Related provisions for PRIN 3.1.5
201 - 220 of 634 items.
Where the FCA1 requires a report by a skilled person under section 166 of the Act1 (Reports by skilled persons), the FCA1 will send a notice in writing requiring the person in SUP 5.2.1 G to provide a report by a skilled person, or notifying the person in SUP 5.2.1 G in writing of the FCA's1 appointment of a skilled person to provide a report,2 on any matter if it is reasonably required in connection with the exercise of its functions conferred by or under the Act. The FCA1
2Where the FCA1 requires the updating or collection of information by a skilled person under section 166A of the Act (Appointment of skilled person to collect and update information), the FCA1 will send a notice in writing requiring the firm to appoint a skilled person, or notifying the firm of the FCA's1 appointment of a skilled person, to collect or update the relevant information.
Where the2skilled person is appointed by the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G, the appropriate regulator2 will normally seek to agree in advance with the person in SUP 5.2.1 G or SUP 5.2.2 G2 the skilled person who will make the report or collect or update the relevant information.2 The Act requires that such2skilled person be nominated or approved by the appropriate regulator:22222(1) if the appropriate regulator2 decides to nominate the skilled person who is to make the
General guidance on the perimeter is also contained in various FCA documents (mainly fact sheets and frequently asked questions) that are available on the FCA website at www.fca.org.uk.These documents, and the URL on which they may be accessed, include:(1) [deleted]612446(2) [deleted]212(3) [deleted](4) [deleted]313(5) [deleted]313(6) [deleted]313(7) guidance about the position under the Insurance Mediation Directive and the Regulated Activities Order of the company appointed
Any person who, having read relevant general guidance and, where appropriate, taken legal advice, remains uncertain about whether his activities amount to regulated activities or his communications will be subject to the restriction in section 21 of the Act, may seek individual guidance from the FCA. Requests for individual guidance should be made in line with SUP 9.
In addition, the FCA has established a team to provide general assistance and guidance to persons generally about the scope of the Act. Enquiries of this kind may be made:(1) by authorised firms, to either the Contact Centre (email firm.queries@fca.org.uk, Tel 0300 500 05977) or their normal supervisory contact; or77(2) by individuals or non-authorised firms, to the Consumer Contact Centre (email ccc@fca.org.uk, Tel 0800 111 6768 ).8
6Paragraph 2B(1) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 7(1)(d) of the UCITS Directive, paragraphs 2B(1) to 2B(23) of Schedule 6 to the Act implement article 5(4) of MiFID, paragraph 2B(4) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 2.9 of the Insurance Mediation Directive and paragraph 2B(7) of Schedule 6 to the Act implements article 8(1)(e) of AIFMD, although the Act extends the threshold condition set out in paragraph 2B of Schedule 6 of the Act to authorised persons
Neither the UCITS Directive6, MiFID,3 the Insurance Mediation Directive, AIFMD6 nor the Act define what is meant by a firm's 'head office'. This is not necessarily the firm's place of incorporation or the place where its business is wholly or mainly carried on. Although the FCA5 will judge each application on a case-by-case basis, the key issue in identifying the head office of a firm is the location of its central management and control, that is, the location of: 16(1) the directors
10Situations when the FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a sponsor can provide include (but are not limited to) where it appears to the FCA that: (1) the sponsor has no or limited relevant experience and expertise of providing certain types of sponsor services or of providing sponsor services to certain types of company; or(2) the sponsor does not have systems and controls in place which are appropriate for the nature of the sponsor services which the sponsor
10The FCA may impose restrictions or limitations on the services a sponsor can provide or suspend a sponsor's approval under section 88E of the Act if the FCA considers it desirable to do so in order to advance one or more of its operational objectives.[Note: A statutory notice may be required under section 88F of the Act. Where this is the case, the procedure for giving a statutory notice is set out in DEPP.]
The FCA 5 may also5 seek to exercise its own-initiative
powers in certain situations,5 including
the following:55(1) If
the FCA5 determines
that a firm's management, business
or internal controls give rise
to material risks that are not fully addressed by existing requirements,
the FCA5may
seek to use its own-initiative
powers.555(2) If
a firm becomes or is to become
involved with new products or selling practices which present risks not adequately
addressed by existing requirements,
Pursuant
to sections 55L, 55N, 55O, 55P and 55Q of the Act,
within the scope of its functions and powers, the FCA5may seek to impose requirements which
include but are not restricted to:55(1) requiring
a firm to submit regular reports
covering, for example, trading results, management accounts, customer complaints, connected party transactions;(2) where
appropriate, 5requiring a firm to
maintain prudential limits, for example on large exposures,
foreign currency exposures or
liquidity
The FCA5 will seek to give a firm reasonable
notice of an intent to vary its permission or impose a requirement5 and to agree with the firm an
appropriate timescale. However, if the FCA5 considers
that a delay may create a risk to any of the FCA's statutory objectives5,3 the FCA5 may need to act immediately using its powers under section 55J and/or 55L5 of the Act5 with
immediate effect.5535555
(1) Before an EEA firm (other than7 an EEA firm that has received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)3 exercises an EEA right to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the Act requires it to satisfy the service conditions, as set out in paragraph 14 of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act. 1(2) For the purposes of paragraph 14(1)(b) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, the information to be contained in the regulator's notice has been prescribed
(1) Unless the EEA firm3(other than7 an EEA firm that received authorisation under article 18 of the auction regulation)331is passporting under the Insurance Mediation Directive, if the appropriate UK regulator9 receives a regulator's notice or, where no notice is required , is informed of the EEA firm's intention to provide cross border services into the United Kingdom, the appropriate UK regulator9 will, under paragraphs 14(2) and 14(3) of Part II of Schedule 3 to the Act, notify
6When the FCA receives a consent notice from the EEA firm'sHome State regulator in respect of a firm within paragraph 5(i) of Part I of Schedule 3 to the Act, it will, under paragraph 14(3ZA), use the information received from the EEA firm'sHome State regulator to enter the necessary information into the Financial Services Register.
(1) 7In addition to instruments admitted to or dealt in on an eligible market, a UCITS scheme may also with the express consent of the FCA (which takes the form of a waiver under sections 138A and 138B of the Act as applied by section 250 of the Act or regulation 7 of the OEIC Regulations) invest in an approved money-market instrument provided:(a) the issue or issuer is itself regulated for the purpose of protecting investors and savings in accordance with COLL 5.2.10AR (2);(b)
A UCITS scheme must not invest in units in a collective investment scheme ("second scheme") unless the second scheme satisfies all of the following conditions, and provided that no more than 30% of the value of the UCITS scheme is invested in second schemes within (1)(b) to (e):88(1) the second scheme must:(a) satisfy the conditions necessary for it to enjoy the rights conferred by the UCITS Directive; or(b) be a recognised scheme18 under the provisions of section 27218 of the
(1) COLL 9.3 gives further detail as to the recognition of a scheme under section 27218of the Act.18(2) Article 5013 of the UCITS Directive sets out the general investment limits. So, a scheme18 which has the power to invest in gold or immovables would not meet the criteria set out in COLL 5.2.13R (1).18131818(3) 8In determining whether a scheme (other than a UCITS)18 meets the requirements of article 50(1)(e)13 of the UCITS Directive for the purposes ofCOLL 5.2.13R (1),18 the
(1) 21Authorised fund managers of UCITS schemes or EEA UCITS schemes should bear in mind that where a UCITS scheme, or an EEA UCITS scheme that is a recognised scheme under section 264 of the Act, employs particular investment strategies such as those in (2)21, COBS 4.13.2R (Marketing communications relating to UCITS schemes or EEA UCITS schemes) and COBS 4.13.3R (Marketing communications relating to a feeder UCITS) contain additional disclosure requirements in relation to marketing
11The RAO and the auction regulation together generate three broad categories of person in relation to bidding for emissions allowances on an auction platform:(1) The first category consists of an investment firm to which MiFID applies and a BCD credit institution where either firm is bidding on behalf of its clients for emissions auction products or bidding on its own account for emissions auction products that are financial instruments. This category also consists of a person
16Most collective investment schemes will also be either a UCITS or an AIF (although not all AIFs are collective investment schemes). As a result, there is a potential overlap between the activity of establishing, operating and winding up a collective investment scheme and the activities of managing a UCITS and managing an AIF. However, there are exclusions in the RAO which considerably reduce the overlap (see PERG 2.8.10G (2) and PERG 16.5).
16An open-ended investment company will, once it is authorised under regulations made under section 262 of the Act, become an authorised person in its own right under Schedule 5 to the Act (Persons concerned in Collective Investment Schemes). Under ordinary principles, a company operates itself and an authorisedopen-ended investment company will be operating the collective investment scheme constituted by the company. It is not required to go through a separate process of authorisation
The FCA will
adopt a pre-emptive approach which will be based on making forward-looking
judgments about firms' business
models, product strategy and how they run their businesses, to enable the FCA to identify and intervene earlier to
prevent problems crystallising. The FCA's approach
to supervising firms will contribute
to its delivery against its objective to protect and enhance the integrity
of the UK financial system (as
set out in the Act). Where the FCA has responsibilities
While respecting each regulator's
different statutory objectives and
mandates, in undertaking its supervisory activity the FCA will
co-ordinate and co-operate with the PRA as
required and necessary in the interests of the effective and efficient supervision
of regulated firms and individuals.
Both regulators will coordinate with each other as required under the Act, including on the exchange of information
relevant to each regulator's individual objectives. However, the FCA and
(1) 4A firm to which this rule applies must submit a Remuneration Benchmarking Information Report to the FCA annually.(2) The firm must complete the Remuneration Benchmarking Information Report in the format set out in SUP 16 Annex 33A.(3) The firm must submit the Remuneration Benchmarking Information Report to the FCA within four months of the firm'saccounting reference date.(4) A firm that:(a) is not part of a UK lead regulated group must complete that report on an unconsolidated
(1) A firm to which this rule applies must submit a High Earners Report to the FCA4 annually.104(2) The firm must submit that report to the FCA4 within four months of the end of the firm'saccounting reference date.104(3) A firm that is not part of a UK lead regulated group must complete that report on an unconsolidated basis in respect of remuneration awarded in the last completed financial year to all high earners of the firm who mainly undertook their professional activities
There is power in the Act for the Treasury to specify the circumstances in which a person is or is not to be regarded as carrying on regulated activities by way of business. The Business Order has been made using this power (partly reflecting differences in the nature of the different activities). As such, the business test for insurance mediation activity is distinguished from the standard test for 'investment business' in article 3 of the Business Order. Under article 3(4) of
If a person established in the EEA: (1) does not have an EEA right; (2) does not have permission as a UCITS qualifier; and(3) does not have, or does not wish to exercise, a Treaty right (see SUP 13A.3.4 G to SUP 13A.3.11 G);to carry on a particular regulated activity in the United Kingdom, it must seek Part 4A permission from the appropriate UK regulator3 to do so (see the appropriate UK regulator's website: www.fca.org.uk/firms/authorisation/apply-authorisation for the FCA and
For guidance on how to apply for Part 4A permission3 under the Act, see the appropriate UK regulator's website: http://www.fca.org.uk/firms/about-authorisation/getting-authorised for the FCA and www.bankofengland.co.uk/pra/Pages/authorisations/newfirm/default.aspx for the PRA.31 If an EEA firm or Treaty firm wishes to make any subsequent changes to its top-up permission, it can make an application for variation of that permission (see SUP 6 (Applications to vary and cancel Part
1132In accordance with article 11 of the Regulated Activities Amendment Order, the Ombudsman can also consider under the Compulsory Jurisdiction:(1) a relevant existing credit-related complaint referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service before 1 April 2014 which was formerly being dealt with under the Consumer Credit Jurisdiction; and(2) a relevant new credit-related complaint referred to the Financial Ombudsman Service on or after 1 April 2014 which relates to an act or omission
8As a result of section 404B(11) of the Act, the Ombudsman can also consider under the Compulsory Jurisdiction a complaint from a complainant who:(1) is not satisfied with a redress determination made by a respondent under a consumer redress scheme; or(2) considers that a respondent has failed to make a redress determination in accordance with a consumer redress scheme.
The FCA is under a duty, under section 59A of the Act (Specifying functions as controlled functions: supplementary), to exercise the power to specify any senior management function as an FCA controlled function in a way that it considers will minimise the likelihood that approvals need to be given by both the FCA and the PRA for the performance by a person of senior management functions in relation to the same PRA-authorised person.
The nature of many bodies corporate means that they will, in most if not all circumstances, come within the definition of collective investment scheme in section 235(1) to (3) of the Act (Collective investment schemes). The property concerned will generally be managed as a whole under the control of the directors of the body corporate or some other person for the purpose of running its business. The idea underlying the investment is that the investors will participate in or receive
However, there are a number of exclusions that apply to prevent certain arrangements from being a collective investment scheme. These are in the Schedule to the Financial Services and Markets Act 2000 (Collective Investment Schemes) Order 2001 (SI 2001/1062) (Arrangements not amounting to a collective investment scheme). The exclusion in paragraph 21 of the Schedule to that Order is of particular significance for bodies corporate. It excludes from being a collective investment
A person who is concerned to know whether his proposed activities may require authorisation will need to consider the following questions (these questions are a summary of the issues to be considered and have been reproduced, in slightly fuller form, in the flowchart in PERG 4.18):(1) will I be carrying on my activities by way of business (see PERG 4.3.3 G (The business test))?(2) if so, will my activities relate to regulated mortgage contracts (see PERG 4.4 (What is a regulated
An unauthorised person who intends to carry on activities connected with mortgages will also need to comply with section 21 of the Act (Restrictions on financial promotion). This guidance does not cover financial promotions that relate to mortgages. Persons should refer to the general guidance on financial promotion in Appendix 1 to the Authorisation manual, PERG 8 (Financial promotion and related activities)) and, in particular, to PERG 8.17 (Financial promotions concerning agreements
This chapter gives guidance to a firm, which is considering appointing an appointed representative, on how the provisions of section 39 of the Act (Exemption of appointed representatives) work. For example, it gives guidance on the conditions that must be satisfied for a person to be appointed as an appointed representative. It also gives guidance to a firm on the implications, for the firm itself, of appointing an appointed representative.
2This chapter also sets out guidance about section 39A of the Act, which is relevant to a UK MiFID investment firm that is considering appointing an FCA registered tied agent. It also sets out the FCA'srules, and guidance on those rules, in relation to the appointment of an EEA tied agent by a UK MiFID investment firm.
1Where the FCA believes that a company or partnership to which sections 359(1) and 367(1) of the Act applies is, or is likely to become, unable to pay its debts, the FCA will consider whether it is appropriate to seek an administration order or a compulsory winding up order from the court. The FCA's approach will be in two stages: the first is to consider whether it is appropriate to seek any insolvency order; the second is to consider which insolvency order will meet, or is likely
1In determining whether it is appropriate to seek an insolvency order on this basis, the FCA will consider the facts of each case including, where relevant: (1) whether the company or partnership has taken or is taking steps to deal with its insolvency, including petitioning for its own administration, placing itself in voluntary winding up or proposing to enter into a company voluntary arrangement, and the effectiveness of those steps; (2) whether any consumer or other creditor