Related provisions for SUP 8.3.13A

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PERG 1.3.1GRP
This guidance is issued under section 139A of the Act (Guidance). It represents the FCA's views and does not bind the courts. For example, it would not bind the courts in an action for damages brought by a private person for breach of a rule (see section 138D of the Act (Actions for damages)), or in relation to the enforceability of a contract where there has been a breach of sections 19 (The general prohibition) or 21 (Restrictions on financial promotion) of the Act (see sections
REC 2A.1.3GRP
The RAP regulations apply modified provisions of the Act to an RAP. For example, an RAP is an exempt person in respect of its business as an auction platform due to the application of section 285 of the Act as modified by the the RAP regulations. Similarly, section 293 of the Act is applied and modified by the RAP regulations to provide for notification rules and notification requirements in relation to RAPs.
PRIN 3.4.4RRP
A contravention of the rules in PRIN does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action).
MAR 2.5.2RRP
A person who is treated under MAR 2.5.1R (1) as acting or engaging in conduct in conformity with the price stabilising rules is also to be treated to an equivalent extent as so acting or engaging for the purposes of:(1) [deleted]2(2) Part XIV (Disciplinary measures); and (3) Part XXV (Injunctions and Restitution) of the Act.
DISP 2.3.2-AGRP
1132In accordance with article 11 of the Regulated Activities Amendment Order, the Ombudsman can also consider under the Compulsory Jurisdiction:(1) a relevant existing credit-related complaint referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service before 1 April 2014 which was formerly being dealt with under the Consumer Credit Jurisdiction; and(2) a relevant new credit-related complaint referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service on or after 1 April 2014 which relates to an act or omission
DEPP 6.5B.2GRP
(1) The FCA3 will determine a figure which will be based on a percentage of an individual’s “relevant income”. “Relevant income” will be the gross amount of all benefits received by the individual from the employment in connection with which the breach occurred (the “relevant employment”), and for the period of the breach. In determining an individual’s relevant income, “benefits” includes, but is not limited to, salary, bonus, pension contributions, share options and share schemes;
SYSC 22.2.3RRP

Table: What positions need a reference

Position

When to obtain reference

Comments

(A) Permitting or appointing someone to perform an FCA controlled function or a PRA controlled function.

One month before the end of the application period

Where a request for a reference would require:

(a) the firm requesting the reference;

(b) the employer giving the reference; or

(c) any other person;

to make a mandatory disclosure prior to P disclosing to its current employer that such application has been made, the date is the end of the application period.

(B) Issuing a certificate under section 63F of the Act (Certification of employees by relevant authorised persons).

Before the certificate is issued

This includes renewing an existing certificate.

(C) Appointing someone to any of the following positions (as defined in the PRA Rulebook):

(a) a notified non-executive director;

(b) a credit union non-executive director; or

(c) a key function holder.

Not applicable

SYSC 22.2.1R (obligation to obtain a reference) does not apply to a firm appointing someone to the position in column (1).

However SYSC 22.2.2R does apply to a firm asked to give a reference to a firm appointing someone to the position in column (1).

Note 1: Mandatory disclosure means an obligation in any applicable laws, regulations or rules to declare or disclose information to the public.

Note 2: P refers to the employee or ex-employee about whom the reference is given as defined in more detail in SYSC 22.2.1R and SYSC 22.2.2R.

Note 3: The application period means the period for consideration referred to in section 61 of the Act (Determination of application).
SUP 10A.17.2GRP
If the firm or its advisers have further questions, they should contact the FCA's Contact Centre (see SUP 10A.12.6 G).
SUP 16.4.4GRP
A firm and its controllers are required to notify certain changes in control (see7SUP 11 (Controllers and close links)). The purpose of the rules and guidance in this section is:7(1) to ensure that, in addition to such notifications, the FCA12 receives regular and comprehensive information about the identities of all of the controllers of a firm, which is relevant to a firm's continuing to satisfy the effective supervision threshold conditions15; 15158(2) to implement certain
REC 4.1.2GRP
This chapter sets out the FCA's3 approach to the supervision of recognised bodies and contains guidance on: 3(1) the arrangements for investigating complaints about recognised bodies made under section 299 of the Act (Complaints about recognised bodies) (REC 4.4); (2) the FCA's3approach to the exercise of its powers under:3(a) (for RIEs)2section 296 of the Act (Appropriate regulator's3 power to give directions) or (for RAPs) regulation 3 of the RAP regulations2 to give directions
CREDS 8.3.3GRP
(1) The effect of section 59 of the Act is that if a person is to perform certain functions (which are known as controlled functions) for a credit union, the credit union should first apply for approval to:2(a) the FCA (if the controlled function is specified by the FCA in its rules); or2(b) the PRA (if the controlled function is specified by the PRA in its rules).2(2) The firm should not allow the person to perform that function until the firm receives the approval.2(3) A person
SUP 12.8.2GRP
In assessing whether to terminate a relationship with an appointed representative, a firm should be aware that the notification rules in SUP 15 require notification to be made immediately to the FCA if certain events occur. Examples include a matter having a serious regulatory impact or involving an offence or a breach of any requirement imposed by the Act or by regulations or orders made under the Act by the Treasury.