Related provisions for MCOB 4.11.3B

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To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

SYSC 22.2.1RRP
(1) 1If a full scope regulatory reference firm (A) is considering:(a) permitting or appointing someone (P) to perform a controlled function; or(b) issuing a certificate under the certification regime for P;(as explained in more detail in rows (A) and (B) of the table in SYSC 22.2.3R), A must take reasonable steps to obtain appropriate references from: (c) P’s current employer; and(d) anyone who has been P’s employer in the past six years.(2) A must take reasonable steps to obtain
SYSC 5.1.8GRP
The effective segregation of duties is an important element in the internal controls of a firm in the prudential context. In particular, it helps to ensure that no one individual is completely free to commit a firm's assets or incur liabilities on its behalf. Segregation can also help to ensure that a firm'sgoverning body receives objective and accurate information on financial performance, the risks faced by the firm and the adequacy of its systems.
SUP 16.8.2GRP
1The purpose of this section is to enable information on the persistency of life policies and data on stakeholder pensions to be prepared and provided to the FCA11 in a standard format. This information is used in the monitoring of firms both individually and collectively.11
SYSC 4.3A.1RRP
1A CRR firm must ensure that the management body defines, oversees and is accountable for the implementation of governance arrangements that ensure effective and prudent management of the firm, including the segregation of duties in the organisation and the prevention of conflicts of interest. The firm must ensure that the management body:(1) has overall responsibility for the firm;(2) approves and oversees implementation of the firm's strategic objectives, risk strategy and
DEPP 3.2.26GRP
FCA1 staff responsible for recommending action to the RDC will continue to assess the appropriateness of the proposed action in the light of new information or representations they receive and any material change in the facts or circumstances relating to a particular matter. It may be therefore that they decide to give a notice of discontinuance to a person to whom a warning notice or decision notice has been given. The decision to give a notice of discontinuance does not require
TC App 6.1.1GRP

1Introduction

1.

An accredited body is a body appearing in the list of such bodies in the Glossary.1

1

2.

Information on accredited bodies, including guidance on the process for including an applicant body in the list, is set out below and the obligation to pay the application fee is set out in FEES 3.2.

3.

[deleted]1

1

Process for including a body in the list of accredited bodies

4.

In considering the compatibility of a proposed addition with the statutory objectives, the FCA will determine whether the applicant will, if accredited, contribute to securing an appropriate degree of protection for consumers having regard in particular to:

(1)

the matters set out in paragraphs 10 to 20; and

(2)

the rules and practices of the applicant.

5.

An application to the FCA to be added to the list of accredited bodies should set out how the applicant will satisfy the criteria in paragraphs 10 to 20. The application should be accompanied by a report from a suitable auditor which sets out its independent assessment of the applicant's ability to meet these criteria. An application form is available from the FCA upon request.

6.

When considering an application for accredited body status the FCA may:

(1)

carry out any enquiries and request any further information that it considers appropriate, including consulting other regulators;

(2)

ask the applicant or its specified representative to answer questions and explain any matter the FCA considers relevant to the application;

(3)

take into account any information which the FCA considers appropriate to the application; and

(4)

request that any information provided by the applicant or its specified representative is verified in such a manner as the FCA may specify.

7.

The FCA will confirm its decision in writing to the applicant.

8.

The FCA will enter into an agreement with the applicant or accredited body which will specify the requirements that the accredited body must meet. These will include the matters set out in paragraphs 10 to 20. Approval as an accredited body becomes effective only when the name of the applicant is added to the Glossary definition of accredited body.

9.

Paragraphs 10 to 20 set out the criteria which an applicant should meet to become an accredited body and which an accredited body should meet at all times.

Acting in the public interest and furthering the development of the profession

10.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to act in the public interest, to contribute to raising consumer confidence and professional standards in the retail investment advice market and to promoting the profession.

Carrying out effective verification services

11.

If independent verification of a retail investment adviser's professional standards has been carried out by an accredited body, the FCA will expect the accredited body to provide the retail investment adviser with evidence of that verification in a durable medium and in a form agreed by the FCA. This is referred to in this Appendix and TC 2.1.28 R as a 'statement of professional standing'.

12.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to have in place effective procedures for carrying out its verification activities. These should include:

(1)

verifying that each retail investment adviser who is a member of or subscriber to the accredited body's verification service has made an annual declaration in writing that the retail investment adviser has, in the preceding 12 months, complied with APER or, for a relevant authorised person, complied with COCON2and completed the continuing professional development required under TC 2.1.15 R;1

(2)

verifying annually the continuing professional development records of no less than 10% of the retail investment advisers who have used its service in the previous 12 months to ensure that the records are accurate and the continuing professional development completed by the retail investment advisers is appropriate; and

(3)

verifying that, if required by TC, the retail investment advisers who use its services have attained an appropriate qualification. This should include, where relevant, checking that appropriate qualification gap-fill records have been completed by the retail investment advisers.

13.

The FCA will not expect an accredited body to carry out the verification in paragraph 12(3) if a retail investment adviser provides the accredited body with evidence in a durable medium which demonstrates that another accredited body has previously verified the retail investment adviser's appropriate qualification, including, where relevant, appropriate qualification gap-fill.

14.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to make it a contractual condition of membership (where a retail investment adviser is a member of the accredited body) or of using its verification service (where a retail investment adviser is not a member of the accredited body) that, as a minimum, the accredited body will not continue to verify a retail investment adviser's standards and will3 withdraw its statement of professional standing if it 2is provided with:3

(a) false information in relation to a retail investment adviser’s qualifications or continuing professional development; or3

(b) a false declaration in relation to a retail investment adviser’s compliance with

APER; or3

(c) for a relevant authorised person, compliance with COCON.3

In this regard, an accredited body must have in place appropriate decision-making procedures with a suitable degree of independence and transparency.

222

Having appropriate systems and controls in place and providing evidence to the FCA of continuing effectiveness

15.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to ensure that it has adequate resources and systems and controls in place in relation to its role as an accredited body.

16.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to have effective procedures in place for the management of conflicts of interest and have a well-balanced governance structure with at least one member who is independent of the sector.

17.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to have a code of ethics and to ensure that its code of ethics and verification service terms and conditions do not contain any provisions that conflict with APER or COCON2.

Ongoing cooperation with the FCA

18.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to provide the FCA with such documents and information as the FCA reasonably requires, and to cooperate with the FCA in an open and transparent manner.

19.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to share information with the FCA (subject to any legal constraints) in relation to the professional standards of the retail investment advisers who use its service as appropriate. Examples might include conduct issues, complaints, dishonestly obtaining or falsifying qualifications or continuing professional development or a failure to complete appropriate continuing professional development. The FCA will expect an accredited body to notify the firm if issues such as these arise.

20.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to submit to the FCA an annual report by a suitable independent auditor which sets out that auditor's assessment of the quality of the body's satisfaction of the criteria in paragraphs 10 to 19 in the preceding 12 months and whether, in the auditor's view, the body is capable of satisfying the criteria in the subsequent 12 months. The FCA will expect this annual report to be submitted to the FCA within three months of the anniversary of the date on which the accredited body was added to the Glossary definition of accredited body.

Withdrawal of accreditation

21.

If an accredited body fails or, in the FCA's view, is likely to fail to satisfy the criteria, the FCA will discuss this with the accredited body concerned. If, following a period of discussion, the accredited body has failed to take appropriate corrective action to ensure that it satisfies and will continue to satisfy the criteria, the FCA will withdraw the accredited body's accreditation by removing its name from the list of accredited bodies published in the Glossary. The FCA will expect the body to notify each retail investment adviser holding a current statement of professional standing of the FCA's decision. A statement of professional standing issued by the accredited body before the withdrawal of accreditation will continue to be valid until its expiration.
MCOB 4.8A.14RRP
A firm must not enter into or arrange an execution-only sale for a regulated mortgage contract unless, except as provided in MCOB 4.8A.15 R:(1) for a new regulated mortgage contract not falling within MCOB 4.8A.10 R, the customer has identified the regulated mortgage contract he wishes to purchase, specifying to the firm at least the following information:(a) the name of the mortgage lender;(b) the rate of interest;(c) the interest rate type (that is, whether fixed, variable or
CONC 7.9.8GRP
The reasonable steps required by CONC 7.9.7 R may, for example, require a firm to ensure that:(1) post sent by the firm is properly addressed to the customer and marked “private and confidential” or an expression to the same effect;(2) where the firm has a name which indicates its debt collection activities, its name is not shown so that third parties may see the name on the firm's communications.
CONC 7.3.11RRP
A firm must suspend the active pursuit of recovery of a debt from a customer for a reasonable period where the customer informs the firm that a debt counsellor or another person acting on the customer's behalf or the customer is developing a repayment plan.[Note: paragraphs 7.12 of ILG and 3.7m of DCG]
SUP 11.5.2RRP
The notification from a firm under SUP 11.4.7 R (2)(a) need only contain as much of the information set out in SUP 11.5.1 R as the firm is able to provide, having made reasonable enquiries from persons and other sources as appropriate.
FEES 4.2.7IRRP
42If a firm does not have sufficient tariff data to enable the periodic fees calculation to be made in respect of that fee year, it must calculate an annualised figure based on actual data where possible. If the tariff base is a cumulative measure like income, covering the full year, it must apply the formula (A÷B) x 12, where:A = the total income from the date of authorisation up to the firm’s financial year end or 31 December (whichever is sooner), calculated according to the
FEES 4.3.1RRP
The periodic fee payable by a firm (except an AIFM qualifier,13ICVC or a UCITS qualifier) is:(1) each periodic fee applicable to it calculated in accordance with FEES 4.3.3 R, using information obtained in accordance with FEES 4.4; plus77(1A) any periodic fee applicable to it calculated in accordance with FEES 4.3.3A R using information relating to its UK business obtained in accordance with FEES 4.4 (or by other means in the case of the Bank of England); less7(2) any deductions
MAR 8.3.5RRP
A benchmark administrator must:(1) appoint a benchmark administration manager with responsibility for oversight of its compliance with this section; and(2) ensure that its benchmark administration manager has a level of authority and access to resources and information sufficient to enable him to carry out that responsibility.
CONC 6.8.5GRP
(1) An individual does not need to refer to the right under section 155 of the CCA in order to be entitled to a refund.(2) A firm should respond promptly to a request for a refund. Firms are reminded of the rule in CONC 11.1.12R to return sums without undue delay, and within 30 calendar days, on cancellation of a distance contract.4(3) In circumstances where individuals request refunds and the firm knows, or ought to know, that agreements to which section 155 applies would not
MIPRU 4.2BA.54RRP
A firm must ensure that investors have access to all materially relevant data determined as at the date of the securitisation and, where appropriate due to the nature of the securitisation, thereafter. These data must include:(1) the credit quality, performance, cashflows and supporting collateral of the securitisation exposures; and(2) information necessary to conduct comprehensive and well-informed stress tests on the cashflows and collateral values supporting the securitisation
COLL 8.2.6RRP

This table belongs to COLL 8.2.5 R

1

Description of the authorised fund

Information detailing:

(1)

the name of the authorised fund;

(2)

that the authorised fund is a qualified investor scheme; and

(3)

in the case of an ICVC, whether the head office of the company is situated in England and Wales or Wales or Scotland or Northern Ireland.

3Property Authorised Investment Funds

1A

For a property authorised investment fund, a statement that:

(1)

it is a property authorised investment fund;

(2)

no body corporate may seek to obtain or intentionally maintain a holding of more that 10% of the net asset value of the fund; and

(3)

in the event that the authorised fund manager reasonably considers that a body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund, the authorised fund manager is entitled to delay any redemption or cancellation of units in accordance with 6A if the authorised fund manager reasonably considers such action to be:

(a)

necessary in order to enable an orderly reduction of the holding to below 10%; and

(b)

in the interests of the unitholders as a whole.

2

Constitution

The following statements:

(1)

the scheme property of the scheme is entrusted to a depositary for safekeeping (subject to any exception permitted by the rules);

(2)

if relevant, the duration of the scheme is limited and, if so, for how long;

(3)

charges and expenses of the scheme may be taken out of scheme property;

(4)

for an ICVC:

(a)

what the maximum and minimum sizes of the scheme's capital are; and

(b)

the unitholders are not liable for the debts of the company;5

6

5(4A)

for an ICVC which is an umbrella, a statement that the assets of a sub-fund belong exclusively to that sub-fund and shall not be used to discharge directly or indirectly the liabilities of, or claims against, any other person or body, including the umbrella, or any other sub-fund, and shall not be available for any such purpose;6

6(4B)

for a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella, the property subject to a sub-fund is beneficially owned by the participants in that sub-fund as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants in that sub-fund) and must not be used to discharge any liabilities of, or meet any claims against, any person other than the participants in that sub-fund;

6(4C)

for a limited partnership scheme, that the scheme prohibits pooling as is mentioned in section 235(3)(a) of the Act in relation to separate parts of the scheme property, with the effect that the scheme cannot be an umbrella;

(5)

for an AUT:

(a)

the trust deed:

(i)

is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, or the law of Scotland or the law of Northern Ireland;

(ii)

is binding on each unitholder as if he had been a party to it and that he is bound by its provisions; and

(iii)

authorises and requires the trustee and the manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms;

(b)

subject to the provisions of the trust deed and all the rules made under section 247 of the Act (Trust scheme rules):

(i)

the scheme (other than sums held to the credit of the distribution account) is held by the trustee on trust for the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of individual shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and

(ii)

the sums standing to the credit of any distribution account are held by the trustee on trust to distribute or apply in accordance with COLL 8.5.15 R (Income);

(c)

a Unitholder is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units he holds; and

(d)

payments to the trustee by way of remuneration are authorised to be paid (in whole or in part) out of the scheme property; and6

6

(6)6

for an ACS:

(a)

the contractual scheme deed:

(i)

is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, or the law of Scotland or the law of Northern Ireland;

(ii)

is binding on each unitholder as if he had been a party to it and that he is bound by its provisions;

(iii)

authorises and requires the depositary and the authorised contractual scheme manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms; and

(iv)

states that units may not be issued to a person other than a person7:

(A)

who 7is a:

(i)

professional ACS investor;

(ii)

large ACS investor; or

(iii)

person who already holds units in the scheme; and

(B)

to whom units in a qualified investor scheme may be promoted under COBS 4.12.4 R;7

7

(v)

states that the authorised contractual scheme manager of an ACS must redeemunits as soon as practicable after becoming aware that those units are vested in anyone (whether as a result of subscription or transfer of units) other than a person meeting the criteria in (iv)(A) and (B);

(vi)

states that for a co-ownership scheme:

(A)

the scheme property is beneficially owned by the participants as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants);

(B)

the arrangements constituting the scheme are intended to constitute a co-ownership scheme as defined in section 235A(2) of the Act; and

(C)

the operator and depositary are required to wind up the scheme if directed to do so by the FCA in exercise of its power under section 261X (Directions) or section 261Z (Winding up or merger of master UCITS) of the Act;

(vii)

states:

(A)

whether the transfer of units in the ACS scheme or, for a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella (sub-funds of which pursue differing policies in relation to transfer of units), in each particular sub-fund, is either:

(i)

prohibited; or

(ii)

allowed;

(B)

where transfer of units is allowed by the scheme or, where appropriate the sub-fund, in accordance with (A)(ii), units may only be transferred in accordance with the conditions specified by FCArules, including that units may not be transferred to a person other than a person :

7

(i)

who 7is a:

(1)

professional ACS investor; or

(2)

large ACS investor; or

(3)

person who already holds units in the scheme; and

(ii)

to whom units in a qualified investor scheme may be promoted under COBS 4.12.4 R; and7

7

(viii)

states that for a limited partnership scheme, the scheme is not dissolved on any person ceasing to be a limited partner or nominated partner provided that there remains at least one limited partner;

(b)

subject to the provisions of the contractual scheme deed and all the rules made under section 261I of the Act (Contractual scheme rules) and for the time being in force:

(i)

the scheme property (other than sums standing to the credit of the distribution account) is held by, or to the order of, the depositary for and on behalf of the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of individual shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and

(ii)

the sums standing to the credit of any distribution account are held by the depositary to distribute or apply them in accordance with COLL 8.5.15 R(Income); and

(c)

a unitholder in a co-ownership scheme is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units he holds;

(d)

a unitholder in a limited partnership scheme is not liable for the debts or obligations of the limited partnership scheme beyond the amount of the scheme property which is available to the authorised contractual scheme manager to meet such debts or obligations, provided that the unitholder does not take part in the management of the partnership business;

(e)

the exercise of rights conferred on limited partners by FCA rules does not constitute taking part in the management of the partnership business;

(f)

the limited partners, other than the nominated partner, are to be the participants in the scheme; and

(g)

the operator of a co-ownership scheme is authorised to:

(i)

acquire, manage and dispose of the scheme property; and

(ii)

enter into contracts which are binding on unitholders for the purposes of, or in connection with, the acquisition, management or disposal of scheme property.

3

Investment objectives

A statement of the object of the scheme, in particular the types of investments and assets in which it and each sub-fund (where applicable) may invest and that the object of the scheme is to invest in property of that kind with the aim of spreading investment risk.

4

Units in the scheme

A statement of:

(1)

the classes of units which the scheme may issue, indicating, for a scheme which is an umbrella, which class or classes may be issued in respect of each sub-fund; and

(2)

the rights attaching to units of each class (including any provisions for the expression in two denominations of such rights).

5

Limitation on issue of and redemption of units

Details as to:

(1)

the provisions relating to any restrictions on the right to redeem units in any class; and

(2)

the circumstances in which the issue of the units of any particular class may be limited.

6

Income and distribution

Details of the person responsible for the calculation, transfer, allocation and distribution of income for any class of unit in issue during the accounting period.

3Redemption or cancellation of units on breach of law or rules

6A

A statement that where any holding of units by a unitholder is (or is reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager to be) an infringement of any law, governmental regulation or rule, those units must be redeemed or cancelled.

7

Base currency

A statement of the base currency of the scheme.

8

Meetings

Details of the procedures for the convening of meetings and the procedures relating to resolutions, voting and the voting rights for unitholders.

9

Powers and duties of the authorised fund manager and depositary

Where relevant, details of any function to be undertaken by the authorised fund manager and depositary which the rules in COLL require to be stated in the instrument constituting the fund.8

8

10

Termination and suspension

Details of:

(1)

the grounds under which the authorised fund manager may initiate a suspension of the scheme and any associated procedures; and

(2)

the methodology for determining the rights of unitholders to participate in the scheme property on winding up.

110A

Investment in overseas2 property through an intermediate holding vehicle1

If investment in an overseas2 immovable is to be made through an intermediate holding vehicle or a series of intermediate holding vehicles, a statement that the purpose of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles will be to enable the holding of overseas2 immovables by the scheme.1

11

Other relevant matters

Details of those matters which enable the scheme, authorised fund manager or depositary to obtain any privilege or power conferred by the rules in COLL which is not otherwise provided for in the instrument constituting the fund.8

8
ICOBS 6.1.8GRP
In determining what is “in good time”, a firm should consider the importance of the information to the customer's decision-making process and the point at which the information may be most useful. Distance communication timing requirements are also relevant (for example, the distance communication rules enable certain information to be provided post-conclusion in telephone and certain other sales (see ICOBS 3.1.14 R and ICOBS 3.1.15 R)).