Related provisions for SYSC 22.8.1

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REC 2.13.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body is able and willing to promote and maintain high standards of integrity and fair dealing in the carrying on of regulated activities, the FCA4 may have regard to the extent to which the UK recognised body seeks to promote and encourage, through its rules, practices and procedures, conduct in regulated activities which is consistent with the Market Abuse Regulation5 and with any5 codes of conduct, rules or principles relating to behaviour
SYSC 4.2.4GRP
At least two independent minds should be applied to the formulation and implementation of the policies of a common platform firm, a management company3, a full-scope UK AIFM5 and the UK branch of a non-EEA bank1. Where a firm1 nominates just two individuals to direct its business, the appropriate regulator will not regard them as both effectively directing the business where one of them makes some, albeit significant, decisions relating to only a few aspects of the business.
CASS 8.2.3GRP
(1) If a firm receives information that puts it in the position described in CASS 8.2.1 R (4) in order to effect transactions immediately on receiving that information, then such information could only amount to a mandate if the firm retained3 it (for example by not destroying the relevant document, electronic record or telephone recording3):3(a) after it uses it to effect those immediate transactions; or(b) because those transactions are not, for whatever reason, effected immediately.(2)
GEN 2.2.25GRP
An example of a rule20 being interpreted as cut back by GEN 2.2.23R is SYSC 6.1.1R, which requires a firm to maintain adequate policies and procedures to ensure compliance with its obligations under the regulatory system; SYSC 6.1.1R should be interpreted as applied by the FCA in respect of a PRA-authorised person’s compliance with regulatory obligations that are the responsibility of the FCA (for example, in respect of a bank maintaining policies and procedures to ensure compliance
REC 2.11.3GRP
In determining whether a UK recognised body has made satisfactory arrangements for the safeguarding and administration of assets belonging to the users of its facilities, the FCA3 may have regard to: 3(1) the level of protection which the arrangements provide against the risk of theft or other types or causes of loss;(2) whether the arrangements ensure that assets are only used or transferred in accordance with the instructions of the owner of those assets or in accordance with
BIPRU 11.3.3RRP
(1) A firm must adopt a formal policy to comply with the disclosure requirements laid down in BIPRU 11.3.1 R and BIPRU 11.3.2 R and have policies for assessing the appropriateness of its disclosures, including their verification and frequency.2(2) A firm must also have policies for assessing whether its disclosures convey its risk profile comprehensively to market participants. Where those disclosures do not convey its risk profile comprehensively to market participants, a firm
BIPRU 9.4.15DRP
2An originator's application for a waiver of the requirements in BIPRU 9.4.11R and BIPRU 9.4.12R must demonstrate that the following conditions are satisfied.(1) 2it has policies and methodologies in place which ensure that the possible reduction of capital requirements which the originator achieves by the securitisation is justified by a commensurate transfer of credit risk to third parties; and(2) 2that such a transfer of credit risk to third parties is also recognised for the
RCB 3.2.4GRP
The FCA expects the asset pool monitor's report1 to address at least the matters to be checked and due diligence procedures set out in RCB 2.3.18 G. The FCA may also specify additional matters that the asset pool monitor's report should address in relation to a particular issuer.11
SYSC 4.3.1RRP
Afirm (with the exception of a sole trader who does not employ any person who is required to be approved under section 59 of the Act (Approval for particular arrangements)),2 when allocating functions internally, must ensure that senior personnel and, where appropriate, the supervisory function, are responsible for ensuring that the firm complies with its obligations under the regulatory system1. In particular, senior personnel and, where appropriate, the supervisory function
DTR 4.1.11RRP
The management report required by DTR 4.1.8 R must also give an indication of:(1) any important events that have occurred since the end of the financial year unless those events are:4(a) 4reflected in the issuer’s profit and loss account or balance sheet; or(b) 4disclosed in the notes to the issuer’s audited financial statements;(2) the issuer's likely future development;(3) activities in the field of research and development;(4) the information concerning acquisitions of own
COND 1.3.5UKRP
1Paragraph 1A of Schedule 6 to the Act(1) "assets" includes contingent assets;"consolidated supervision" has the same meaning as in section 3M(a);"consumer" has the meaning given by section 425A(b);"financial crime" is to be read with section 1H(3)(c);"functions", in relation to either the FCA or the PRA, means the functions conferred on that regulator by or under this Act;"liabilities" includes contingent liabilities; "relevant directives" has the same meaning as in section 3M;
COLL 6.11.4RRP
(1) The permanent risk management function must:(a) implement the risk management policy and procedures;(b) ensure compliance with the risk limit system, including statutory limits concerning global exposure and counterparty risk, as required by COLL 5.2 (General investment powers and limits for UCITS schemes) and COLL 5.3 (Derivative exposure) or, where appropriate, the relevant UCITS Home State measures implementing articles 41, 42 and 43 of the UCITS implementing Directive;(c)
IFPRU 4.10.1GRP
The FCA expects a firm to have a validation process that includes the following:(1) standards of objectivity, accuracy, stability and conservatism that it designs its ratings systems to meet and processes that establish whether its rating systems meet those standards;(2) standards of accuracy of calibration (ie, whether outcomes are consistent with estimates) and discriminative power (ie, the ability to rank-order risk) that it designs its rating systems to meet and processes
MIPRU 4.2BA.9RRP
Policies and procedures: a firm must evaluate and address all risks, including reputational risks, through appropriate policies and procedures, to ensure in particular that the economic substance of the transaction is fully reflected in risk assessments and management decisions.
COLL 8.2.6RRP

This table belongs to COLL 8.2.5 R

1

Description of the authorised fund

Information detailing:

(1)

the name of the authorised fund;

(2)

that the authorised fund is a qualified investor scheme; and

(3)

in the case of an ICVC, whether the head office of the company is situated in England and Wales or Wales or Scotland or Northern Ireland.

3Property Authorised Investment Funds

1A

For a property authorised investment fund, a statement that:

(1)

it is a property authorised investment fund;

(2)

no body corporate may seek to obtain or intentionally maintain a holding of more that 10% of the net asset value of the fund; and

(3)

in the event that the authorised fund manager reasonably considers that a body corporate holds more than 10% of the net asset value of the fund, the authorised fund manager is entitled to delay any redemption or cancellation of units in accordance with 6A if the authorised fund manager reasonably considers such action to be:

(a)

necessary in order to enable an orderly reduction of the holding to below 10%; and

(b)

in the interests of the unitholders as a whole.

2

Constitution

The following statements:

(1)

the scheme property of the scheme is entrusted to a depositary for safekeeping (subject to any exception permitted by the rules);

(2)

if relevant, the duration of the scheme is limited and, if so, for how long;

(3)

charges and expenses of the scheme may be taken out of scheme property;

(4)

for an ICVC:

(a)

what the maximum and minimum sizes of the scheme's capital are; and

(b)

the unitholders are not liable for the debts of the company;5

6

5(4A)

for an ICVC which is an umbrella, a statement that the assets of a sub-fund belong exclusively to that sub-fund and shall not be used to discharge directly or indirectly the liabilities of, or claims against, any other person or body, including the umbrella, or any other sub-fund, and shall not be available for any such purpose;6

6(4B)

for a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella, the property subject to a sub-fund is beneficially owned by the participants in that sub-fund as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants in that sub-fund) and must not be used to discharge any liabilities of, or meet any claims against, any person other than the participants in that sub-fund;

6(4C)

for a limited partnership scheme, that the scheme prohibits pooling as is mentioned in section 235(3)(a) of the Act in relation to separate parts of the scheme property, with the effect that the scheme cannot be an umbrella;

(5)

for an AUT:

(a)

the trust deed:

(i)

is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, or the law of Scotland or the law of Northern Ireland;

(ii)

is binding on each unitholder as if he had been a party to it and that he is bound by its provisions; and

(iii)

authorises and requires the trustee and the manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms;

(b)

subject to the provisions of the trust deed and all the rules made under section 247 of the Act (Trust scheme rules):

(i)

the scheme (other than sums held to the credit of the distribution account) is held by the trustee on trust for the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of individual shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and

(ii)

the sums standing to the credit of any distribution account are held by the trustee on trust to distribute or apply in accordance with COLL 8.5.15 R (Income);

(c)

a Unitholder is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units he holds; and

(d)

payments to the trustee by way of remuneration are authorised to be paid (in whole or in part) out of the scheme property; and6

6

(6)6

for an ACS:

(a)

the contractual scheme deed:

(i)

is made under and governed by the law of England and Wales, or the law of Scotland or the law of Northern Ireland;

(ii)

is binding on each unitholder as if he had been a party to it and that he is bound by its provisions;

(iii)

authorises and requires the depositary and the authorised contractual scheme manager to do the things required or permitted of them by its terms; and

(iv)

states that units may not be issued to a person other than a person7:

(A)

who 7is a:

(i)

professional ACS investor;

(ii)

large ACS investor; or

(iii)

person who already holds units in the scheme; and

(B)

to whom units in a qualified investor scheme may be promoted under COBS 4.12.4 R;7

7

(v)

states that the authorised contractual scheme manager of an ACS must redeemunits as soon as practicable after becoming aware that those units are vested in anyone (whether as a result of subscription or transfer of units) other than a person meeting the criteria in (iv)(A) and (B);

(vi)

states that for a co-ownership scheme:

(A)

the scheme property is beneficially owned by the participants as tenants in common (or, in Scotland, is the common property of the participants);

(B)

the arrangements constituting the scheme are intended to constitute a co-ownership scheme as defined in section 235A(2) of the Act; and

(C)

the operator and depositary are required to wind up the scheme if directed to do so by the FCA in exercise of its power under section 261X (Directions) or section 261Z (Winding up or merger of master UCITS) of the Act;

(vii)

states:

(A)

whether the transfer of units in the ACS scheme or, for a co-ownership scheme which is an umbrella (sub-funds of which pursue differing policies in relation to transfer of units), in each particular sub-fund, is either:

(i)

prohibited; or

(ii)

allowed;

(B)

where transfer of units is allowed by the scheme or, where appropriate the sub-fund, in accordance with (A)(ii), units may only be transferred in accordance with the conditions specified by FCArules, including that units may not be transferred to a person other than a person :

7

(i)

who 7is a:

(1)

professional ACS investor; or

(2)

large ACS investor; or

(3)

person who already holds units in the scheme; and

(ii)

to whom units in a qualified investor scheme may be promoted under COBS 4.12.4 R; and7

7

(viii)

states that for a limited partnership scheme, the scheme is not dissolved on any person ceasing to be a limited partner or nominated partner provided that there remains at least one limited partner;

(b)

subject to the provisions of the contractual scheme deed and all the rules made under section 261I of the Act (Contractual scheme rules) and for the time being in force:

(i)

the scheme property (other than sums standing to the credit of the distribution account) is held by, or to the order of, the depositary for and on behalf of the unitholders according to the number of units held by each unitholder or, where relevant, according to the number of individual shares in the scheme property represented by the units held by each unitholder; and

(ii)

the sums standing to the credit of any distribution account are held by the depositary to distribute or apply them in accordance with COLL 8.5.15 R(Income); and

(c)

a unitholder in a co-ownership scheme is not liable to make any further payment after he has paid the price of his units and that no further liability can be imposed on him in respect of the units he holds;

(d)

a unitholder in a limited partnership scheme is not liable for the debts or obligations of the limited partnership scheme beyond the amount of the scheme property which is available to the authorised contractual scheme manager to meet such debts or obligations, provided that the unitholder does not take part in the management of the partnership business;

(e)

the exercise of rights conferred on limited partners by FCA rules does not constitute taking part in the management of the partnership business;

(f)

the limited partners, other than the nominated partner, are to be the participants in the scheme; and

(g)

the operator of a co-ownership scheme is authorised to:

(i)

acquire, manage and dispose of the scheme property; and

(ii)

enter into contracts which are binding on unitholders for the purposes of, or in connection with, the acquisition, management or disposal of scheme property.

3

Investment objectives

A statement of the object of the scheme, in particular the types of investments and assets in which it and each sub-fund (where applicable) may invest and that the object of the scheme is to invest in property of that kind with the aim of spreading investment risk.

4

Units in the scheme

A statement of:

(1)

the classes of units which the scheme may issue, indicating, for a scheme which is an umbrella, which class or classes may be issued in respect of each sub-fund; and

(2)

the rights attaching to units of each class (including any provisions for the expression in two denominations of such rights).

5

Limitation on issue of and redemption of units

Details as to:

(1)

the provisions relating to any restrictions on the right to redeem units in any class; and

(2)

the circumstances in which the issue of the units of any particular class may be limited.

6

Income and distribution

Details of the person responsible for the calculation, transfer, allocation and distribution of income for any class of unit in issue during the accounting period.

3Redemption or cancellation of units on breach of law or rules

6A

A statement that where any holding of units by a unitholder is (or is reasonably considered by the authorised fund manager to be) an infringement of any law, governmental regulation or rule, those units must be redeemed or cancelled.

7

Base currency

A statement of the base currency of the scheme.

8

Meetings

Details of the procedures for the convening of meetings and the procedures relating to resolutions, voting and the voting rights for unitholders.

9

Powers and duties of the authorised fund manager and depositary

Where relevant, details of any function to be undertaken by the authorised fund manager and depositary which the rules in COLL require to be stated in the instrument constituting the fund.8

8

10

Termination and suspension

Details of:

(1)

the grounds under which the authorised fund manager may initiate a suspension of the scheme and any associated procedures; and

(2)

the methodology for determining the rights of unitholders to participate in the scheme property on winding up.

110A

Investment in overseas2 property through an intermediate holding vehicle1

If investment in an overseas2 immovable is to be made through an intermediate holding vehicle or a series of intermediate holding vehicles, a statement that the purpose of that intermediate holding vehicle or series of intermediate holding vehicles will be to enable the holding of overseas2 immovables by the scheme.1

11

Other relevant matters

Details of those matters which enable the scheme, authorised fund manager or depositary to obtain any privilege or power conferred by the rules in COLL which is not otherwise provided for in the instrument constituting the fund.8

8
COLL 6.1.3GRP
(1) The authorised fund manager operates the scheme on a day-to-day basis. Its operation is determined by the rules in this chapter, which require appropriate powers in the instrument constituting the fund3 or refer to the need to state the relevant operating procedures in the prospectus of the scheme.3(2) (a) 4The authorised fund manager does not necessarily have to carry out all the activities it is responsible for and may delegate functions to other persons.(b) 4The rules in
SYSC 13.7.1GRP
A firm should establish and maintain appropriate systems and controls for managing operational risks that can arise from inadequacies or failures in its processes and systems (and, as appropriate, the systems and processes of third party suppliers, agents and others). In doing so a firm should have regard to:(1) the importance and complexity of processes and systems used in the end-to-end operating cycle for products and activities (for example, the level of integration of systems);(2)
EG 3.11.1RP
1The FCA recognises that there are good reasons for firms wishing to carry out their own investigations. This might be for, for example, disciplinary purposes, general good management, or operational and risk control. The firm needs to know the extent of any problem, and it may want advice as to what immediate or short-term measures it needs to take to mitigate or correct any problems identified. The FCA encourages this proactive approach and does not wish to interfere with a
COBS 20.3.6RRP

Table: Issues to be covered in PPFM

Subject

Issues

(1)

Amount payable under a with-profits policy

(a)

Methods used to guide determination of the amount that is appropriate to pay individual with-profits policyholders, including:

(i)

the aims of the methods and approximations used;

(ii)

how the current methods, including any relevant historical assumptions used and any systems maintained to deliver results of particular methods, are documented; and

(iii)

the procedures for changing the current method or any assumptions or parameters relevant to a particular method.

(b)

Approach to setting bonus rates.

(c)

Approach to smoothing maturity payments and surrender payments, including:

(i)

the smoothing policy applied to each type of with-profits policy;

(ii)

the limits (if any) applied to the total cost of, or excess from, smoothing; and

(iii)

any limits applied to any changes in the level of maturity payments between one period to another.

(2)

Investment strategy

Significant aspects of the firm's investment strategy for its with-profits business or, if different, any with-profits fund, including:

(a)

the degree of matching to be maintained between assets relevant to with-profits business and liabilities to with-profits policyholders and other creditors;

(b)

the firm's approach to assets of different credit or liquidity quality and different volatility of market values;

(c)

the presence among the assets relevant to with-profits business of any assets that would not normally be traded because of their importance to the firm, and the justification for holding such assets; and

(d)

the firm's controls on using new asset or liability instruments and the nature of any approval required before new instruments are used.

(3)

Business risk

The exposure of the with-profits business to business risks (new and existing), including the firm's:

(a)

procedures for deciding if the with-profits business may undertake a particular business risk;

(b)

arrangements for reviewing and setting a limit on the scale of such risks; and

(c)

procedures for reflecting the profits or losses of such business risks in the amounts payable under with-profits policies.

(4)

Charges and expenses

(a)

The way in which the firm applies charges and apportions expenses to its with-profits business, including, if material, any interaction with connected firms.

(b)

The cost apportionment principles that will determine which costs are, or may be, charged to a with-profits fund and which costs are, or may be, charged to the other parts of its business of its shareholders.

(5)

Management of inherited estate

Management of any inherited estate and the uses to which the firm may put that inherited estate.

(6)

Volumes of new business and arrangements on stopping taking new business

If a firm'swith-profits fund is accepting new with-profits business, its practice for review of the limits on the quantity and type of new business and the actions that the firm would take if it ceased to take on new business of any significant amount.

(7)

Equity between the with-profits fund and any shareholders

The way in which the interests of with-profits policyholders are, or may be, affected by the interests of any shareholders of the firm.