Related provisions for SUP App 3.3.8
101 - 120 of 310 items.
Table of FCA-designated senior management functions for relevant authorised persons
1Part One: (FCA-designated senior management functions for relevant authorised persons) |
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Type |
SMF |
Description of FCA controlled function |
SMF 3 |
Executive director function |
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SMF 13 |
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SMF 16 |
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SMF 17 |
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SMF 18 |
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2Part Two: (FCA-designated senior management functions for EEA relevant authorised persons) |
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Type |
SMF |
Description of FCA controlled function |
SMF 17 |
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SMF 21 |
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2Part3Three: (FCA-designated senior management functions for third-country relevant authorised persons) |
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Type |
SMF |
Description of FCA controlled function |
SMF3 |
Executive3director function |
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SMF16 |
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SMF17 |
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SMF22 |
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(1) The authorised fund manager may, with the prior agreement of the depositary, and must without delay, if the depositary so requires, temporarily1 suspend the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of units in an authorised fund (referred to in this chapter as "dealings in units"), where due to exceptional circumstances it is in the interest of all the unitholders in the authorised fund. (1A) The authorised fund manager and the depositary must ensure that the suspension is
2Where:(1) an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS or a qualifying master scheme3temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of the FCA; or(2) an operator of an EEA UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS or a qualifying master scheme3temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale or redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of its Home
The Insurance Mediation Directive has in part been implemented through various amendments to the Regulated Activities Order. These include article 4(4A) (Specified activities: general) which precludes a person who, for remuneration, takes up or pursues insurance mediation or reinsurance mediation in relation to a risk or commitment situated in an EEA State from making use of certain exclusions. In other cases, some of the exclusions provided in relation to particular regulated
Subject to BIPRU 12.7.4R, for the purpose of BIPRU 12.7.2R (1), a firm may include only1 a debt security which is:(1) issued by the central government or central bank of an EEA State; or(2) issued by the central government or central bank of Canada, the Commonwealth of Australia, Japan, Switzerland or the United States of America.
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 7B
2(1) |
The [UK RIE] must make transparent and non-discriminatory rules, based on objective criteria, governing access to, or membership of, its facilities. |
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(2) |
In particular those rules must specify the obligations for users or members of its facilities arising from - |
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(a) |
the constitution and administration of the [UK RIE]; |
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(b) |
rules relating to transactions on the market; |
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(c) |
its professional standards for staff of any investment firm or credit institution having access to or membership of a financial market operated by the [UK RIE]; |
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(d) |
conditions established under sub-paragraph (3)(c) for access to or membership of a financial market operated by the [UK RIE] by persons other than investment firms or credit institutions; and |
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(e) |
the rules and procedures for clearing and settlement of transactions concluded on a financial market operated by the [UK RIE]. |
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(3) |
Rules of the [UK RIE] about access to, or membership of, a financial market operated by it must permit the [UK RIE] to give access to or admit to membership (as the case may be) only - |
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(a) |
an investment firm, |
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(b) |
a credit institution, or |
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(c) |
a person who - |
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(i) |
is fit and proper, |
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(ii) |
has a sufficient level of trading ability and competence, |
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(iii) |
where applicable, has adequate organisational arrangements, and |
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(iv) |
has sufficient resources for the role he is to perform, taking into account the [UK RIE's] arrangements under paragraph 4(2)(d). |
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(4) |
Rules under this paragraph must enable - |
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(a) |
an investment firm authorised under Article 5 of [MiFID], or |
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(b) |
a credit institution authorised under the Banking Consolidation Directive, |
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by the competent authority of another EEA State (including a branch established in the United Kingdom of such a firm or institution) to have direct or remote access to or membership of, any financial market operated by the [UK RIE] on the same terms as a UK firm. |
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(5) |
The [UK RIE] must make arrangements regularly to provide the [FCA]3 with a list of users or members of its facilities. 3 |
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(6) |
This paragraph is without prejudice to the generality of paragraph 4. |
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Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 7C
2(1) |
This paragraph applies to [a UK RIE] which provides central counterparty, clearing or settlement facilities. |
(2) |
The [UK RIE] must make transparent and non-discriminatory rules based on objective criteria, governing access to those facilities. |
(3) |
The rules under sub-paragraph (2) must enable an investment firm or a credit institution authorised by the competent authority of another EEA State (including a branch established in the United Kingdom of such a firm or institution) to have access to those facilities on the same terms as a UK firm for the purposes of finalising or arranging the finalisation of transactions in financial instruments. |
(4) |
The [UK RIE] may refuse access to those facilities on legitimate commercial grounds. |
(1) An exempt CAD
firm which is not an IMD insurance intermediary must have: (a) initial capital of EUR 50,000; or (b) professional indemnity insurance covering the whole territory of the EEAor some other comparable guarantee against liability arising from professional negligence, representing at least EUR 1,000,000 applying to each claim and in aggregate EUR 1,500,000 per year for all claims; or (c) a combination of initial capital and professional
(1) An exempt CAD
firm that is also an IMD insurance intermediary must comply with the professional indemnity insurance requirements at least equal to those set out in 9.2.4R(1)(b) (except that the minimum limits of indemnity are at least EUR 1,120,200 for a single claim and EUR 1,680,300 in aggregate) and in addition has to have: (a) initial capital of EUR 25,000; or (b) professional indemnity insurance covering the whole territory of the EEA or some
Some of the distinguishing features of notices given under enactments other than the Act are as follows: (1) [deleted]66(2) [deleted]66(3) Friendly Societies Act 1992, section 58A1: The warning notice and decision notice must set out the terms of the direction which the FCA6 proposes or has decided to give and any specification of when the friendly society is to comply with it. A decision notice given under section 58A(3) must give an indication of the society's right, given by
Article 61(3)(a) of the Regulated Activities Order defines a regulated mortgage contract as a contract which, at the time it is entered into, satisfies the following conditions:(1) the contract is one where a lender provides credit to an individual or trustees (the 'borrower');(2) the contract provides for the obligation of the borrower to repay to be secured by a mortgage on land in the EEA;5 and5(3) at least 40% of that land is used, or is intended to be used, as or in connection
The condition set out in PERG 4.4.1G (2) means that a regulated mortgage contract must be secured on land in the EEA.55 Contracts which involve taking security over moveable property therefore cannot be regulated mortgage contracts. So a contract secured on a caravan will not be a regulated mortgage contract, unless the contract also involves a mortgage over the land on which the caravan stands.
A firm must make at least the following information easily, directly and permanently accessible to the recipients of the information society services it provides:(1) its name;(2) the geographic address at which it is established;(3) the details of the firm, including its e-mail address, which allow it to be contacted rapidly and communicated with in a direct and effective manner;(4) an appropriate statutory status disclosure statement (GEN 4 Annex 1 R), together with a statement
Where an EEA parent institution3 and its subsidiary undertakings or an EEA parent financial holding company3 and its subsidiary undertakings or an EEA parent mixed financial holding company and its subsidiary undertakings6 use the IRB approach on a unified basis, the question whether the minimum IRB standards are met is answered by considering the parent undertaking and its subsidiary undertakings together,6 unless the firm'sIRB permission specifies otherwise.[Note: BCD Article
(1) This guidance sets out the basis on which a firm may rely upon a rating system or data provided by another member of its group.(2) A firm may rely upon a rating system or data provided by another member of its group if the following conditions are satisfied:(a) the firm only does so to the extent that it is appropriate, given the nature and scale of the firm's business and portfolios and the firm's position within the group;(b) the group is an EEA banking and investment group;(c)
(1) To the extent that its IRB permission permits this, a firm permitted to use the IRB approach in the calculation of risk weighted exposure amounts and expected loss amounts3 for one or more IRB exposure classes may apply the standardised approach in accordance with this rule.3(2) A firm may apply the standardised approach to the IRB exposure class referred to in BIPRU 4.3.2 R (1) (Sovereigns) where the number of material counterparties is limited and it would be unduly burdensome
(1) The condition in BIPRU 4.10.6 R (3) does not apply for exposures secured by residential real estate property situated within the territory of another EEA State.(2) However (1) only applies if and to the extent that the CRD implementation measures for that EEA State in relation to the IRB approach implement the option set out in paragraph 16 of Part 1 of Annex VIII of the Banking Consolidation Directive (waiver for residential real estate property) with respect to residential
(1) The condition in BIPRU 4.10.6 R (3) does not apply for commercial real estate property situated within the territory of another EEA State.(2) However (1) only applies if and to the extent that the CRD implementation measures for that EEA State in relation to the IRB approach implement the option set out in paragraph 17 of Part 1 of Annex VIII of the Banking Consolidation Directive (waiver for commercial real estate property) with respect to commercial real estate property
(1) A firm may apply the treatment in paragraph 74 of Part 3 of Annex VIII of the Banking Consolidation Directive (50% risk weight for exposures secured by real estate) in respect of exposures collateralised by:(a) residential real estate property; or(b) commercial real estate property;located in the territory of another EEA State.(2) However (1)(a) or (1)(b) only applies if the CRD implementing measures for that EEA State with respect to the IRB approach have implemented the
(1) In accordance with article 3(2) of the E-Commerce Directive, all requirements on persons providing electronic commerce activities into the United Kingdom from the EEA are lifted, where these fall within the co-ordinated field and would restrict the freedom of such a firm to provide services. The coordinated field includes any requirement of a general or specific nature concerning the taking up or pursuit of electronic commerce activities. Authorisation requirements fall within
1The exclusions apply, in general terms:(1) to a body corporate with limited liability:(a) that is formed in accordance with the law of, and having its registered office, central administration or principal place of business in, an EEA State;(b) that operates a business angel-led enterprise capital fund, being a fund that invests only in securities of unlisted companies and whose participants are made up solely of persons of a specified kind; and(c) whose members are limited to
(1) This section applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme, a depositary, an ICVC and any other director of an ICVC which is a UCITS scheme; and(b) subject to (2), a UKUCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for an EEA UCITS scheme under the freedom to provide cross border services.(2) COLL 6.6A.6 R ((Strategies for the exercise of voting rights) also applies to a UKUCITS management company providing collective portfolio management
(1) 8This rule applies to:(a) an authorised fund manager (other than an EEA UCITS management company) of an AUT, ACS10 or an ICVC where such AUT, ACS10 or ICVC is a UCITS scheme13; (aa) 13a small authorised UK AIFM that is the authorised fund manager of an AUT, ACS or an ICVC that is a non-UCITS retail scheme; and(b) a UK UCITS management company providing collective portfolio management services for an EEA UCITS scheme from a branch in another EEA State or under the freedom to
This exemption allows a person in another EEA State who lawfully carries on a controlled activity in that State to promote into the United Kingdom. The terms of the exemption are that the promotion must comply with the rules inCOBS 45,9MCOB 3A10 or CONC 39 (as relevant). Care should be taken as any failure to satisfy any of the relevant requirements of these rules may mean that this exemption is not satisfied and that the financial promotion may breach section 21 if it has not
To be a sophisticated investor for the purposes of article 50, the recipient of a financial promotion must have a current certificate from an authorised person stating that he has enough knowledge to be able to understand the risks associated with the description of investment to which the financial promotion relates. Where the financial promotion is an outgoing electronic commerce communication3, the certificate may be signed by a person who is entitled, under the law of an EEA
The exemption is subject to certain conditions. In broad terms, these are that the financial promotion must be accompanied by an indication:(1) that the directors or promoters of the company have taken all reasonable care to ensure that the financial promotion is true and not misleading;(2) that the directors or promoters have not limited their liability;(3) that any person who is in doubt about the investment should consult an authorised person; and(4) that:(a) the directors
Shares are defined in the Regulated Activities Order as shares or stock in a wide range of entities; that is, any body corporate wherever incorporated and unincorporated bodies formed under the law of a country other than the United Kingdom. They include deferred shares issued by building societies as well as transferable shares in industrial and provident societies, credit unions and equivalent EEA bodies. These shares are transferable and negotiable in a way similar to other
The following are excluded from the specified investment category of shares. Shares or stock in all open-ended investment companies are excluded from being treated in this particular category (but see PERG 2.6.17 G). Exclusions from this category also apply to shares or stock in the share capital of certain mutuals or in equivalent EEA bodies. This takes out building society or credit union accounts and non-transferable shares in industrial and provident societies. These may nevertheless
In accordance with article 61(3)(a) of the Regulated Activities Order, a regulated mortgage contract is a contract which, at the time it is entered into, satisfies the following conditions:(1) the contract is one where the lender provides credit to an individual or trustees (the "borrower");(2) the obligation of the borrower to repay is secured by a mortgage on land in the EEA;12 and12(3) at least 40% of that land is used, or is intended to be used, as or in connection with a
Three9 exclusions apply10 to the regulated activity of accepting deposits. The first is that a10deposit taker providing its services as an electronic commerce activity from another EEA State into the United Kingdom (see PERG 2.9.18 G) does not carry on a regulated activity. The second relates to a firm with a Part 4A permission to manage an AIF or manage a UCITS (see PERG 2.9.22 G (Managers of UCITS and AIFs)).10 There is also excluded from accepting deposits any activity which
The following activities are excluded from both the regulated activities of effecting and carrying out contracts of insurance.(1) In specified circumstances, the activities of an EEA firm when participating in a Community co-insurance operation are excluded. A Community co-insurance operation is defined in the Solvency II Directive.1111(2) In specified circumstances, activities that are carried out in connection with the provision of on-the-spot accident or breakdown assistance
9Activities carried on by an EEA authorised payment institution or an EEA authorised electronic money institution exercising passport rights in the United Kingdom in accordance with article 16(3) of the Payment Services Directive (in the latter case, as applied by article 6 of the Electronic Money Directive) are excluded from the regulated activities of entering into a regulated credit agreement as lender and exercising, or having the right to exercise, the lender's rights and