Related provisions for CONC 8.7.7
141 - 160 of 605 items.
1(1) This sourcebook3 applies to every firm that:113(a) carries on a home finance activity3 (subject to 31the business loan and loans to high net worth mortgage customers7 application provisions3); or3(b) communicates or approves a financial promotion of qualifying credit, of a home purchase plan,6of a home reversion plan3or of a regulated sale and rent back agreement.636(2) Where a firm has outsourced activities to a third party processor, any rule in MCOB which requires the
In relation to a regulated mortgage contract for a business purpose or with a high net worth mortgage customer7, if a firm has opted for the tailored route, it must adopt the following modifications to the sourcebook:333(1) 11substitute an alternative description of the facility provided under the regulated mortgage contract for 'mortgage' where that term is used in any disclosure;733337(2) substitute the term 'illustration' for ‘Key facts illustration’ when opting to use the
The disclosure rules in MCOB place particular emphasis on the description of borrowing. Where the regulated mortgage contract is for a business purpose or with a high net worth mortgage customer7 who is not a consumer under an MCD regulated mortgage contract8, a firm should reflect this emphasis in any disclosure by first describing any borrowing before addressing the other facilities provided under the regulated mortgage contract.
(1) 10By virtue of amendments to articles 60B, 60C and 61 of the Regulated Activities Order which came into force on 21 March 2016, certain regulated credit agreements became regulated mortgage contracts (but see the transitional provisions described in (3) below). The provisions of MCOB that apply to these regulated mortgage contracts include:(a) MCOB 7 (Disclosure at start of contract and after sale);(b) MCOB 12 (Charges); and(c) MCOB 13 (Arrears, payment shortfalls and repossessions:
(1) Before making a regulated credit agreement the firm must undertake an assessment of the creditworthiness of the customer.[Note: section 55B(1) of CCA](2) A firm carrying out the assessment required in (1) must consider: (a) the potential for the commitments under the regulated credit agreement to adversely impact the customer's financial situation, taking into account the information of which the firm is aware at the time the regulated credit agreement is to be made; and [Note:
(1) 1This rule applies if, in relation to a regulated credit agreement: (a) an individual other than the borrower (in this rule referred to as “the guarantor”) is to provide a guarantee or an indemnity (or both); and(b) the lender is required to undertake an assessment of the customer under CONC 5.2.1R or CONC 5.2.2R.(2) Before entering into the regulated credit agreement, the lender must undertake an assessment of the potential for the guarantor’s commitments in respect of the
(1) 1The assessment of the guarantor does not need to be identical to the assessment undertaken in respect of the borrower, but should be sufficient in depth and scope having regard to the potential obligations which might fall on the guarantor.(2) The provision of the guarantee or indemnity (or both), and the assessment of the guarantor under CONC 5.2.5R, does not remove or reduce the obligation on the lender to carry out an assessment of the borrower under CONC 5.2.1R or CONC
(1) 2This section applies to:(a) the authorised fund manager of a feeder UCITS;(b) the depositary of a feeder UCITS; and(c) an ICVC which is a feeder UCITS;where the scheme is a UCITS scheme.(2) Where this section refers to a rule or guidance in COLL 5.1 to COLL 5.5 , those rules and guidance, and any rules and guidance to which they refer, must be read as if a reference to a UCITS scheme were a reference to a feeder UCITS.(3) Where the sub-fund of a UCITS scheme is a feeder UCITS,
A feeder UCITS may hold up to 15% in value of the scheme property in one or more of the following:(1) cash or near cash in accordance with COLL 5.5.3 R (Cash and near cash);(2) derivatives and forward transactions which may be used only for the purposes of hedging and in accordance with the rules set out at COLL 5.8.7 R (Other provisions applicable to a feeder UCITS); and(3) (for an ICVC) movable and immovable property which is essential for the direct pursuit of the business.[Note:
The following rules and guidance in COLL 5.1 (Introduction), COLL 5.2 (General investment powers and limits for UCITS schemes) and COLL 5.5 (Cash, borrowing, lending and other provisions) apply to the authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme which is a feeder UCITS and to an ICVC which is a feeder UCITS:(1) COLL 5.1.1 R (Application), COLL 5.1.2G (1) (Purpose) and COLL 5.1.3 R (Treatment of obligations);(2) COLL 5.2.1 R (Application), COLL 5.2.2 R (Table of application) and
This section has rules requiring a firm to identify and assess risks to its ability to meet its liabilities as they fall due, how it intends to deal with those risks, and the amount and nature of financial resources that the firm considers necessary. IFPRU 2.2.43 R (Documentation of risk assessment) provides that a firm should document that assessment. The FCA will review that assessment as part of its own assessment of the adequacy of a firm's capital under its supervisory review
This section has rules requiring a firm to carry out appropriate stress tests and scenario analyses for the risks it has previously identified and to establish the amount of financial resources and internal capital needed in each of the circumstances and events considered in that analyses. The FCA will consider, as part of its SREP, whether the firm should hold a capital planning buffer and the amount and quality of that buffer. The capital planning buffer is an amount separate,
1This section has rules on the individual, sub-consolidated basis and consolidated basis application of:(1) the ICAAP rules in IFPRU 2.2.45R to IFPRU 2.2.49R (Level of application: ICAAP rules);(2) the risk control rules in IFPRU 2.2.58R to IFPRU 2.2.60R (Level of application: risk control rules); and(3) the overall financial adequacy rule in IFPRU 2.2.61R to IFPRU 2.2.63R (Level of application: overall financial adequacy rule).
Table of Application. This table belongs to COLL 6.7.1 R.
| 8 | 8 | Depositary of an ICVC, AUT or ACS8 |
Authorised fund manager of an AUT or ACS8 |
8 | |
6.7.1R to 6.7.5G |
x |
x |
x |
x |
8 |
6.7.6G |
x |
x |
x |
||
6.7.7R |
x |
x |
|||
6.7.8G |
x |
x |
|||
6.7.9R |
x |
x |
|||
6.7.10R |
x |
x |
x |
8 | |
6.7.11G |
x |
x |
x |
8 | |
6.7.12R |
x |
x |
x |
||
6.7.13G |
x |
x |
x |
||
6.7.14R |
x |
||||
6.7.15R |
x |
x |
x |
x |
8 |
6.7.16G |
x |
x |
x |
8 | |
6.7.17R |
x |
x |
x |
||
Note: "x" means "applies", but not every paragraph in every rule will necessarily apply. |
|||||
(1) The only payments which may be recovered from the scheme property of an authorised fund are those in respect of: (a) remunerating the parties operating the authorised fund;(b) the administration of the authorised fund; or(c) the investment or safekeeping of the scheme property.(2) No payment under this rule can be made from scheme property if it is unfair to (or materially prejudices the interests of) any class of unitholders or potential unitholders.(3) Paragraphs (1) and
2(1) No payment may be made from scheme property to any person, other than a payment to the authorised fund manager permitted by the rules in COLL, for the acquisition or promotion of the sale of units in an authorised fund.2(2) 2Paragraph (1) does3 not apply to the costs an authorised fund incurs3 preparing and printing the simplified prospectus, key investor information document6, key features document or key features illustration3, provided the prospectus states, in accordance
(1) UK RIEs4 are exempt persons under section 285 of the Act (Exemption for recognised investment exchanges and clearing houses).4(2) UK RIEs4 must satisfy recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury (in certain cases with the approval of the Secretary of State) in the Recognition Requirements Regulations. UK RIEs must also satisfy the MiFID implementing requirements in the MiFID Regulation.2RAPs must satisfy the recognition requirements prescribed by the Treasury in the
(1) The recognition requirements for UK recognised bodies and the MiFID implementing requirements2are set out, with guidance, in REC 2. The RAP recognition requirements (other than requirements under the auction regulation which are not reproduced in REC) are set out, with guidance, in REC 2A.3(2) The notification rules for UKrecognised bodies are set out in REC 3 together with guidance on those rules.(3) Guidance on the FCA's4 approach to the supervision of recognised bodies
(1) Where8 the FSCS makes recoveries in relation to protected claims where a8 related compensation costs levy8 would have been allocated to a class (class A) had the levy limit for class A not been reached and has been allocated to another class or classes in the retail pool, the recoveries must be applied:8888(a) 8first, to the classes to which the costs levied were allocated in accordance with FEES 6.5A in the same proportion as those classes contributed, up to the total amount
(1) 4This rule applies to the calculation of the levies of a firm (A) if:(a) either:(i) A acquires all or a part of the business of another firm (B), whether by merger, acquisition of goodwill or otherwise; or(ii) A became authorised as a result of B's simple change of legal status (as defined in FEES 3 Annex 1 Part 6); (b) B is no longer liable to pay a levy; and(c) that acquisition or change takes place after the date to which, or as of which, A's most recent statement of business
(1) The distance marketing rules in CONC 2.6, including the right to cancel in CONC 11, apply to firms with respect to distance contracts which are credit agreements, consumer hire agreements and agreements the subject matter of which comprises, or relates to, debt counselling, debt adjusting, providing credit information services and providing credit references. CONC 11 excludes various credit agreements from the right to cancel.(2) Where a consumer uses the right to cancel under
A firm must ensure that the obligations of the customer in relation to the amount, or the timing of payment, of its fees or charges:(1) do not have the effect that the customer pays all, or substantially all, of those fees in priority to making repayments to lenders in accordance with the debt management plan; and(2) do not undermine the customer's ability to make (through the firm acting on the customer's behalf) significant repayments to the customer'slenders throughout the
(1) The rules in this chapter specify the types of documents and records that must be maintained in a firm'sCASS resolution pack and the retrieval period for the pack. The firm should maintain the component documents of the CASS resolution pack in order for them to be retrieved in accordance with CASS 10.1.7 R, and should not use the retrieval period to start producing these documents.(2) The contents of the documents that constitute the CASS resolution pack will change from time
For the purpose of this chapter, a firm will be treated as satisfying a rule in this chapter requiring it to include a document in its CASS resolution pack if a member of that firm'sgroup includes that document in its own CASS resolution pack, provided that:(1) that group member is subject to the same rule; and(2) the firm is still able to comply with CASS 10.1.7 R.
(1) A firm may wish to operate its arrangements under SYSC 18.3.1R internally, within its group or through a third party. (2) Firms will have to consider how to manage any conflicts of interest.(3) If the firm uses another member of its group or a third party to operate its arrangements under SYSC 18.3.1R it will continue to be responsible for complying with that rule.
This rule applies to a firm, an EEA relevant authorised person and a third-country relevant authorised person.2(1) A person subject to this rule (‘P’) 2must, in the manner described in (2), communicate to its UK-based employees that they may disclose reportable concerns to the PRA or the FCA and the methods for doing so. P 2must make clear that:(a) reporting to the PRA or to the FCA is not conditional on a report first being made using P’s 2internal arrangements; (b) it is possible
(1) This rule applies where an EEA relevant authorised person or a third-country relevant authorised person has:(a) a branch in the United Kingdom; and(b) a group entity which is a UK relevant authorised person.(2) An EEA relevant authorised person and a third-country relevant authorised person must, in the manner described in (3), communicate to the UK-based employees of its UKbranch:(a) the whistleblowing arrangements of the group entity that is a UK relevant authorised person;
7Under sections 60A and 63F 7of the Act, in assessing whether a person is a fit and proper person to perform an FCA designated senior management function or an FCA specified significant-harm function, 7a relevant authorised person must have particular regard to whether that person:77(1) has obtained a qualification; or(2) has undergone, or is undergoing, training; or(3) possesses a level of competence; or(4) has the personal characteristics;required by general rules made by the
7The key general rules relating to the criteria listed in FIT 1.2.1B include:(1) in the case of very senior employees, SYSC 4.2 (persons who effectively direct the business) and SYSC 4.3A.3R (management body);(2) for employees of firms generally, SYSC 5.1.1R (the competent employees rule); and(3) in relation to retail activities, TC 2.1.12R (employees' competence).
The Act does not prescribe the matters which the FCA7 should take into account when determining fitness and propriety. However, section 61(2) states that the FCA7 may have regard (among other things) to whether the candidate or approved person:777(1) has obtained a qualification; or(2) has undergone, or is undergoing, training; or(3) possesses a level of competence; or(4) has the personal characteristics;required by general rules made by the FCA.7
(1) When calculating the PRR of the protection seller, unless specified differently by other rules and subject to (2), the notional amount of the credit derivative contract must be used. For the purpose of calculating the specific riskPRR charge, other than for total return swaps, the maturity of the credit derivative contract is applicable instead of the maturity of the obligation.4(2) When calculating the PRR of the protection seller, a firm may choose to replace the notional
A second-asset-to-default credit derivative creates a position for the notional amount in an obligation of each reference entity less one (that with the lowest specific riskPRR requirement). If the size of the maximum credit event payment is lower than the PRR requirement under the method in the first sentence of this rule, this amount may be taken as the PRR requirement for specific risk.
(1) BIPRU 7.11.14R - BIPRU 7.11.17R relate to specific riskPRR for trading bookpositions hedged by credit derivatives for the purposes of the calculation of the securities PRR.(2) A firm may take an allowance for protection provided by credit derivatives for the purposes in (1) in accordance with the principles set out in the rules referred to in (1).(3) [deleted]44
1(1) This rule applies to an overseas company for whom the United Kingdom is a host Member State for the purposes of the Transparency Directive.11(2) An overseas company must appoint a registrar in the United Kingdom if:11(a) there are 200 or more holders resident in the United Kingdom; or1(b) 10% of more of the shares4 are held by persons resident in the United Kingdom.14
A company2 must notify a RIS as soon as possible (unless otherwise indicated in this rule) of the following information relating to its capital:2(1) any proposed change in its capital structure including the structure of its listeddebt securities, save that an announcement of a new issue may be delayed while marketing or underwriting is in progress;(2) [deleted]11(3) any redemption of listedshares4 including details of the number of shares4 redeemed and the number of shares4 of
Subject
to any other record-keeping rule in
the Handbook, the records required
under the Handbook should be
capable of being reproduced in the English language on paper. Where a firm is required to retain a record of a
communication that was not made in the English language, it may retain it
in that language. However, it should be able to provide a translation on request.
If a firm's records relate to
business carried on from an establishment in a country or territory outside
the
(1) Whenever a firm provides a consumer with information specific to the amount that the consumer wants to borrow on a particular MCD regulated mortgage contract, following an assessment of the consumer's needs and circumstances to comply with MCOB 4.7A.2 R, it must give, clearly and prominently, the following information:(a) the same information on the firm's product range as is required by MCOB 4.4A.1 R, MCOB 4.4A.2 R and MCOB 4.4A.4R (1) (which require firms to provide information
To demonstrate compliance with MCOB 5A.3.10R (1), a firm may wish to consider, for example, doing one or more of the following actions: (1) giving the messages to the consumer in a durable medium;(2) building the requirements into the firm's training of staff, as evidenced by its training and compliance manuals;(3) insert appropriate prompts into paper-based or automated sales systems;(4) having procedures to monitor compliance by its staff with that rule.What is required in each
(1) Whenever, as part of an execution-only sale (or potential execution-only sale), a consumer provides a firm with the information in MCOB 4.8A.14R (1), MCOB 4.8A.14R (2) or (3), the firm must inform the consumer, clearly and prominently, that the consumer has the right to request an ESIS for any MCD regulated mortgage contract which the firm is able to offer the consumer.(2) A firm need not give the information in (1) if it has previously given that information in compliance
3A firm must notify the appropriate regulator in writing of the intention of another member of its group which is not a firm to issue a capital instrument which the firm intends to include within its capital resources or the consolidated capital resources of its UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group as soon as it becomes aware of the intention of the groupundertaking to issue the capital instrument. When giving notice, a firm must:(1) provide details of the amount of capital
(1) This rule sets out how to determine whether minority interests in an undertaking in a UK consolidation group or non-EEA sub-group may be included in tier one capital, tier two capital or tier three capital for the purpose of calculating consolidated capital resources (each referred to as a "tier" of capital in this rule).(2) A firm must identify the item of capital of the undertaking in question that gives rise to that minority interest.(3) A firm must include the minority
Section 340 of the Act gives the PRA6 power to make rules requiring an authorised person, or an authorised person falling into a specified class, to appoint an actuary3. The PRA has exercised its power to make such rules in PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Actuaries; and PRA Rulebook: Non-Solvency II firms: Actuarial Requirements.5 The rule-making powers of the PRA and FCA6 under section 340 of the Act also extend to an actuary's3 duties.636666663336
This chapter defines the relationship between firms and their actuaries3 and clarifies the role which actuaries3 play in the appropriate regulator's monitoring of firms' compliance with the requirements and standards under the regulatory system. The chapter sets out rules and guidance on the appointment of actuaries3, and the termination of their3 term of office, as well as setting out their respective rights and duties. The purpose of the chapter is to ensure that:3333(1) long-term
The functions3 described by SUP 4.2.2 G (1) are performed by one or more actuaries who are3 required to hold office continuously and must be approved persons3. Solvency II firms are required to have an actuarial function. Solvency II firms are not required to appoint an external actuary to fulfil the actuarial function for the purposes of rule 6 of the PRA Rulebook: Solvency II firms: Conditions Governing Business, but they must do so if they do not have the internal capability
The purpose of MCOB 14 is to apply rules and guidance in MCOB (including, but not restricted to, rules that implement the MCD) to: (1) MCD article 3(1)(b) creditors; and(2) MCD article 3(1)(b) credit intermediaries; and to identify rules and guidance in CONC that also apply, or may (subject to the election in MCOB 14.1.5R) apply, to them.
The changes that MCOB 14.1.3R requires to be made to rules applied by that rule include the following:(1) any reference to ‘land’ includes a reference to property rights in an existing or projected building;(2) any reference to regulated mortgage contract or MCD regulated mortgage contract includes a reference to an MCD article 3(1)(b) credit agreement; and(3) any reference to qualifying credit includes a reference to an MCD article 3(1)(b) credit agreement.
(1) A firm should generally make one election under MCOB 14.1.5R for all of its MCD article (3)(1)(b) credit intermediation activity or all of its lending under MCD article 3(1)(b) credit agreements, at any given time.(2) Where a firm wishes to make different elections for different types of MCD article (3)(1)(b) credit intermediation activity or lending under MCD article 3(1)(b) credit agreements, it should maintain processes to ensure that the rules applicable to each type of
The debt management client money distribution rules seek, in the event of the failure of a CASS debt management firm or of an approved bank at which the CASS debt management firm holds client money, to protect client money and to facilitate the timely payment of sums to creditors or the timely return of client money to clients.