementioned securities as a consequence of their being converted or the rights conferred by them being exercised, provided that securities of the latter type are issued by the issuer of the underlying shares or by an entity belonging to the group of the said issuer.

equity share

shares comprised in a company'sequity share capital.

equity share capital

(for a company), its issued share capital excluding any part of that capital which, neither as respects dividends nor as respects capital, carries any right to participate beyond a specified amount in a distribution.

ESMA Prospectus Opinions10

8

the following opinions published by ESMA:10

(1)

Format of the base prospectus and consistent application of article 26(4) of the Prospectus Regulation (ESMA/2013/1944);10

(2)

Framework for the assessment of third country prospectuses under article 20 of the Prospectus Directive (ESMA/2013/317);10

(3)

Assessment of Israeli laws and regulations on prospectuses (ESMA/2015/1015); and10

(4)

Assessment of Turkish laws and regulations on prospectuses (ESMA/2016/268). 10

8ESMA Prospectus Questions and Answers

the Questions and Answers for prospectuses published by ESMA (ESMA/2016/1674)13.

10

ESMA Prospectus Recommendations8

8

the ESMA update of the CESR8recommendations: The consistent implementation of Commission Regulation (EC) No 809/2004 implementing the Prospectus Directive (ESMA/2013/319).8

8

executive procedures

the procedures relating to the giving of warning notices, decision notices and supervisory notices that are described in DEPP 4 (Decision by FCA staff under executive procedures)2.

22

FCA

the Financial Conduct Authority.

guarantee

(as defined in the PD Regulation) any arrangement intended to ensure that any obligation material to the issue will be duly serviced, whether in the form of guarantee, surety, keep well agreement, mono-line insurance policy or other equivalent commitment.

guarantor

a person that provides a guarantee.

Home State or Home Member State

(as defined in section 102C of the Act) in relation to an issuer of transferable securities, the EEA State which is the "home Member State" for the purposes of the prospectus directive (which is to be determined in accordance with Article 2.1(m) of that directive).

Host State or Host Member State

(as defined in Article 2.1(n) of the prospectus directive) the EEA State where an offer to the public is made or admission to trading is sought, when different from the home State.

issuer

(as defined in section 102A of the Act) a legal person who issues or proposes to issue the transferable securities in question.4

4key information

(in PR) (as defined in section 87A(9) and (10) of the Act) the information which is essential to enable investors to understand the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates and decide whether to consider the offer further. The key information must include:

(a)

the essential characteristics of, and risks associated with, the issuer and any guarantor, including their assets, liabilities and financial positions;

(b)

the essential characteristics of, and risks associated with, investment in the transferable securities, including any rights attaching to the securities;

(c)

the general terms of the offer, including an estimate of the expenses charged to an investor by the issuer and the offeror, if not the issuer;

(d)

details of the admission to trading; and

(e)

the reasons for the offer and proposed use of the proceeds.

5limited liability partnership

(a)

a body corporate incorporated under the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000;

(b)

a body corporate incorporated under legislation having the equivalent effect to the Limited Liability Partnerships Act 2000.

MiFID3

The European Parliament and Council Directive on markets in financial instruments (No. 2004/39/EC).

See also MiFID Regulation and MiFID implementing Directive.3

non-equity transferable securities

(as defined in section 102A of the Act) all transferable securities that are not equity securities.

Note: In the prospectus directive and the PD Regulation, the Commission uses the term "non-equity securities" rather than "non-equity transferable securities".

offer

an offer of transferable securities to the public.

offer of transferable securities to the public

(as defined in section 102B of the Act), in summary:

(a)

a communication to any person which presents sufficient information on:

  • (i) the transferable securities to be offered, and
  • (ii) the terms on which they are offered,

to enable an investor to decide to buy or subscribe for the securities in question;

(b)

which is made in any form or by any means;

(c)

including the placing of securities through a financial intermediary;

(d)

but not including a communication in connection with trading on:

  • (i) a regulated market;
  • (ii) a multilateral trading facility; or
  • (iii) any market prescribed by an order under section 130A of the Act.

Note: This is only a summary, to see the full text of the definition, readers should consult section 102B of the Act.

offering programme

(as defined in Article 2.1(k) of the prospectus directive) a plan which would permit the issuance of non-equity securities, including warrants in any form, having a similar type and/or class, in a continuous or repeated manner during a specified issuing period.

offeror

a person who makes an offer of transferable securities to the public.

5officer

(in relation to a body corporate) (as defined in section 400(5) of the Act (Offences by bodies corporate etc)) a director, member of the committee of management, chief executive, manager, secretary, or other similar officer of the body, or a person purporting to act in that capacity or a controller of the body.

overseas company

a company incorporated outside the United Kingdom.

Part 6 rules

(in accordance with section 73A(1) of the Act), rules made for the purposes of Part 6 of the Act.

5partnership

(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) any partnership, including a partnership constituted under the law of a country or territory outside the United Kingdom, but not including a limited liability partnership.

PD

prospectus directive.

PD Regulation

Regulation number 809/2004 of the European Commission.

person

(in accordance with the Interpretation Act 1978) any person, including a body of persons corporate or unincorporated that is, a natural person, a legal person and, for example, a partnership).

PR

the Prospectus Rules sourcebook.

profit estimate

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a profit forecast for a financial period which has expired and for which results have not yet been published.

profit forecast

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a form of words which expressly states or by implication indicates a figure or a minimum or maximum figure for the likely level of profits or losses for the current financial period and/or financial periods subsequent to that period, or contains data from which a calculation of such a figure for future profits or losses may be made, even if no particular figure is mentioned and the word "profit" is not used.

property collective investment undertaking

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking whose investment objective is the participation in the holding of property in the long term.

prospectus

a prospectus required under the prospectus directive.

prospectus directive

the Directive of the European Parliament and of the Council of 4 November 2003 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading (No 2003/71/EC).

13Prospectus Regulation

Regulation (EU) No 2017/1129 of the European Parliament and of the Council of 14 June 2017 on the prospectus to be published when securities are offered to the public or admitted to trading on a regulated market, and repealing Directive 2003/71/EC.

Prospectus RTS Regulations9

8

9(1)

9Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) No 382/2014 supplementing Directive 2003/71/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards for publication of supplements to the prospectus9; and

9(2)

9Commission Delegated Regulation (EU) 2016/301 supplementing Directive 2003/71/EC of the European Parliament and of the Council with regard to regulatory technical standards for approval and publication of the prospectus and dissemination of advertisements and amending Commission Regulation (EC) No 809/2004.

Prospectus Rules

(as defined in section 73A(4) of the Act) rules expressed to relate to transferable securities.

Public international body

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a legal entity of public nature established by an international treaty between sovereign States and of which one or more Member States are members.

qualified investor

(as defined in section 86(7) of the Act) in relation to an offer of transferable securities:4

(a)

a person or entity described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to MiFID, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with MiFID; or4

4

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to MiFID and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of MiFID; or4

4

(c)

a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of MiFID and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of MiFID; or4

4

(d)

a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of MiFID.4

registration document

a registration document referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.

regulated information

(as defined in the PD Regulation) all information which the issuer, or any person who has applied for the admission of securities to trading on a regulated market without the issuer’s consent, is required to disclose under Directive 2001/34/EC or under Article 6 of Directive 2003/6/EC.3

regulated market

a multilateral system operated and/or managed by a market operator, which brings together or facilitates the bringing together of multiple third-party buying and selling interests in financial instruments in the system and in accordance with its non-discretionary rules in a way that results in a contract, in respect of the financial instruments admitted to trading under its rules and/or systems, and which is authorised and functions regularly and in accordance with the provisions of Title III of MiFID.3

RIS

Regulatory Information Service.

risk factors

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of risks which are specific to the situation of the issuer and/or the securities and which are material for taking investment decisions.

rule

(in accordance with section 417(1) of the Act (Definitions)) a rule made by the FCA under the Act.

schedule

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a list of minimum information requirements adapted to the particular nature of the different types of issuers and/or the different securities involved.

securities issued in a continuous and repeated manner

(as defined in Article 2.1(l) of the prospectus directive) issues on tap or at least two separate issues of securities of a similar type and/or class over a period of 12 months.

securities note

a securities note referred to in PR 2.2.2 R.

small and medium-sized enterprise

(as defined in Article 2.1(f) of the prospectus directive) companies, which, according to their last annual or consolidated accounts, meet at least two of the following three criteria: an average number of employees during the financial year of less than 250, a total balance sheet not exceeding €43,000,000 and an annual net turnover not exceeding €50,000,000.

special purpose vehicle

(as defined in the PD Regulation) an issuer whose objects and purposes are primarily the issue of securities.

statutory notice associated decision

a decision which is made by the FCA and which is associated with a decision to give a statutory notice, including a decision:

statutory notice decision

a decision by the FCA on whether or not to give a statutory notice.

(a)

to determine or extend the period for making representations;

(b)

to determine whether a copy of the statutory notice needs to be given to any third party and the period for him to make representations;

(c)

to refuse access to FCA material;

(d)

as to the information which it is appropriate to publish about the matter to which a final notice or an effective supervisory notice relates.

summary

(in relation to a prospectus) the summary included in the prospectus.

supplementary prospectus

a supplementary prospectus containing details of a new factor, mistake or inaccuracy.

transferable security

(as defined in section 102A of the Act) anything which is a transferable security for the purposes of MiFID3, other than money-market instruments for the purposes of that directive which have a maturity of less than 12 months.

3

Note: In the prospectus directive and PD regulation, the Commission uses the term "security" rather than "transferable security".

umbrella collective investment scheme

(as defined in the PD Regulation) a collective investment undertaking invested in one or more collective investment undertakings, the asset of which is composed of separate class(es) or designation(s) of securities.

United Kingdom

England and Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland (but not the Channel Islands or the Isle of Man).

units of a collective investment scheme

(as defined in Article 2.1(p) of the prospectus directive) securities issued by a collective investment undertaking as representing the rights of the participants in such an undertaking over its assets.

working day

(as defined in section 103 of the Act) any day other than a Saturday, a Sunday, Christmas Day, Good Friday or a day which is a bank holiday under the Banking and Financial Dealings Act 1971 in any part of the United Kingdom.

SYSC 5.1.5GRP
The requirements on firms with respect to approved persons are in Part V of the Act (Performance of regulated activities) and SUP 10A, SUP 10C and in the corresponding parts of the PRA’s Rulebook9.1616
SUP 16.8.9GRP
1Life policies and stakeholder pensions falling within SUP 16.8.8 R (2) (c) are those which have been transferred from another firm, for example under an insurance business transfer scheme under Part 711 of the Act (Control of Business Transfers).11
DEPP 6.5A.2GRP
(1) The FCA2 will determine a figure that reflects the seriousness of the breach. In many cases, the amount of revenue generated by a firm from a particular product line or business area is indicative of the harm or potential harm that its breach may cause, and in such cases the FCA2 will determine a figure which will be based on a percentage of the firm’s revenue from the relevant products or business areas. The FCA2 also believes that the amount of revenue generated by a firm