Related provisions for PERG 7.4.13

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EG 13.6.2RP
1When deciding whether to petition on this ground the FCA will consider all relevant facts including: (1) whether the needs of consumers and the public interest require the company or partnership to cease to operate; (2) the need to protect consumers' claims and client assets; (3) whether the needs of consumers and the public interest can be met by using the FCA's other powers; (4) in the case of an authorised person, where the FCA considers that the authorisation should be withdrawn
SUP 3.1.2RRP

Applicable sections (see SUP 3.1.1 R)

This table and the provisions in SUP 3 should be read in conjunction with GEN 2.2.23 R to GEN 2.2.25 G. In particular, the PRA does not apply any of the provisions in SUP 3 in respect of FCA-authorised persons. SUP 3.10 and SUP 3.11 are applied by the FCA only.41

(1) Category of firm

(2) Sections applicable to the firm

(3) Sections applicable to its auditor

(1)

Authorised professional firm which is required by IPRU(INV) 2.1.2R to comply with chapters 3, 519 or 13 of IPRU(INV) and which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9 (Notes 1 and 6)23

23192323

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10

19

(2)

Authorised professional firm not within (1) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies22

172223

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.11

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(3)

Authorised professional firm not within (1) or (2) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(4)

Bank, building society or dormant account fund operator21which in each case carries on designated investment business21(Notes 2A and 6)23

23

SUP 3.1-SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(5)

Bank, building society or a dormant account fund operator which in each case does not carry on designated investment business21 (Note 2A)

21

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(5A)

Credit union

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.824

27(5B)30

CASS debt management firm unless subject to a requirement imposed under section 55L of the Act stating that it must not hold client money or such a requirement to the same effect30

SUP 3.1

SUP 3.10

SUP 3.11

SUP 3.1

SUP 3.10

(6)

Insurer, the Society of Lloyd's, underwriting agent or members' adviser, UK ISPV11 (Note 5)7

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(7)

Investment management firm, (other than an exempt CAD firm),16personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm) 15,28securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm20)15 or collective portfolio management firm that is an external AIFM28 which, in each case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9(Notes 3 and 623)17

239281723

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10

19

9(7A)

Investment management firm (other than an exempt CAD firm)20, personal investment firm (other than a small personal investment firm or exempt CAD firm15),28securities and futures firm (other than an exempt CAD firm15 or an exempt BIPRU commodities firm20) or collective portfolio management firm that is an external AIFM28 not within (7) to which the custody chapter or client money chapter applies22

23281722

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.1025

25(7AA)

A firm that has exercised an opt in to CASS in accordance with CASS 1.4.9 R

SUP 3.1 to SUP 3.7, SUP 3.11

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10.

9(7B)

Collective portfolio management firm that is a 28UCITS firm13or an internally managed AIF28 (Note 6)23

13

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8,19SUP 3.10

19

13(7C)

UK MiFID investment firm, which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act (Notes 3B and 6)2320

2023

SUP 3.1 - 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.1014

17(7D)

Sole trader or partnership that is a UK20MiFID investment firm (other than an exempt CAD firm) (Notes 3C and 6)2320

2023

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.10

(8)

Small personal investment firm or service company which, in either case, has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8

(9)8

Home finance provider10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act9

10

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

(10)8

Insurance intermediary (other than an exempt insurance intermediary) to which the insurance client money chapter17 (except for CASS 5.2 (Holding money as agent)) applies (see Note 4)8

17

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.78, SUP 3.1123

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.8, SUP 3.108

(11)8

Exempt insurance intermediary and insurance intermediary not subject to SUP 3.1.2 R(10) which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

(12)8

Home finance intermediary10 or home finance administrator10 which has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.

1010

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.78

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2, SUP 3.88

Note 1 = This chapter applies to an authorised professional firm in row (1) (and its auditor) as if the firm were of the relevant type in the right-hand column of IPRU(INV) 2.1.4R.

Note 2 [deleted]23

171723

Note 2A = For this purpose, designated investment business does not include either or both:

(a) dealing which falls within the exclusion in article 15 of the Regulated Activities Order (Absence of holding out etc) (or agreeing to do so); and

(b) dealing in investments as principal (or agreeing to do so):

(i) by a firm whose permission to deal in investments as principal is subject to a limitation to the effect that the firm, in carrying on this regulated activity, is limited to entering into transactions in a manner which, if the firm was an unauthorised person, would come within article 16 of the Regulated Activities Order (Dealing in contractually based investments); and

(ii) in a manner which comes within that limitation;

having regard to article 4(4) of the Regulated Activities Order (Specified activities: general23).

18

Note 3 = This note applies in relation to an oil market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply and in relation to an energy market participant to which IPRU(INV) 3 does not apply. In SUP 3:

(a) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.7 are applicable to such a firm; and

(b) only SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 are applicable to its auditor;

and, in each case, only if it has an auditor appointed under or as a result of a statutory provision other than in the Act.

17Note 3A [deleted]23

23

20Note 3B = UK MiFID investment firms include exempt CAD firms. An exempt CAD firm that has opted into MiFID can benefit from the audit exemption for small companies in the Companies Act legislation if it meets the relevant criteria in that legislation and fulfils the conditions of regulation 4C(3) of the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Markets in Financial Instruments) Regulations 2007. If a firm does so benefit then SUP 3 will not apply to it. For further details about exempt CAD firms, see PERG 13, Q58.

17Note 3C20 = A sole trader or a partnership that is a UK MiFID investment firm20 to which the custody chapter22 or client money chapter applies2220 must have its annual accounts audited.

20202222

Note 4 = The client money audit requirement in SUP 3.1.2 R(10) therefore applies to all insurance intermediaries except:8

• those which do not hold client money or other client assets in relation to insurance mediation activities; or 8

• those which only hold up to, but not exceeding, £30,000 of client money under a statutory trust arising under CASS 5.3.8

Insurance intermediaries which, in relation to insurance mediation activities, hold no more than that amount of client money only on a statutory trust are exempt insurance intermediaries.8

Note (5) = In row (6):7

(a)7

SUP 3.1 - SUP 3.7 applies to a managing agent in respect of its own business and in respect of the insurance business of each syndicate which it manages; and7

(b)7

SUP 3.1, SUP 3.2 and SUP 3.8 apply to the auditors of a managing agent and the auditors of the insurance business of each syndicate which the managing agent manages.1234567

23Note 6 = Where SUP 3.11 applies to a firm, and SUP 3.10 applies to the auditor of that firm, those sections apply whether or not that firm'spermission prevents it from holding client money or custody assets and whether or not it holds client money or custody assets.A collective portfolio management firm that is an internally managed AIF is required to appoint an auditor under FUND 3.3.6R (2) (Annual report of an AIF) because the AIFM is also an AIF.28

SUP 13.1.3GRP
This chapter does not apply to:(1) a firm established in an EEA State other than the United Kingdom; passporting by such a firm in or into the United Kingdom is a matter for its Home State regulator although guidance is given in 4SUP 13A4 (Qualifying for authorisation under the Act);(2) other overseas firms (that is, overseas firms established outside the EEA); such firms are not entitled to passport into another EEA State and, where relevant, may need to obtain authorisation
EG 19.14.3RP
1The Money Laundering Regulations add to the range of options available to the FCA for dealing with anti-money laundering and anti-terrorist financing 2 failures. These options include2:• to prosecute a relevant person, including but not limited to an 2authorised firm, an 2Annex I financial institution or an auction platform, as well as any responsible officer2;2• to fine or censure a relevant person, including but not limited to an2 authorised firm, an2 Annex I financial institution
IPRU-INV 1.1.5RRP
On becoming authorised by the appropriate regulator a firm will have to comply with the particular chapter of this sourcebook appropriate to its business. The firm will be able to seek guidance on this during the authorisation procedure. If subsequently, the business for which a firm has permission changes it may be necessary for it to comply with a different set of financial resources requirements. Firms will be able to discuss this aspect with the appropriate regulator
COLL 6.13.6RRP
An authorised fund manager of a UCITS scheme or a UK UCITS management company of an EEA UCITS scheme must ensure a high level of security during the electronic data processing referred to in COLL 6.13.5 R as well as the integrity and confidentiality of the recorded information, as appropriate.[Note: article 7(2) of the UCITS implementing Directive]
SUP 16.7A.1RRP
1This section applies to every firm in the regulatory activity group (RAG) set out in column (1), which is a type of firm in column (2), of the tables in SUP 16.7A.3 R and SUP 16.7A.5 R, except:(1) an incoming EEA firm with permission for cross border services only;(2) an incoming EEA firm in relation to its carrying on of bidding in emissions auctions;(3) an oil market participant that is not subject to the requirements of IPRU(INV) Chapter 3;(4) an authorised professional firm
FEES 10.2.2RRP
(1) A firm must pay the pensions guidance levy applicable to it within 30 days of the date of the invoice to which that sum relates, unless any of (2) to (5) apply.(2) If the firm has applied to cancel its Part 4A permission under SUP 6.4.5D (Cancellation of permission), the firm must pay the pensions guidance levy applicable to it on the date of its application.(3) If the FCA has exercised its own-initiative powers to cancel a firm'sPart 4A permission, the firm must pay the
FEES 5.8.2RRP
(1) 1This rule deals with the calculation of:(a) a firm'sgeneral levy in the 12 months ending on the 31 March in which it obtains permission, or was authorised under the Payment Services Regulations or the Electronic Money Regulations4or had its permission and/or payment services activities extended (relevant permissions)3 and the following 12 months ending on the 31 March;3 and33(b) the tariff base for the industry blocks that relate to each of the relevant permissions3.3(2)
LR 8.6.19RRP
4For each 8sponsor service requiring the submission of a document to the FCA or contact with the FCA, a sponsor must:8(1) at the time of submission or on first making contact with the FCA8notify the FCAof the name and contact details of a key 8contact within8 the sponsor for that matter8; and8888(2) ensure that its key8contact : 88(a) has8 sufficient knowledge about the listed company or applicant and the proposed matter8to be able to answer queries from the FCA about it; 888(b)
FEES 1.1.1GRP
(1) FEES applies to all persons required to pay a fee or levy under a provision of the Handbook. The purpose of this chapter is to set out to whom the rules and guidance in FEES apply. 30(2) FEES 2 (General Provisions) contains general provisions which may apply to any type of fee payer.30(3) FEES 3 (Application, Notification and Vetting Fees) covers one-off fees payable on a particular event for example:3330(a) 33various application fees (including those in relation to authorisation,
IFPRU 1.1.15GRP
For the purposes of the definitions in IFPRU and Part Three, Title I, Chapter 1, Section 2 of the EU CRR (Own funds requirements for investment firms with limited authorisation to provide investment services), a person does any of the activities referred to in IFPRU and the EU CRR if:(1) it does that activity anywhere in the world; or(2) its permission includes that activity; or(3) (for an EEA firm) it is authorised by its Home State regulator to do that activity; or(4) (if the
SUP 12.4.1AGRP
1The effect of sections 20 (Authorised persons acting without permission) and 39(4) (Exemption of appointed representatives) of the Act is that the regulated activities covered by an appointed representative's appointment need to:(1) fall within the scope of the principal's permission; or(2) be excluded from being regulated activities when carried on by the principal, for example because they fall within article 28 of the Regulated Activities Order (Arranging transactions to which
MCOB 5.9.5GRP
A person may enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement as agreement provider without being regulated by the FCA (or an exempt person) if the person does not do so by way of business. However, a SRB intermediary should at all times be conscious of its obligations under Principle 6 (Customers' interests). Should the firm have any reason to believe or entertain any suspicions that the SRB agreement seller may be proposing to enter into a regulated sale and rent back agreement
PR 1.2.1UKRP

Sections 85 and 86 of the Act provide for when a prospectus approved by the FCA will be required:

85

(1)

It is unlawful for transferable securities to which this subsection applies to be offered to the public in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the offer is made.

(2)

It is unlawful to request the admission of transferable securities to which this subsection applies to trading on a regulated market situated or operating in the United Kingdom unless an approved prospectus has been made available to the public before the request is made.

(3)

A person who contravenes subsection (1) or (2) is guilty of an offence and liable –

(a)

on summary conviction, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 3 months or a fine not exceeding the statutory maximum or both;

(b)

on conviction on indictment, to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 2 years or a fine or both.

(4)

A contravention of subsection (1) or (2) is actionable, at the suit of a person who suffers loss as a result of the contravention, subject to the defences and other incidents applying to actions for breach of statutory duty.

(5)

Subsection (1) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.2 R].

(6)

Subsection (2) applies to all transferable securities other than –

(a)

those listed in Part 1 of Schedule 11A;

(b)

such other transferable securities as may be specified in prospectus rules [see PR 1.2.3 R].

(7)

"Approved prospectus" means, in relation to transferable securities to which this section applies, a prospectus approved by the competent authority of the home State in relation to the issuer of the securities.

86

Exempt offers to the public

(1)

A person does not contravene section 85(1) if –

(a)

the offer is made to or directed at qualified investors only;

(b)

the offer is made to or directed at fewer than 1502 persons, other than qualified investors, per EEA State;

(c)

the minimum consideration which may be paid by any person for transferable securities acquired by him pursuant to the offer is at least 100,0003 euros (or an equivalent amount);

3

(d)

the transferable securities being offered are denominated in amounts of at least 100,0003 euros (or equivalent amounts);

33

(e)

the total consideration for the transferable securities being offered in the EEA states3 cannot exceed 100,000 euros (or an equivalent amount); or3

3

3(f)

the offer falls within subsection (1A).

3(1A)

An offer (“the current offer”) falls within this subsection where transferable securities are resold or placed through a financial intermediary where:

3(a)

the transferable securities have previously been the subject of one or more offers to the public;

3(b)

in respect of one or more of those previous offers, any of paragraphs (a) to (e) of subsection (1) applied;

3(c)

a prospectus is available for the securities which has been approved by the FCA and meets either of the conditions in subsection (1B);4 and

4

3(d)

the issuer or other person who was responsible for drawing up the prospectus has given written consent to the use of the prospectus for the purpose of the current offer.4

4(1B)

The conditions referred to in subsection (1A)(c) are:

(a)

that the prospectus was approved by the FCA no earlier than 12 months before the date the current offer is made, and is supplemented by every supplementary prospectus which was required to be submitted under section 87G; or

(b)

in the case of non-equity transferable securities falling within article 5(4)(b) of the prospectus directive, that the securities concerned have not ceased to be issued in a continuous or repeated manner.

(2)

Where -

(a)

a person who is not a qualified investor ("the client") has engaged a qualified investor falling within point (1) of Section 1 of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive3 to act as his agent; and

3

(b)

the terms on which the qualified investor is engaged enable him to make decisions concerning the acceptance of offers of transferable securities on the client's behalf without reference to the client,

an offer made to or directed at the qualified investor is not to be regarded for the purposes of subsection (1) as also having been made to or directed at the client.

(3)

For the purposes of subsection (1)(b), the making of an offer of transferable securities to –

(a)

trustees of a trust,

(b)

members of a partnership in their capacity as such, or

(c)

two or more persons jointly,

is to be treated as the making of an offer to a single person.

(4)

In determining whether subsection (1)(e) is satisfied in relation to an offer ("offer A"), offer A is to be taken together with any other offer of transferable securities of the same class made by the same person which –

(a)

was open at any time within the period of 12 months ending with the date on which offer A is first made; and

(b)

had previously satisfied subsection (1)(e).

(5)

For the purposes of this section, an amount (in relation to an amount denominated in euros) is an "equivalent amount" if it is an amount of equal value denominated wholly or partly in another currency or unit of account.

(6)

The equivalent is to be calculated at the latest practicable date before (but in any event not more than 3 working days before) the date on which the offer is first made.

(7)

"Qualified investor" in relation to an offer of transferable securities,3 means –

(a)

a person described in points (1) to (4) of Section I of Annex II to the markets in financial instruments directive, other than a person who, before the making of the offer, has agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(b)

a person who has made a request to one or more relevant firms to be treated as a professional client in accordance with Section II of Annex II to that directive and has not subsequently, but before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with that relevant firm (or each of those relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II to that directive;3

3

(c)

a person who is recognised as an eligible counterparty in accordance with article 24 of that directive and has not, before the making of the offer, agreed in writing with the relevant firm (or each of the relevant firms) to be treated as a non-professional client in accordance with the final paragraph of Section I of Annex II of that directive;3

3

3(d)

a person whom any relevant firm is authorised to continue to treat as a professional client in accordance with article 71(6) of that directive.

3(8)

In subsection (7) “relevant firm” means an investment firm or credit institution acting in connection with the offer.

3(9)

Investment firms and credit institutions must communicate their classification of their clients as being or not being qualified investors on request to an issuer, subject to complying with the Data Protection Act 1998 or any directly applicable EU legislation relating to data protection.

3(10)

In subsections (8) and (9) -

“credit institution” means -

(a) a credit institution authorised under the banking consolidation directive; or

(b) an institution which would satisfy the requirements for authorisation as a credit institution under that directive if it had its registered office (or if it does not have one, its head office) in an EEA State.