Related provisions for CASS 5.6.6

161 - 180 of 184 items.
Results filter

Search Term(s)

Filter by Modules

Filter by Documents

Filter by Keywords

Effective Period

Similar To

To access the FCA Handbook Archive choose a date between 1 January 2001 and 31 December 2004 (From field only).

TC App 6.1.1GRP

1Introduction

1.

An accredited body is a body appearing in the list of such bodies in the Glossary.1

1

2.

Information on accredited bodies, including guidance on the process for including an applicant body in the list, is set out below and the obligation to pay the application fee is set out in FEES 3.2.

3.

[deleted]1

1

Process for including a body in the list of accredited bodies

4.

In considering the compatibility of a proposed addition with the statutory objectives, the FCA will determine whether the applicant will, if accredited, contribute to securing an appropriate degree of protection for consumers having regard in particular to:

(1)

the matters set out in paragraphs 10 to 20; and

(2)

the rules and practices of the applicant.

5.

An application to the FCA to be added to the list of accredited bodies should set out how the applicant will satisfy the criteria in paragraphs 10 to 20. The application should be accompanied by a report from a suitable auditor which sets out its independent assessment of the applicant's ability to meet these criteria. An application form is available from the FCA upon request.

6.

When considering an application for accredited body status the FCA may:

(1)

carry out any enquiries and request any further information that it considers appropriate, including consulting other regulators;

(2)

ask the applicant or its specified representative to answer questions and explain any matter the FCA considers relevant to the application;

(3)

take into account any information which the FCA considers appropriate to the application; and

(4)

request that any information provided by the applicant or its specified representative is verified in such a manner as the FCA may specify.

7.

The FCA will confirm its decision in writing to the applicant.

8.

The FCA will enter into an agreement with the applicant or accredited body which will specify the requirements that the accredited body must meet. These will include the matters set out in paragraphs 10 to 20. Approval as an accredited body becomes effective only when the name of the applicant is added to the Glossary definition of accredited body.

9.

Paragraphs 10 to 20 set out the criteria which an applicant should meet to become an accredited body and which an accredited body should meet at all times.

Acting in the public interest and furthering the development of the profession

10.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to act in the public interest, to contribute to raising consumer confidence and professional standards in the retail investment advice market and to promoting the profession.

Carrying out effective verification services

11.

If independent verification of a retail investment adviser's professional standards has been carried out by an accredited body, the FCA will expect the accredited body to provide the retail investment adviser with evidence of that verification in a durable medium and in a form agreed by the FCA. This is referred to in this Appendix and TC 2.1.28 R as a 'statement of professional standing'.

12.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to have in place effective procedures for carrying out its verification activities. These should include:

(1)

verifying that each retail investment adviser who is a member of or subscriber to the accredited body's verification service has made an annual declaration in writing that the retail investment adviser has, in the preceding 12 months, complied with APER or, for a relevant authorised person, complied with COCON2and completed the continuing professional development required under TC 2.1.15 R;1

(2)

verifying annually the continuing professional development records of no less than 10% of the retail investment advisers who have used its service in the previous 12 months to ensure that the records are accurate and the continuing professional development completed by the retail investment advisers is appropriate; and

(3)

verifying that, if required by TC, the retail investment advisers who use its services have attained an appropriate qualification. This should include, where relevant, checking that appropriate qualification gap-fill records have been completed by the retail investment advisers.

13.

The FCA will not expect an accredited body to carry out the verification in paragraph 12(3) if a retail investment adviser provides the accredited body with evidence in a durable medium which demonstrates that another accredited body has previously verified the retail investment adviser's appropriate qualification, including, where relevant, appropriate qualification gap-fill.

14.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to make it a contractual condition of membership (where a retail investment adviser is a member of the accredited body) or of using its verification service (where a retail investment adviser is not a member of the accredited body) that, as a minimum, the accredited body will not continue to verify a retail investment adviser's standards and will3 withdraw its statement of professional standing if it 2is provided with:3

(a) false information in relation to a retail investment adviser’s qualifications or continuing professional development; or3

(b) a false declaration in relation to a retail investment adviser’s compliance with

APER; or3

(c) for a relevant authorised person, compliance with COCON.3

In this regard, an accredited body must have in place appropriate decision-making procedures with a suitable degree of independence and transparency.

222

Having appropriate systems and controls in place and providing evidence to the FCA of continuing effectiveness

15.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to ensure that it has adequate resources and systems and controls in place in relation to its role as an accredited body.

16.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to have effective procedures in place for the management of conflicts of interest and have a well-balanced governance structure with at least one member who is independent of the sector.

17.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to have a code of ethics and to ensure that its code of ethics and verification service terms and conditions do not contain any provisions that conflict with APER or COCON2.

Ongoing cooperation with the FCA

18.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to provide the FCA with such documents and information as the FCA reasonably requires, and to cooperate with the FCA in an open and transparent manner.

19.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to share information with the FCA (subject to any legal constraints) in relation to the professional standards of the retail investment advisers who use its service as appropriate. Examples might include conduct issues, complaints, dishonestly obtaining or falsifying qualifications or continuing professional development or a failure to complete appropriate continuing professional development. The FCA will expect an accredited body to notify the firm if issues such as these arise.

20.

The FCA will expect an accredited body to submit to the FCA an annual report by a suitable independent auditor which sets out that auditor's assessment of the quality of the body's satisfaction of the criteria in paragraphs 10 to 19 in the preceding 12 months and whether, in the auditor's view, the body is capable of satisfying the criteria in the subsequent 12 months. The FCA will expect this annual report to be submitted to the FCA within three months of the anniversary of the date on which the accredited body was added to the Glossary definition of accredited body.

Withdrawal of accreditation

21.

If an accredited body fails or, in the FCA's view, is likely to fail to satisfy the criteria, the FCA will discuss this with the accredited body concerned. If, following a period of discussion, the accredited body has failed to take appropriate corrective action to ensure that it satisfies and will continue to satisfy the criteria, the FCA will withdraw the accredited body's accreditation by removing its name from the list of accredited bodies published in the Glossary. The FCA will expect the body to notify each retail investment adviser holding a current statement of professional standing of the FCA's decision. A statement of professional standing issued by the accredited body before the withdrawal of accreditation will continue to be valid until its expiration.

REC 2.11.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body has made satisfactory arrangements for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to the users of its facilities, the FCA3 may have regard to: 3(1) the level of protection which the arrangements provide against the risk of theft or other types or causes of loss;(2) whether the arrangements ensure that assets are only used or transferred in accordance with the instructions of the owner of those assets or in accordance with
ICOBS 6.1.12BGRP
4A firm should have regard to the record-keeping obligations referred to in ICOBS 2.4.1G and ensure that it has appropriate systems and controls in place with respect to: (a) the adequacy of its records so it may fulfil its regulatory and statutory obligations; and(b) the sufficiency of its records to enable the FCA to monitor the firm’s compliance with the requirements under the regulatory system.
IPRU-INV 5.8.2RRP

1 Deductions and Ratios (Items 10, 11 and 15)

(a)

Notwithstanding IPRU-INV 5.8.1R and 5.8.2R for an exempt CAD firm, in calculating own funds, all of Item 8 must be deducted after the total of Tier 1 and Tier 2 capital and the following restrictions apply:

(i)

the total of fixed term cumulative preference shares (item 10) and long-term qualifying subordinated loans (item 11) that may be included in Tier 2 capital is limited to 50 per cent of Tier 1 capital;

(ii)

Tier 2 capital must not exceed 100 per cent of Tier 1 capital.

(b)

A firm which is not an exempt CAD firm and which is subject to a liquid capital requirement under IPRU-INV 5.4.1R may take into account qualifying subordinated loans in the calculation of liquid capital up to a maximum of 400% of its Tier 1 capital.

2 Non corporate entities

(a)

In the case of partnerships or sole traders, the following terms should be substituted, as appropriate, for items 1 to 4 in Tier 1 capital:

(i)

partners' capital accounts (excluding loan capital);

(ii)

partners' current accounts (excluding unaudited profits and loan capital);

(iii)

proprietors' account (or other term used to signify the sole trader's capital but excluding unaudited profits).

(b)

Loans other than qualifying subordinated loans shown within partners' or proprietors' accounts must be classified as Tier 2 capital under item 12.

(c)

For the calculation of own funds, partners' current accounts figures are subject to the following adjustments in respect of a defined benefit occupational pension scheme:

(i)

a firm must derecognise any defined benefit asset;

(ii)

a firm may substitute for a defined benefit liability the firm'sdeficit reduction amount. The election must be applied consistently in respect of any one financial year.

Note 1

A firm should keep a record of and be ready to explain to its supervisory contacts in the FCA the reasons for any difference between the deficit reduction amount and any commitment the firm has made in any public document to provide funding in respect of a defined benefit occupational pension scheme.

2A Reserves

For the calculation of own funds the following adjustments apply to the audited reserves figure:

(a)

a firm must deduct any unrealised gains or, where applicable, add back in any unrealised losses on cash flow hedges of financial instruments measured at cost or amortised cost;

(b)

in respect of a defined benefit occupational pension scheme, a firm must derecognise any defined benefit asset;

(c)

a firm may substitute for a defined benefit liability the firm's deficit reduction amount. The election must be applied consistently in respect of any one financial year.

Note 2

A firm should keep a record of and be ready to explain to its supervisory contacts in the FCA the reasons for any difference between the deficit reduction amount and any commitment the firm has made in any public document to provide funding in respect of a defined benefit occupational pension scheme.

(d)

a firm must not include any unrealised gains from investment property.

Note 3

Unrealised gains from investment property should be reported as part of revaluation reserves.

(e)

where applicable, a firm must deduct any asset in respect of deferred acquisition costs and add back in any liability in respect of deferred income (but exclude from the deduction or addition any asset or liability which will give rise to future cash flows), together with any associated deferred tax.

Note 4

Reserves must be audited unless the firm is exempt from the provisions of Part VII of the Companies Act 1985 (section 249A (Exemptions from audit)), or where applicable, Part 16 of the Companies Act 2006 (section 477 (Small companies: Conditions for exemption from audit)) relating to the audit of accounts.

3 Intangible assets (Item 6)

Intangible assets comprise:

(a)

formation expenses to the extent that these are treated as an asset in the firm's accounts;

(b)

goodwill, to the extent that it is treated as an asset in the firm's accounts; and

(c)

other assets treated as intangibles in the firm's accounts.

Intangible assets do not include a deferred acquisition cost asset.

4 Material current year losses (Item 7)

Losses in current year operating figures must be deducted when calculating Tier 1 capital if such losses are material. For this purpose profits and losses must be calculated quarterly or monthly, as appropriate. If this calculation reveals a net loss it shall only be deemed to be material for the purposes of this Table if it exceeds 10 per cent of the firm's Tier 1 capital.

5 Material holdings in credit and financial institutions (Item 8)

Material holdings comprise:

(a)

where the firm holds more than 10 per cent of the equity share capital of the institution, the value of that holding and the amount of any subordinated loans to the institution and the value of holdings in qualifying capital items or qualifying capital instruments issued by the institution;

(b)

in the case of holdings other than those mentioned in (a) above, the value of holdings of equity share capital in, and the amount of subordinated loans made to, such institutions and the value of holdings in qualifying capital items or qualifying capital instruments issued by such institutions to the extent that the total of such holdings and subordinated loans exceeds 10 per cent of the firm'sown funds calculated before the deduction of item 8.

5A Material insurance holdings (Item 8)

(a)

A material insurance holding means the holdings of an exempt CAD firm of items of the type set out in (b) in any:

(i)

insurance undertaking; or

(ii)

insurance holding company;

that fulfils one of the following conditions:

(iii)

it is a subsidiary undertaking of that firm; or

(iv)

that firm holds a participation in it.

(b)

An item falls into this provision for the purpose of (a) if it is:

(i)

an ownership share; or

(ii)

subordinated debt or another item of capital that forms part of the tier two capital resources that falls into GENPRU 2 or, as the case may be, INSPRU 7, or is an item of “basic own funds” defined in the PRA Rulebook: Glossary.

6 Long term qualifying subordinated loans (Item 11)

Loans having the characteristics prescribed by IPRU-INV 5.6.1R may be included in item 11, subject to the limits set out in paragraph (1) above.

6A Perpetual cumulative preference share capital

Perpetual cumulative preference share capital may not be included in the calculation of own funds by an exempt CAD firm unless it meets the following requirements:

(a)

it may not be reimbursed on the holder's initiative or without the prior agreement of the FCA;

(b)

the instrument must provide for the firm to have the option of deferring the dividend payment on the share capital;

(c)

the shareholder's claims on the firm must be wholly subordinated to those of all non-subordinated creditors;

(d)

the terms of the instrument must provide for the loss-absorption capacity of the share capital and unpaid dividends, whilst enabling the firm to continue its business; and

(e)

it must be fully paid-up.

7 Qualifying arrangements (Item 13)

(a)

An exempt CAD firm may only include a qualifying undertaking or other arrangement in item 13 if it is a qualifying capital instrument or a qualifying capital item.

(b)

A firm which is not an exempt CAD firm may only include qualifying undertakings in its calculation of liquid capital if:

(i)

it maintains liquid capital equivalent to 6/52 of its annual expenditure in a form other than qualifying undertakings; and

(ii)

the total amount of all qualifying undertakings plus qualifying subordinated loans does not exceed the limits set out in paragraph (1)(b) above.

8 Net trading book profits (Item 14)

For firms which are not exempt CAD firms unaudited profits can be included at item 14.

This Item must not be included in the liquid capital calculation of a firm whose permitted business includes establishing, operating or winding up a personal pension scheme.

Note 5

Non-trading book interim profits may only be included in Tier 1 of the calculation if they have been independently verified by the firm’s external auditors, unless the firm is exempt from the provisions of Part VII of the Companies Act 1985 (section 249A (Exemptions from audit)), or where applicable, Part 16 of the Companies Act 2006 (section 477 (Small companies: Conditions for exemption from audit)) relating to the audit of accounts.

For this purpose, the external auditor should normally undertake at least the following:

(a)

satisfy himself that the figures forming the basis of the interim profits have been properly extracted from the underlying accounting records;

(b)

review the accounting policies used in calculating the interim profits so as to obtain comfort that they are consistent with those normally adopted by the firm in drawing up its annual financial statements;

(c)

perform analytical review procedures on the results to date, including comparisons of actual performance to date with budget and with the results of prior periods;

(d)

discuss with management the overall performance and financial position of the firm;

(e)

obtain adequate comfort that the implications of current and prospective litigation, all known claims and commitments, changes in business activities and provisions for bad and doubtful debts have been properly taken into account in arriving at the interim profits; and

(f)

follow up problem areas of which the auditors are already aware in the course of auditing the firm’s financial statements.

A firm wishing to include interim profits in Tier 1 capital in a financial return should submit to the FCA with the financial return a verification report signed by its external auditor which states whether the interim results are fairly stated, unless the firm is exempt from the provisions of Part VII of the Companies Act 198 (section 249A (Exemptions from audit)), or where applicable, Part 16 of the Companies Act 2006 (section 477 (Small companies: Conditions for exemption from audit)) relating to the audit of accounts.

Profits on the sale of capital items or arising from other activities which are not directly related to the investment business of the firm may also be included within the calculation of liquid capital, but (unless the firm is exempt as above) only if they can be separately verified by the firm’s auditors. In such a case, such profits can form part of the firm’s Tier 1 capital as profits.

9 Short term qualifying subordinated loans (Item 15)

Loans having the characteristics prescribed by IPRU-INV 5.6.3R may be included in item 15 subject to the limits set out in paragraph (1) above. Tier 2 capital which exceeds the ratios prescribed by paragraph (1)(a) and (b) may be included in item 15 subject to paragraph (1) above.

10 Illiquid assets (Item 16)

Illiquid assets comprise:

(a)

tangible fixed assets.

Note 6

In respect of tangible fixed assets purchased under finance leases the amount to be deducted as an illiquid asset shall be limited to the excess of the asset over the amount of the related liability shown on the balance sheet.

(b)

holdings in, including subordinated loans to, credit or financial institutions which may be included in the own funds of such institutions unless they have been deducted under item 8;

(c)

any investment in undertakings other than credit institutions and other financial institutions where such investments are not readily realisable;

(d)

any deficiency in net assets of a subsidiary;

(e)

deposits not available for repayment within 90 days or less (except for payments in connection with margined futures or options contracts);

Note 7

Where cash is placed on deposit with a maturity of more than 90 days but is repayable on demand subject to the payment of a penalty, then this is not required to be deducted as an illiquid asset but a deduction is required for the amount of the penalty.

(f)

loans, other debtors and accruals not falling due to be repaid within 90 days or which are more than one month overdue by reference to the contractual payment date;

(g)

physical stocks (except where subject to the position risk requirement as set out in IPRU-INV 5.11; and

(h)

prepayments to the extent that the period of prepayment exceeds six weeks in the case of a firm subject to the 6/52 expenditure based requirement or thirteen weeks in the case of a firm subject to the 13/52 expenditure based requirement.

(i)

if not otherwise covered, any holding in eligible capital instruments of an insurance undertaking, insurance holding company, or reinsurance undertaking that is a subsidiary or participation. Eligible capital instruments include ordinary share capital, cumulative preference shares, perpetual securities and long-term subordinated loans that are eligible for insurance undertakings under INSPRU 1.

Illiquid assets do not include a defined benefit asset or a deferred acquisition cost asset.

11 Qualifying property (Item 17)

This item comprises the qualifying amount calculated in accordance with IPRU-INV 5.7.1R.

ICOBS 1.1.4GRP
Guidance on the application provisions is in ICOBS 1 Annex 1 (Part 4).
SYSC 1.4.2RRP
A contravention of a rule in SYSC 11 to 2SYSC 21,7SYSC 22.8.1R or SYSC 22.9.1R7 does not give rise to a right of action by a private person under section 138D of the Act (and each of those rules is specified under section 138D(3) of the Act as a provision giving rise to no such right of action). 3443
TC App 5.1.1GRP

1Introduction

1.

TC Appendix 4E contains a list of appropriate qualifications for the purposes of TC 2.1.10 E.

2.

This Appendix sets out:

(1)

the criteria which the FCA may take into account when assessing a qualification provider; and

(2)

the information the FCA will expect the qualification provider to provide if it asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E.

Criteria for assessing a qualification provider

3.

The FCA will expect the qualification provider of an appropriate qualification to have, in the FCA's opinion:

(1)

assessors and qualification developers who are trained and qualified;

(2)

valid, reliable and robust assessment methods;

(3)

robust governance and a clear separation of function between its qualification services and any other services it performs, including effective procedures for managing any conflicts of interest;

(4)

procedures for reviewing and refreshing its syllabus and question banks to ensure that they are relevant and up to date;

(5)

robust and credible procedures for assessing a candidate's demonstration of the learning outcomes specified in the relevant examination standards;

(6)

robust arrangements for contingency and business continuity planning in relation to its qualification services;

(7)

appropriate records management procedures in relation to its qualification services;

(8)

procedures for dealing with inappropriate conduct by candidates, for example, attempting to obtain or obtaining qualifications dishonestly;

(9)

robust procedures for the setting of assessments and marking of results; and

(10)

adequate resources in order to be financially viable.

Information about the qualification to be provided to the FCA

4.

If a qualification provider asks the FCA to add a qualification to the list of appropriate qualifications in TC Appendix 4 E, the FCA will expect the qualification provider to:

(1)

where relevant, specify the qualifications framework within which the qualification is placed;

(2)

specify the activity in TC Appendix 1 to which the qualification relates;

(3)

set out the recommended prior knowledge, attainment or experience for candidates;

(4)

where relevant, set out the exemption policy for a candidate's prior learning or achievement;

(5)

provide the relevant learning materials to the FCA together with an explanation of how those learning materials correspond to the content of the most recent examination standards. Any content of the examination standards which has been excluded from the learning materials must be justified;

(6)

where applicable, explain how grading is applied;

(7)

where applicable, explain the provider's rules of combination;

(8)

provide details of expected learning hours or any other similar arrangements;

(9)

where applicable, specify the level of the overall qualification with reference to the relevant qualification framework or, if there is no relevant qualification framework, the European Qualifications Framework and the percentage of the qualification at that level, as well as the percentages and the levels for the remainder of the qualification;

(10)

provide details of any credit for prior learning included in the qualification together with an explanation of how it meets the most recent examination standards; and

(11)

provide an explanation of how the qualification compares in quality and standard to other similar qualifications.

Information about the qualification provider to be provided to the FCA

5.

When considering whether to include or retain a qualification in the list of appropriate qualifications, the FCA may consider, where relevant:

(1)

whether the qualification provider has in place suitable arrangements for:

(a)

meeting its statutory duties in relation to equality and diversity; and

(b)

reducing barriers to learning, for example, for candidates with learning difficulties;

(2)

any concerns, issues or investigations which have been raised by the qualification provider's qualifications regulator;

(3)

the annual pass rates of each of the relevant qualifications;

(4)

the quality of the service the qualification provider provides to candidates in relation to qualifications and its complaints procedures;

(5)

how the qualification provider maintains its qualifications to ensure they remain comparable to other qualifications in the same sector; and

(6)

whether the qualification provider gives candidates reasonable notice of any syllabus change, change in method of assessment or pass standards;

(7)

information supporting the criteria in TC Appendix 5G paragraph 3.

COLL 6.3.6GRP

Table: This table belongs to COLL 6.3.2 G (2) (a) and COLL 6.3.3 R (Valuation)1.

Valuation and pricing

1

The valuation of scheme property

(1)

Where possible, investments should be valued using a reputable source. The reliability of the source of prices should be kept under regular review.

(2)

For some or all of the investments comprising the scheme property, different prices may quoted according to whether they are being bought (offer prices) or sold (bid prices). The valuation of a single-priced authorised fund should reflect the mid-market value of such investments. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, the issue basis of the valuation will be carried out by reference to the offer prices of investments and the cancellation basis by reference to the bid prices of those same investments. The prospectus should explain how investments will be valued for which a single price is quoted for both buying and selling.1

1

3(2A)

Schemes investing in approved money-market instruments5should value such instruments on an amortised cost basis on condition that:5

55

[Note:CESR's UCITS eligible assets guidelines with respect to article 4(2) of the UCITS eligible assets Directive]

(2B)

Short-term money market funds may value approved money-market instruments on an amortised cost basis.7

[Note: paragraph 21 of CESR's guidelines on a common definition of European money market funds]7

(3)

Any part of the scheme property of an authorised fund that is not an investment should be valued at a fair value, but for immovables this is subject to COLL 5.6.20 R (3) (f) (Standing independent valuer and valuation).

(4)

For the purposes of (2) and (3), any fiscal charges, commissions, professional fees or other charges that were paid, or would be payable on acquiring or disposing of the investment or other part of the scheme property should, in the case of a single-priced authorised fund,2 be excluded from the value of an investment or other part of the scheme property. In the case of a dual-priced authorised fund, any such payments should be added to the issue basis of the valuation, or subtracted from the cancellation basis of the valuation, as appropriate. Alternatively, the prospectus of a dual-priced authorised fund may prescribe any other method of calculating unitprices that ensures an equivalent treatment of the effect of these payments.2

(5)

Where the authorised fund manager has reasonable grounds to believe that:

it should value an investment at a price which, in its opinion, reflects a fair and reasonable price for that investment (the fair value price);

(6)

The circumstances which may give rise to a fair value price being used include:

  • no recent trade in the security concerned; or
  • the occurrence of a significant event since the most recent closure of the market where the price of the security is taken.
In (b), a significant event is one that means the most recent price of a security or a basket of securities is materially different to the price that it is reasonably believed would exist at the valuation point had the relevant market been open.

(7)

In determining whether to use such a fair value price , the authorised fund manager should include in his consideration:

4(7A)

Where the authorised fund manager, the depositary or the standing independent valuer have reasonable grounds to believe that the most recent valuation of an immovable does not reflect the current value of that immovable, the authorised fund manager should consult and agree with the standing independent valuer a fair and reasonable value for the immovable.

(8)

The authorised fund manager should document the basis of valuation (including any fair value pricing policy) and, where appropriate, the basis of any methodology and ensure that the procedures are applied consistently and fairly.

(9)

Where a unit price is determined using properly applied fair value prices in accordance with policies in (8), subsequent information that indicates the price should have been different from that calculated will not normally give rise to an instance of incorrect pricing.

2

The pricing controls of the authorised fund manager

(1)

An authorised fund manager needs to be able to demonstrate that it has effective controls over its calculations of unit prices.

(2)

The controls referred to in (1) should ensure that:

  • asset prices are accurate and up to date;
  • investment 1transactions are accurately and promptly reflected in valuations;
  • the components of the valuation (including stock, cash, and units in issue1), are regularly reconciled to their source or prime records and any reconciling items resolved promptly and debtors reviewed for recoverability;
  • the sources of prices not obtained from the main pricing source are recorded and regularly reviewed;
  • compliance with the investment and borrowing powers is regularly reviewed;
  • dividends are accounted for as soon as securities1 are quoted ex-dividend (unless it is prudent to account for them on receipt):
  • fixed interest dividends, interest and expenses are accrued at each valuation point1;
  • tax positions are regularly reviewed and adjusted, if necessary;
  • reasonable tolerances are set for movements in the key elements of a valuation and movements outside these tolerances are investigated;5
  • the fund manager regularly reviews the portfolio valuation for accuracy5; and5
  • the valuation of OTC derivatives is accurate and up to date and in compliance with the methods agreed with the depositary.5

(3)

In exercising its pricing controls, the authorised fund manager may exercise reasonable discretion in determining the appropriate frequency of the operation of the controls and may choose a longer interval, if appropriate, given the level of activity on the authorised fund1or the materiality of any effect on the price.

(4)

Evidence of the exercise of the pricing controls should be retained.

(5)

Evidence of persistent or repetitive errors in relation to these matters, and in particular any evidence of a pattern of errors working in an authorised fund manager's favour, will make demonstrating effective controls more difficult.

(6)

Where the pricing1function is delegated to a third party, COLL 6.6.15 R (1) (Committees and delegation) will apply.

3

The depositary's review of the authorised fund manager's systems and controls

(1)

This section provides details of the types of checks a depositary should carry out to be satisfied that the authorised fund manager adopts systems and controls which are appropriate to ensure that prices of units are calculated in accordance with this section and to ensure that the likelihood of incorrect prices will be minimised. These checks also apply where an authorised fund manager has delegated all or some of its pricing1 functions to one or more third parties5.

5

(2)

A depositary should thoroughly review an authorised fund manager's systems and controls to confirm that they are satisfactory. The depositary's review should include an analysis of the controls in place to determine the extent to which reliance can be placed on them.

(3)

A review should be performed when the depositary is appointed and thereafter as it feels appropriate given its knowledge of the robustness and the stability of the systems and controls and their operation.

(4)

A review should be carried out more frequently where a depositary knows or suspects that an authorised fund manager's systems and controls are weak or are otherwise unsatisfactory.

(5)

Additionally, a depositary should from time to time review other aspects of the valuation of the scheme property of each authorised fund for which it is responsible, verifying, on a sample basis, if necessary, the assets, liabilities, accruals, units in issue1, securities prices (and in particular the prices of OTC derivatives,5unapproved securities and the basis for the valuation of unquoted securities) and any other relevant matters, for example an accumulation factor or a currency conversion factor.

(6)

A depositary should ensure that any issues, which are identified in any such review, are properly followed up and resolved.

4

The recording and reporting of instances of incorrect pricing

(1)

An authorised fund manager should record each instance where the price of a unit is incorrect as soon as the error is discovered, and report the fact to the depositary together with details of the action taken, or to be taken, to avoid repetition as soon as practicable.

(2)

In accordance with COLL 6.6.11 G (Duty to inform the FCA), the depositary should report any breach of the rules in COLL 6.3 immediately to the FCA. However, notification should relate to instances which the depositary considers material only.

(3)

A depositary should also report to the FCA immediately any instance of incorrect pricing1where the error is 0.5% or more of the price of a unit, where a depositary believes that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate and should not be paid by an authorised fund manager.

(4)

In accordance with SUP 16.6.8 R, a depositary should also make a return to the FCA on a quarterly basis which summarises the number of instances of incorrect pricing1 during a particular period.

5

The rectification of pricing breaches

(1)

COLL 6.6.3R(3)(c)10(Functions of the authorised fund manager) places a duty on the authorised fund manager to take action to reimburse affected unitholders, former unitholders, and the scheme itself, for instances of incorrect pricing1, except if it appears to the depositary that the breach is of minimal significance.

(2)

A depositary may consider that the instance of incorrect pricing1is of minimal significance if:

(3)

In determining (2), if the instance of incorrect pricing1 is due to one or more factors or exists over a period of time, each price should be considered separately.

(4)

If a depositary deems it appropriate, it may, in spite of the circumstances outlined in (2), require a payment from the authorised fund manager or from the authorised fund to the unitholders, former unitholders, the authorised fund or the authorised fund manager (where appropriate).

(5)

The depositary should satisfy itself that any payments required following an instance of incorrect pricing1 are accurately and promptly calculated and paid.

(6)

If a depositary considers that reimbursement or payment is inappropriate, it should report the matter to the FCA, together with its recommendation and justification. The depositary should take into account the need to avoid prejudice to the rights of unitholders, or the rights of unitholders in a class of units.

(7)

It may not be practicable, or in some cases legally permissible, for the authorised fund manager to obtain reimbursement from unitholders, where the unitholders have benefited from the incorrect price.

(8)

In all cases where reimbursement or payment is required, amounts due to be reimbursed to unitholders for individual sums which are reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager and depositary to be immaterial, need not normally be paid.