Related provisions for SUP 18.3.5
61 - 80 of 229 items.
(1) Business plan failure in the context of reverse stress testing should be understood as the point at which the market loses confidence in a firm and this results in the firm no longer being able to carry out its business activities. Examples of this would be the point at which all or a substantial portion of the firm's counterparties are unwilling to continue transacting with it or seek to terminate their contracts, or the point at which the firm's existing shareholders are
(1) The FSAappropriate regulator may request a firm to submit the design and results of its reverse stress tests and any subsequent updates as part of its ARROW risk assessment. (2) In the light of the results of a firm's reverse stress tests, the FSAappropriate regulator may require the firm to implement specific measures to prevent or mitigate the risk of business failure where that risk is not sufficiently mitigated by the measures adopted by the firm in accordance with SYSC
3For
the purpose of this Statement of Principle,
regulators in addition to the FCA and
the PRA are those which have
recognised jurisdiction in relation to regulated
activities and a power to call for information from the approved person in connection with their 1accountable function or (in the case of
an individual performing an accountable higher management function)1 in connection with the business for which they are1 responsible.
This may include an exchange or an oversea
1Where the approved person is, or is one of the approved persons who is, responsible within the firm for reporting matters to the regulator concerned (as defined in APER 4.4.4G), failing promptly to inform the regulator concerned of information of which they are aware and which it would be reasonable to assume would be of material significance to the regulator concerned, whether in response to questions or otherwise, falls within APER 4.4.3G.
1Article
32(7) of MiFID provides that
the branch of a UK firm operating
from an establishment in another EEA state must
satisfy the transaction reporting requirements of the competent
authority in that other Member State in respect of reportable
transactions arising in the course of services provided in that other Member
State.
2In
line with guidance from CESR, the FCA acknowledges that, from a practical
point of view, it would be burdensome for branches of investment firms to be obliged to report
their transactions to two competent authorities. Therefore, all transactions executed by branches may
be reported to the competent authority of
the Host State, if the investment firm elects to do so. In these
cases transaction reports should
follow the rules of the competent authority to
which the report is
This chapter gives guidance to UK firms. In most cases UK firms will be authorised persons under the Act. However, under the CRD2, a subsidiary of a firm which is a credit institution6 meets the criteria set out in that Directive also has an EEA right. Such an unauthorised subsidiary is known as a financial institution. References in this chapter to a UK firm include a financial institution. The chapter does not provide guidance for Solvency II firms. Solvency II firms should
Under section 138A(4) of the Act, the appropriate regulator10 may not give a waiver unless it is satisfied that:1010(1) compliance by the firm with the rules, or with the rules as unmodified, would be unduly burdensome, or would not achieve the purpose for which the rules were made; and(2) the waiver would not adversely affect the advancement of, in the case of the PRA, any of its objectives and, in the case of the FCA, any of its operational objectives.1010
1This chapter applies to every firm and with respect to every regulated activity, except that:(1) for an incoming ECA provider, this chapter does not apply when the firm is acting as such;(2) for an incoming EEA firm which has permission only for cross-border services and which does not carry on regulated activities in the United Kingdom, this chapter does not apply;(3) for an incoming firm not falling under (1) or (2), this chapter does not apply to the extent that the firm is
3GEN 4.5 (Statements about authorisation and regulation by the appropriate regulator9) applies in relation to activities carried on from an establishment maintained by the firm (or by its appointed representative) in the United Kingdom, provided that, in the case of the MiFID business of an EEAMiFID investment firm or the activities of an EEA UCITS management company,4 it only applies to business conducted within the territory of the United Kingdom. 9
(1) The authorised fund manager may, with the prior agreement of the depositary, and must without delay, if the depositary so requires, temporarily1 suspend the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of units in an authorised fund (referred to in this chapter as "dealings in units"), where due to exceptional circumstances it is in the interest of all the unitholders in the authorised fund. (1A) The authorised fund manager and the depositary must ensure that the suspension is
2Where:(1) an authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS or a qualifying master scheme3temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale and redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of the FCA; or(2) an operator of an EEA UCITS scheme which is a master UCITS or a qualifying master scheme3temporarily suspends the issue, cancellation, sale or redemption of its units, whether at its own initiative or at the request of its Home
2The FCA may apply to the court for an injunction if it appears that a person, whether authorised or not, is reasonably likely to breach a relevant requirement12, or engage in market abuse. It can also apply for an injunction if a person has breached one of those requirements or has engaged in market abuse and is likely to continue doing so. 12 Under section 380(6)(a) and (7)(a), a 'relevant requirement' in relation to an application by the appropriate regulator means a requirement:
2The FCA may consider taking disciplinary1 action using a range of powers1 as well as seeking restitution, if a person has breached a relevant requirement13 of the Act or any directly applicable Community regulation or decision under MiFID or the UCITS Directive or the auction regulation1, or has engaged in1market abuse. 13 Under section 204A(2), a 'relevant requirement' in relation to an application by the appropriate regulator means a requirement: which is imposed by or under
A firm is required under GENPRU 2.1.52 R (Calculation of the market risk capital requirement) to calculate its market risk capital requirement using the rules in BIPRU 7. However, the appropriate regulator may at the firm's request modify GENPRU 2.1.52 R to allow the firm to calculate all or part of the PRR for the positions covered by that model by using a CAD 1 model (for options risk aggregation and/or interest rate pre-processing) or a VaR model (value at risk model) instead.
The purpose of BIPRU 7.9 is to provide guidance on the appropriate regulator's policy for granting CAD 1 model waivers under section 138A of the Act (Modification or waiver of rules). The policy recognises that CAD 1 models may vary across firms but, as a minimum, the appropriate regulator will need to be satisfied:(1) about the quality of the internal controls and risk management relating to the model (see BIPRU 7.9.19G - BIPRU 7.9.23G for further details);(2) about the quality
No changes should be made to a CAD 1 model unless the change is not material. Material changes to a CAD 1 model will require a renewed waiver to be issued. Materiality is measured from the time that the waiver is granted or, if the waiver has been varied in accordance with section 138A of the Act, any later time that may be specified in the waiver for these purposes. If a firm is considering making material changes to its CAD 1 model, then it should notify the appropriate regulator
(1) 4Unless required to do so under the regulatory system, a firm must ensure that neither it nor anyone acting on its behalf claims, in a public statement or to a client, expressly or by implication, that its affairs, or any aspect of them, have the approval or endorsement of the FCA6 or another competent authority.(2) Paragraph (1) does not apply to statements that explain, in a way that is fair, clear and not misleading, that:(a) the firm is an authorised person;(b) [deleted]5(c)
Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 7B
2(1) |
The [UK RIE] must make transparent and non-discriminatory rules, based on objective criteria, governing access to, or membership of, its facilities. |
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(2) |
In particular those rules must specify the obligations for users or members of its facilities arising from - |
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(a) |
the constitution and administration of the [UK RIE]; |
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(b) |
rules relating to transactions on the market; |
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(c) |
its professional standards for staff of any investment firm or credit institution having access to or membership of a financial market operated by the [UK RIE]; |
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(d) |
conditions established under sub-paragraph (3)(c) for access to or membership of a financial market operated by the [UK RIE] by persons other than investment firms or credit institutions; and |
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(e) |
the rules and procedures for clearing and settlement of transactions concluded on a financial market operated by the [UK RIE]. |
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(3) |
Rules of the [UK RIE] about access to, or membership of, a financial market operated by it must permit the [UK RIE] to give access to or admit to membership (as the case may be) only - |
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(a) |
an investment firm, |
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(b) |
a credit institution, or |
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(c) |
a person who - |
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(i) |
is fit and proper, |
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(ii) |
has a sufficient level of trading ability and competence, |
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(iii) |
where applicable, has adequate organisational arrangements, and |
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(iv) |
has sufficient resources for the role he is to perform, taking into account the [UK RIE's] arrangements under paragraph 4(2)(d). |
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(4) |
Rules under this paragraph must enable - |
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(a) |
an investment firm authorised under Article 5 of [MiFID], or |
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(b) |
a credit institution authorised under the Banking Consolidation Directive, |
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by the competent authority of another EEA State (including a branch established in the United Kingdom of such a firm or institution) to have direct or remote access to or membership of, any financial market operated by the [UK RIE] on the same terms as a UK firm. |
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(5) |
The [UK RIE] must make arrangements regularly to provide the [FCA]3 with a list of users or members of its facilities. 3 |
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(6) |
This paragraph is without prejudice to the generality of paragraph 4. |
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Schedule to the Recognition Requirements Regulations, Paragraph 7C
2(1) |
This paragraph applies to [a UK RIE] which provides central counterparty, clearing or settlement facilities. |
(2) |
The [UK RIE] must make transparent and non-discriminatory rules based on objective criteria, governing access to those facilities. |
(3) |
The rules under sub-paragraph (2) must enable an investment firm or a credit institution authorised by the competent authority of another EEA State (including a branch established in the United Kingdom of such a firm or institution) to have access to those facilities on the same terms as a UK firm for the purposes of finalising or arranging the finalisation of transactions in financial instruments. |
(4) |
The [UK RIE] may refuse access to those facilities on legitimate commercial grounds. |
(1) In assessing whether a penalty would cause an individual serious financial hardship, the FCA3 will consider the individual’s ability to pay the penalty over a reasonable period (normally no greater than three years). The FCA's3 starting point is that an individual will suffer serious financial hardship only if during that period his net annual income will fall below £14,000 and his capital will fall below £16,000 as a result of payment of the penalty. Unless the FCA3 believes
(1) The FCA3 will consider reducing the amount of a penalty if a firm will suffer serious financial hardship as a result of having to pay the entire penalty. In deciding whether it is appropriate to reduce the penalty, the FCA3 will take into consideration the firm’s financial circumstances, including whether the penalty would render the firm insolvent or threaten the firm’s solvency. The FCA3 will also take into account its statutory objectives3, for example in situations where
(1) The management responsibilities map is an important support to the FCA’s functions as Host Statecompetent authority.(2) Having requirements and powers that apply directly to individuals helps to make the requirements on firms that the FCA is required or entitled to impose as Host Statecompetent authority more effective.(3) The management responsibilities map helps the FCA to operate its powers and requirements for individuals. For example it helps the FCA:(a) to identify
An EEA relevant authorised person may exclude from its management responsibilities map:(1) any information contained in its requisite details;(2) any information contained in any notice of changes to its requisite details under the EEA Passport Rights Regulations; and(3) any other information that has been supplied by the firm to the FCA or the PRA (including through the firm’sHome Statecompetent authority) if:(a) that information was supplied to the FCA or the PRA as a Host Statecompetent
Information contained in SYSC 4.6.20R(1) and (2) covers:(1) details about the branch contained in the notice given by the firm’sHome Statecompetent authority as part of the process for establishing the branch in the United Kingdom; and(2) any updates to that information under the EEA Passport Rights Regulations.
2If a firm requires employees who are not subject to a qualification 7 requirement in TC7 to pass a relevant examination from the list of appropriate qualifications 8maintained by the FCA8, the appropriate regulator will take that into account when assessing whether the firm has ensured that the employee satisfies the knowledge component of the competent employees rule.78878778
(1) Before an EEA firm (other than7 an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)3 exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. 1(2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's notice has been prescribed
(1) Unless the EEA firm3(other than7 an EEA firm that received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)331is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive, if the appropriate UK regulator9 receives a regulator's notice or, where no notice is required , is informed of the EEA firm's intention to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the appropriate UK regulator9 will, under paragraphs 14(2) and 14(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify
(1) The FCA will not automatically suspend, cancel or restore the listing of securities at the request of an overseas exchange or overseas authority (for example, if listing of a listed3issuer'ssecurities are suspended, cancelled or restored on its home exchange).(2) The FCA will not normally suspend the listing of securities where there is a trading halt for the security on its home exchange.(3) If a listedissuer3 requests a suspension, cancellation or restoration of the listing
(1) Regulation 7 to 9 of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Services of Notices) Regulations 2001 (SI2001/1420) govern the manner in which notices may be submitted to the regulators3 under the EEA Passport Rights Regulations. In summary, they should be delivered or posted to the appropriate UK regulator's3 address (See (2) below) and will be treated as given when received by the appropriate UK regulator3. They should not be sent by fax or electronic mail. 333(2) [de