Related provisions for CREDS 3A.5.9

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To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

EG 8.4.4RP
1Examples of requirements that the FCA may consider imposing when exercising its own-initiative power in support of its enforcement function are: a requirement not to take on new business; a requirement not to hold or control client money; a requirement not to trade in certain categories of specified investment; a requirement that prohibits the disposal of, or other dealing with, any of the firm’s assets (whether in the United Kingdom or elsewhere) or restricts
MCOB 2A.2.3RRP
An MCD mortgage lender may request the consumer, family member or close relation of the consumer to:(1) open or maintain a payment or a savings account, where the only purpose of the account is to accumulate capital to repay the credit, to service the credit, to pool resources to obtain the credit, or to provide additional security for the MCD mortgage lender in the event of default;(2) purchase or keep an investment product or a private pension product, where such product primarily
EG 19.17.3RP
1The FCA's approach to the use of its enforcement powers, and its statement of policy in relation to imposing and determining financial penalties under the RCB Regulations, are set out in RCB 4.2. The FCA's penalty policy includes having regard, where relevant, DEPP 6.5 to DEPP 6.5D and such other specific matters as the likely impact of the penalty on the interests of investors in the relevant bonds. The FCA's statement of procedure in relation to giving warning notices or decision
EG 6.1.3RP
1Where it is investigating any matter, the FCA will, in exceptional circumstances, make a public announcement that it is doing so if it considers such an announcement is desirable to: (1) maintain public confidence in the financial system or the market; or (2) protect consumers or investors; or (3) prevent widespread malpractice; or (4) help the investigation itself, for example by bringing forward witnesses; or (5) maintain the smooth operation of the market. In deciding whether
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FCA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 1502 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount);

3

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 100,0003 euros (or equivalent amounts);

33

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered in the EEA states3 cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); or3

3

3(f)

the offer falls within subsection (1A).

3(1A)

An offer (“the current offer”) falls within this subsection where transferable securities are resold or placed through a financial intermediary where:

3(a)

the transferable securities have previously been the subject of one or more offers to the public;

3(b)

in respect of one or more of those previous offers, any of paragraphs (a) to (e) of subsection (1) applied;

3(c)

a prospectus is available for the securities which has been approved by the FCA and meets either of the conditions in subsection (1B);4 and

4

3(d)

the issuer or other person who was responsible for drawing up the prospectus has given written consent to the use of the prospectus for the purpose of the current offer.4

4(1B)

The conditions referred to in subsection (1A)(c) are:

(a)

that the prospectus was approved by the FCA no earlier than 12 months before the date the current offer is made, and is supplemented by every supplementary prospectus which was required to be submitted under section 87G; or

(b)

in the case of non-equity transferable securities falling within article 5(4)(b) of the prospectus directive, that the securities concerned have not ceased to be issued in a continuous or repeated manner.

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within point (1) of Section 1 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive3 to act as his agent; and

3

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor" in relation to an offer of transferable securities,3 means –

(a)

a person described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to that directive and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with that relevant firm (or each of those relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(c)

a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of that directive and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of that directive;3

3

3(d)

a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of that directive.

3(8)

In subsection (7) “relevant firm” means an investment firm or credit institution acting in connection with the offer.

3(9)

Investment firms and credit institutions must communicate their classification of their clients as being or not being qualified investors on request to an issuer, subject to complying with the Data Protection Act 1998 or any directly applicable EU legislation relating to data protection.

3(10)

In subsections (8) and (9) -

“credit institution” means -

(a) a credit institution authorised under the banking consolidation directive; or

(b) an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its registered office (or if it does not have one, its head office) in an EEA State.

LR 18.2.6GRP
The FCA may modify LR 18.2.5 R to allow partly paid securities if it is satisfied that their transferability is not restricted and investors have been provided with appropriate information to enable dealings in the securities to take place on an open and proper basis. [Note: Articles 46 and 54 CARD]
COLL 6.2.7RRP
(1) The authorised fund manager may require, on agreement with the depositary, or may permit, on the request of the investor, direct issues and cancellations of units by an ICVC or by the depositary of an AUT or ACS7.7(2) If (1) applies:(a) the instrument constituting the fund8 must provide for this; and(b) the prospectus must provide details of the procedure to be followed which must be consistent with the rules in this section.8
COLL 1.1.2GRP
(1) The general purpose of this sourcebook is to contribute to the FCA meeting its statutory objectives of the protection of consumers. It provides a regime of product regulation for authorised funds, which sets appropriate standards of protection for investors by specifying a number of features of those products and how they are to be operated.(2) In addition, this sourcebook implements part of the requirements of the UCITS Directive to meet EU law 2 obligations relevant to authorised
LR 4.2.1GRP
Section 80 (1) of the Act (general duty of disclosure in listing particulars) requires listing particulars submitted to the FCA to contain all such information as investors and their professional advisers would reasonably require, and reasonably expect to find there, for the purpose of making an informed assessment of:(1) the assets and liabilities, financial position, profits and losses, and prospects of the issuer of the securities; and(2) the rights attaching to the securi
COLL 5.4.2GRP
(1) This section covers techniques relating to transferable securities and approved money-market instruments which are used for the purpose of efficient portfolio management. It3 permits the generation of additional income for the benefit of the authorised fund, and hence for its investors, by entry into stock lending transactions for the account of the authorised fund.(2) The specific method of stock lending permitted in this section is in fact not a transaction which is a loan
LR 14.2.4RRP
The FCA will not admit shares of a company incorporated in a non-EEA State that are not listed either in its country of incorporation or in the country in which a majority of its shares are held, unless the FCA is satisfied that the absence of the listing is not due to the need to protect investors. [Note: Article 51 CARD]
BIPRU 9.6.1ARRP
1An originator which has sold instruments in its trading book to an SSPE and no longer holds market risk capital requirements for these instruments, or a sponsor, must not, with a view to reducing potential or actual losses to investors, provide support to the securitisation beyond its contractual obligations.[Note: BCD Article 101(1)]
SYSC 22.5.11GRP

Table: Examples of factors to take into account when deciding whether old misconduct is sufficiently serious to disclose

Factors to take into account

Comments

(A) Whether P has committed a serious breach of individual conduct requirements.

Individual conduct requirements has the same meaning as in Part Two of SYSC 22 Annex 1R (Template for regulatory references given by relevant authorised persons and disclosure requirements).

Factors to take into account in deciding whether the breach is serious include the following.

(1) The extent to which the conduct was deliberate or reckless.

(2) The extent to which the conduct was dishonest.

(3) Whether the breaches are frequent or whether they have continued over a long period of time. The fact that breaches were frequent or repeated may increase the likelihood that they should be disclosed since the breaches may show a pattern of non-compliance.

(4) The extent of loss, or risk of loss, caused to existing, past or potential investors, depositors, policyholders or other counterparties or customers.

(5) The reasons for the breach. For example, where the breach was caused by lack of experience which has been remedied by training or further experience, it is less likely that the breach will still be relevant.

(B) Whether the conduct caused B to breach requirements of the regulatory system or P was concerned in a contravention of such a requirement by B and, in each case, whether P’s conduct was itself serious.

(1) The factors in (A) are relevant to whether P’s conduct was serious.

(2) The seriousness of the breach by B is relevant. The factors in (A) are also relevant to this.

(3) A breach by B of certain requirements is always likely to be serious under (2). Breach of the threshold conditions is an example. However that does not mean that P’s involvement will automatically be serious.

(C) Whether P’s conduct involved dishonesty (whether or not also involving a criminal act).

Dishonesty is an important factor but it is not automatically decisive in every case. For instance, a small one-off case of dishonesty many years ago may not be sufficiently serious to require disclosure.

(D) Whether the conduct would have resulted in B’s dismissing P, had P still been working for B, based on B's disciplinary policies and the requirements of the law about unfair dismissal.

(E) Whether the conduct was such that, if B was considering P for a role today and became aware of the historical conduct, B would not employ P today notwithstanding the time that has passed.

Note 1: P refers to the employee about whom the reference is being written.

Note 2: B refers to the firm giving the reference.

PERG 8.36.6GRP

Table Application of Exemptions to Forms of Promotions

Financial Promotion Order

Applies to

Article No.

Title and PERG 8 reference (where applicable)

Unsolicited real time

Solicited real time

Non-real time

(solicited or unsolicited)

12

Communications to overseas recipients (8.12.2G)

*1

*

*

13

Communications from customers and potential customers (8.12.9G)

*

*

*

14

Follow up non-real time communications and solicited real time communications (8.12.10G)

*

*

15

Introductions (8.12.11G)

*

*

*1

16

Exempt persons (8.12.12G)

*2

*3

*3

17

Generic promotions (8.12.14G and 8.21.4G)

*

*

*

17A1

Communications caused to be made or directed by unauthorised persons (8.6.7AG)

*

*

*

18

Mere conduits (8.12.18G)

*

*

*

18A

Outgoing electronic commerce communications: mere conduits, caching and hosting (8.12.18G)1

*

*

*

19

Investment professionals (8.12.21G and 8.21.5G)

*

*

*

20

Communications by journalists (8.12.23G)

*

20A

Promotion broadcast by company director etc (8.12.23G and 8.21.6G)

*

*

*

20B

Incoming electronic commerce communications (8.12.38G)

*

*

*

22

Deposits : non-real time communications (8.13)

*

23

Deposits : real time communications (8.13)

*

*

24

Relevant insurance activity : non-real time communications (8.13)

*

25

Relevant insurance activity : non-real time communications : reinsurance and large risks (8.13)

*

26

Relevant insurance activity : real time communications (8.13)

*

*

28

One-off non-real time communications and solicited real time communications (8.14.3G)

*

*

28A

One-off unsolicited real time communications (8.14.11G)

*

28B1

Real time communications: introductions in connection with qualifying credit (8.17.12G)

*

*

29

Communications required or authorised by enactments

*

*

*

30

Overseas communicators: solicited real time communications (8.14.15G)

*

31

Overseas communicators: non-real time communications to previously overseas customers (8.14.17G)

*

32

Overseas communicators: unsolicited real time communications to previously overseas customers (8.14.16G)

*

33

Overseas communicators: unsolicited real time communications to knowledgeable customers (8.14.16G)

*

34

Governments, central banks etc

*

*

35

Industrial and provident societies

*

*

36

Nationals of the EEA States other than United Kingdom (8.14.18G)

*

*

37

Financial markets

*

*

38

Persons in the business of placing promotional material

*

*

*

39

Joint enterprises (8.14.19G)

*

*

*

40

Participants in certain recognised collective investment schemes

*

*

41

Bearer instruments: promotions required or permitted by market rules (8.14.42G)

*

*

42

Bearer instruments: promotions to existing holders (8.14.42G)

*

*

43

Members and creditors of certain bodies corporate (8.14.41G and 8.21.8G)

*

*

44

Members and creditors of open-ended investment companies

*

*

45

Group companies

*

*

*

46

Qualifying credit to bodies corporate (8.17.10G)1

*

*

*10

1046A

Promotions of credit etc. for business purposes (8.17-A.10G)

*

*

*

47

Persons in the business of disseminating information (8.21.10G)

*

*

*

48

Certified high net worth individuals (8.14.21G)

*

*

49

High net worth companies, unincorporated associations etc (8.14.25G)

*

*

*

50

Sophisticated investors (8.14.27G)

*

*

*

50A

Self-certified sophisticated investors {8.14.28AG)

*5

*

*

51

Associations of high net worth or sophisticated investors (8.14.29G)

*

*

52

Common interest group of a company (8.14.30G)

*

*

53

Settlors, trustees and personal representatives

*

*

*

54

Beneficiaries of trust, will or intestacy

*

*

*

55

Communications by members of professions (8.15.1G)

*

*

55A

Non-real time communication by members of the professions. (8.15.5G)

*

56

Remedy following report by Parliamentary Commissioner for Administration

*

*

*

57

Persons placing promotional material in particular publications

*

*

*

58

Acquisition of interest in premises run by management companies

*

*

59

Annual accounts and directors' report (8.21.11G)

*

*

*

60

Participation in employee shares schemes

*

*

*

61

Sale of goods and supply of services

*

*

62

Sale of body corporate (8.14.35G)

*

*

*

64

Takeovers of relevant unlisted companies

*

*

*

65

Takeovers of relevant unlisted companies: warrants etc

*

*

*

66

Takeovers of relevant unlisted companies: application forms

*

*

*

67

Promotions required or permitted by market rules (8.21.13G)

*

*

68

Promotions in connection with admission to certain EEA markets (8.21.16G)

*

*

69

Promotions of securities already admitted to certain markets (8.21.17G)

*

*1

701

Promotions included in listing particulars etc (8.21.20G)1

*1

711

Material relating to prospectus for public offer of unlisted securities

*1

721

Pension products offered by employers (8.14.40AG8)

*

*

*

872A

Pension product offers communicated to employees by third parties (8.14.40AAG)

*

*

*

872B

Insurance product offers communicated to employees by employers (8.14.40ABG)

*

*

*

872C

Insurance products offers communicated to employees by third parties (8.14.40ACG)

*

*

*

872D

Staff mortgage offers communicated to employees by employers (8.14.40ADG)

*

*

*

872E

Staff mortgage offers communicated to employees by third parties (8.14.40AEG)

*

*

*10

1072F

Credit agreements offered to employees by employers

*

*

*

731

Advice centres (8.14.40B)

*

*

*

1 in limited circumstances only – see article 12(2) of the Financial Promotion Order

2 for the purpose of article 16 (2) only

3 for the purpose of article 16 (1) only1

PR 2.5.1RRP
Without prejudice to the adequate information of investors, if, in exceptional cases, certain information referred to in the PD Regulation that is required to be included in a prospectus is inappropriate to the issuer's activity or to the legal form of the issuer or to the transferable securities to which the prospectus relates, the prospectus must contain information equivalent to the required information (unless there is no such information). [Note: article 8.3 PD]
GEN 4.2.2GRP
There are other pre-contract information requirements outside this chapter, including:(1) for financial promotions, inthe financial promotion rules;55(2) for designated investment business, inCOBS 8 (Client agreements), COBS 5 (Distance Communications), COBS 6 (Information about the firm, its services and remuneration), COBS 13 and 14 (which relate to product information)5 and CASS (Client assets);5(3) for non-investment insurance contracts3, distance communication requirements
COLL 6.9.6GRP
(1) Regulation 15(9) of the OEIC Regulations, and sections 243(8) and 261D(10)6 of the Act require that an authorised fund's name must not be undesirable or misleading. This section contains guidance on some specific matters the FCA will consider in determining whether the name of an authorised fund is undesirable or misleading. It is in addition to the requirements of regulation 19 of the OEIC Regulations (Prohibition on certain names).6(2) The FCA will take into account whether
SUP 13.4.4GRP
8(2) [deleted]17(2A) 8(a) If the UK firm'sEEA right derives from the Insurance Mediation Directive, and the EEA State in which the UK firm is seeking to provide services has notified the European Commission of its wish to be informed of the intention of persons to provide cross border services in its territory in accordance with article 6(2) of that directive, paragraph 20(3B)(a) of Part III of Schedule 3 to the Act requires the appropriate UK regulator20 to send a copy of the