Related provisions for DISP 1.2.4
321 - 340 of 379 items.
(1) If a firm is found to have provided support to a securitisation, the expectation that the firm will provide future support to its securitisations is increased. The FCA will take account of this increased expectation in future assessments of commensurate risk transfer to that firm.(2) The FCA expects securitisation documentation to make clear, where applicable, that repurchase of securitisation positions by the originator beyond its contractual obligations is not mandatory
Principles 3, 4 and (in so far as it relates to disclosing to the appropriate regulator) 11 (and this chapter) also:(1) apply with respect to the carrying on of unregulated activities (for Principle 3 this is only in a prudential context); and(2) take into account any activity of other members of a group of which the firm is a member.
In the absence of evidence to the contrary, the firm should presume that the complainant would not have bought the payment protection contract he bought if the sale was substantially flawed, for example where the firm:(1) pressured the complainant into purchasing the payment protection contract; or(2) did not disclose to the complainant, in good time before the sale was concluded, and in a way that was fair, clear and not misleading, that the policy was optional; or(3) made the
(1) 3A firm must, at the level of the EEA financial conglomerate, regularly provide the FCA2 with details on the financial conglomerate's legal structure and governance and organisational structure, including all regulated entities, non-regulated subsidiaries and significant branches.(2) A firm must disclose publicly, at the level of the EEA financial conglomerate, on an annual basis, either in full or by way of references to equivalent information, a description of the financial
Where a UK RIE proposes to admit to trading (or to cease to admit to trading) by means of its facilities:(1) a specified investment (other than a security or an option in relation to a security); or(2) a type of security or a type of option in relation to a security; it must give the FCA3notice of that event, and the information specified for the purposes of this rule in REC 3.14.6 R to the FCA3, at the same time as that proposal is first formally communicated to its members or
(1) The authorised fund manager and depositary of a charity authorised investment fund may adopt a total return approach to the allocation or distribution of income where this is provided for in:(a) the instrument constituting the fund; and (b) the prospectus.(2) Under a total return approach the authorised fund manager may make transfers between the capital account and the income account in addition to those in COLL 6.8.3R(3A)(c).(3) The authorised fund manager and depositary
Where not all of the mortgage interest rates described in accordance with MCOB 5.6.25 R(2)(a) apply for the term of the loan part to which they apply, the firm must disclose the amount that will be paid in each instalment when complying with MCOB 7.6.9 R(3)(b), including the following information:(1) when a change in payment will occur;(2) the reason for the change in payment; and(3) confirmation that the payment illustrated assumes rates will not change.
In assessing the threshold conditions set out in paragraphs 2C and 3B of Schedule 6 to the Act6, factors which the FCA6 will take into consideration include, among other things, whether: 6(1) it is likely that the FCA6 will receive adequate information from the firm, and those persons with whom the firm has close links, to enable it to determine whether the firm is complying with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system for which the FCA is responsible6 and to
1Where a transferable security, which has been admitted to trading on a regulated market, is also traded on an MTF without the consent of the issuer, the firm operating the MTF must not make the issuer subject to any obligation relating to initial, ongoing or ad hoc financial disclosure with regard to that MTF.[Note: Article 14(6) of MiFID]
(1) The rules in (2) do not apply to a firm with respect to a regulated mortgage activity or a home purchase activity2 exclusively concerning a distance contract if the following conditions are satisfied:2(a) the firm carries on the activity from an establishment maintained by the firm in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; and(b) either the EEA State:(i) has implemented the Distance Marketing Directive3; or3(ii) has obligations in its domestic law corresponding to those
16Any arrangements made under SYSC 4.1.8A R must be notified to lenders under P2P agreements:(1) when such arrangements are made; or(2) if later, when the lender first becomes a lender under a P2P agreement with that operator; or(3) if the arrangements are changed, when that change is made; and(4) if the arrangement involves another firm taking over the management and administration of P2P agreements if the operator ceases to operate the electronic system in relation to lending,
(1) 2The operator of a regulated payment system or IFR card payment system4 must provide to the PSR, for each of its direct payment service providers (and for itself, where it is an operator acting as an acquirer or card issuer)4, a copy of:(a) its calculations (as specified in column 3 of Tables A and C4 of FEES 9 Annex 1R); and (b) the underlying data (as specified in column 5 of Tables A and C4 of FEES 9 Annex 1 R).(2) The operator of a regulated payment system or IFR card
Section 351A (Disclosure under the UCITS directive) of the Act provides that where a trustee of an AUT or the depositary of an ACS1 which is a master UCITS or a feeder UCITS, or any person acting on their behalf, makes a disclosure to comply with rules implementing Chapter VIII of the UCITS Directive, that disclosure is not to be taken as a contravention of any duty to which the person making the disclosure is subject. The OEIC Regulations (see regulation 83A) contain corresponding
A contravention of a rule in SYSC 11 to 2SYSC 21,7SYSC 22.8.1R or SYSC 22.9.1R7 does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action). 3443
A consumer's notice to cancel a distance contract may also operate to cancel any attached contract which is also a distance financial services contract. This is unless the consumer gives notice that cancellation of the contract is not to operate to cancel the attached contract. (See the Distance Marketing Regulations.) Where relevant, this should be disclosed to the consumer along with other information on cancellation.
When a consumer cancels a distance contract under this chapter, his notice may also operate to cancel any attached contract which is also a distance financial services contract unless the consumer gives notice that cancellation of the main contract is not to operate to cancel the attached contract (see regulation 12 of the Distance Marketing Regulations). Where relevant, this should be disclosed to the consumer along with other information on cancellation.
To comply with the requirements of COBS 21.2.4A R, a firm should:(1) disclose to policyholders the implications of any credit-risk exposure they may face in relation to the solvency of the reinsurer; and(2) suitably monitor the way the reinsurer manages the business in order to discharge its continuing responsibilities to policyholders.